PANS - OPS 8168 Flashcards
1
Q
What is PANS-OPS?
A
Rules for designing instrument approach and departure procedures
2
Q
What are the two volumes of PANS OPS?
A
Volume 1 - Flight Procedures
Volume 2 - Construction of Visual and Instrument Flight Procedures
3
Q
_____ is a primary safety concern in the development of instrument flight procedures.
A
Obstacle clearance
4
Q
Pilots should attempt to maintain the track over the ground by applying _____ to headings where the wind is known.
A
wind corrections
5
Q
In the primary area how much obstacle clearance are you given?
A
1000ft
6
Q
In the secondary area how much obstacle clearance are you given?
A
Less than the primary area - 500 ft
7
Q
System use accuracy is based on the following factors:
A
- Station system tolerance.
- Airborne receiving system tolerance.
- Flight technical tolerance.
8
Q
In the development of instrument procedures the following values are normally used:
1) NDB: ____
2) VOR: ____
3) ILS localiser: ____
A
- ±6.9°
- ±5.2°
- ±2.4°
9
Q
What are SID, STAR and APPROACH
A
SID - Standard Instrument Departure
STAR - Standard Terminal Arrival Procedures
APPROACH - Instrument approach procedures that pilots use to fly instrument approaches
10
Q
A SID: is a departure procedure that terminates at the _____ of the en-route phase of the flight.
A
- first fix/facility/waypoint
11
Q
The criteria for omnidirectional departures are applied where no ____
A
- suitable navigation aid is available,
12
Q
Omnidirectional Departure:
Sectors where the Aircraft is not permitted to fly will be given as a ____
A
- Bearing and distance.
13
Q
Departure procedures commence at the _____, which is the end of the area declared suitable for take-off.
A
- departure end of the runway (DER)
14
Q
The Procedure Design Gradient starts at the ____?
A
- Departure end of the runway
15
Q
Unless otherwise publicized a PDG of ____ is assumed.
A
3.3%
16
Q
OIS stands for?
A
Obstacle Identification Surface (OIS)
17
Q
The operator is responsible for the Development of contingency procedures to cover an engine failure or Emergency in flight which occurs after ____
A
V1 (Descision Speed).
18
Q
What is the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of the runway?
A
0 ft
19
Q
In the turn commencement area and turn area, a minimum obstacle clearance of ___ is provided.
A
90 m (295 ft)
20
Q
What are the two basic types of SID?
A
- Straight
- Turning
21
Q
A straight SID departure requires Track guidance within ____ from the departure end of the runway.
A
- 10.8nm (20km) (must capture NavAid within)
22
Q
A turning SID departure require Track guidance within ____ after
completion of departure turns.
A
- 5.4nm (10km) (must capture NavAid within)
23
Q
A straight SID departure is made within?
A
15 Deg either side of the runway on departure
24
Q
A turning SID departure is made?
A
over 15 Deg either side of the runway on departure
25
During a turning departure no turns are to be made until reaching a height of?
120 m (394ft)
26
Omnidirectional departure have?
No nav aids
27
With a turning departure, turns may start?
600m from the start of the runway
28
The arrival route normally ends at the?
Initial Approach Fix
29
At the end of the en route section is the start of the ?
STAR
30
The beginning of the approach starts at the?
Initial Approach Fix
31
What are the 5 approach segments?
Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final and Missed Approach
32
What is the purpose of the initial segment?
Align AC on Final
33
What is the obstacle clearance on the initial approach segment?
1000 ft
34
Arrival is known as?
STAR
35
The intermediate approach segment purpose is?
Configure the aircraft
36
What is the purpose of the final approach segment?
Descend to land
37
Where is the Missed Approach Point?
At the end of the final approach segment
38
Atop the final approach fix you have ___ of obstacle clearance?
500 ft
39
IF stands for?
Intermediate fix
40
IAF stands for?
Initial Approach Fix
41
FAP stands for?
Final Approach Position (Precision)
42
FAF stands for?
Final Approach Fix (Non Precision)
43
FAP is precision or non precision?
Precision
44
FAF is precision or non precision?
Non precision
45
The two types of instrument approach procedures are?
* Straight in approach
* Circling Approach
46
If the turn is more or less then ___ on an approach it is considered?
* More than 30 Deg circling approach
* Less than 30 Deg straight in approach
47
CDFA stands for?
Continuous Descent Final approach
48
If it says CDFA use?
DA
49
Aircraft categories are?
SPEED IN THE LANDING CONFIGURATION
Most significant performance factor is speed
50
OCA stands for?
Obstacle Clearance Altitude
51
* Categories are based on Vat / Vref ____ at Max Landing mass.
* VS0 – Stalling speed in the landing configuration.
* 1.3 x Vso
52
DA/H & MDA/H cannot be below ____
* OCA!
53
* DH & DA: ____
* MDH & MDA: ______
* Precision Approaches
* Non-precision & Circling Approaches
54
Final approach point is where you capture the?
ILS
55
Where is the missed approach point?
What are the arrows showing for the VOR and the LOC?
Final Approach Point (Capture ILS) and Missed Approach Point (D7.2 QAA)
Arrows show Minimum heights for the VOR the LOC
56
TCH stands for?
Threshold crossing height
57
The clover on the chart is the?
Final Approach Fix
58
Aircraft Categories (Bottom left)
Missed approach Point
Final Approach Fix (Non Precision)
Final Approach Point (Precision)
ILS (Precision)
LOC (Non Precision)
RVR - Runway Visual range
TDZ - Touch Down Zone
CL - Centre Line lights
59
What does MDA stand for?
Minimum Descent Altitude
60
Precision approaches uses?
Threshold elevation
61
Non precision approaches use?
Aerodrome elevation UNLESS the threshold elevation is 7ft or more below aerodrome elevation
62
MDA is sometimes called?
Dive and drive
63
Both CDFA and MDA are what type of approaches?
Non precision approaches
64
Factors considered for precision approach (DA) or Non-Precision Approach (MDA) are based on:
* Category of operation. (A,B,C,D,E)
* Ground/airborne equipment characteristics.
* Crew qualification.
* Meteorological conditions.
* Aerodrome characteristics.
* Altimeter Errors.
65
What is the radius of this disc?
What is the obstacle clearance it must provide?
25nm
1000ft
66
What are the 5 segments of the approach?
Arrival
Initial
Intermediate
Final
Missed approach
67
The initial approach segment commences at the _____
This segment provides at least ____
IAF and ends at the IF.
300 m (1000 ft) of obstacle clearance
68
Race track is part of the ?
Approach procedure
69
Holding procedures are for ?
Air traffic flow management
70
This is a ?
Procedure turn
71
This is a ?
Base turn
72
Cat A and B aircraft how long do you spend on a procedural turn?
1 min
73
Cat C and D aircraft how long do you spend on a procedural turn?
1 min and 15 seconds
74
What kind of turn is this?
45 Deg, 180 Deg turn
75
Procedural turns have?
No track guidance
76
Base turns have?
Track guidance
77
The red line is ?
The intimidate segment
78
Procedures are based on an average achieved bank angle of
25°,
79
Established on the localiser means?
Half scale deflection on the EHSI
±5° of the required bearing for an NDB approach.
80
In the Intermediate segment, the minimum obstacle clearance reduces to ?
150m (492ft)
81
Where no FAF is specified, the inbound track is
the final approach segment.
82
The Final Segment Begins at the FAF/FAP and ends at
the MAPt or upon landing on the runway.
83
What is the purpose of the final approach segment?
Approach to land
84
typical descent angle and glide slope?
3 Deg
85
Standard climb gradient is?
3.3%
86
The arrival ends at the ?
IAF
87
The final approach segment is the ?
The descent for landing
88
The four types of final approaches are?
➢ Non-precision approach (NPA) with final approach fix (FAF).
➢ NPA without FAF.
➢ Approach with vertical guidance (APV) such as LPV / LNAV/VNAV.
➢ Precision approach (PA).
89
LNAV and VNAV are ? approaches
Precision
90
The optimum distance for locating the FAF from the threshold is
from 5 - 10 nm from the threshold
91
RVR section at bottom of approach plate is the ?
Minimum RVR that you can shoot the approach
92
ALS out means?
Approach Lighting System lights out
93
Step down fixes are ?
Non precision
94
Final approach segment begins at the
final approach point (FAP).
95
The intermediate approach altitude/height generally intercepts the glide path/MLS elevation angle at heights from
1000 ft to 3000 ft above runway elevation.
96
DA/H for ILS and MLS are based on the following standard conditions:
* Aircraft dimensions.
* Cat I flown with pressure altimeter.
* Cat II flown with radio altimeter and flight director.
* Missed approach climb gradient of 2.5%.
* Glide path angle, minimum 2.5°, optimum 3°, maximum 3.5° (3° for CAT II/III).
97
Missed approach climb gradient is
2.5 %
98
What are the 3 join procedures?
Parallel
Offset
Direct
99
100
Circling : Aerdrome Eelevation + OCH = OCA
NPA : Aerdrome Elevation or relevant THR if 7ft below AD elevation + OCH = OCA
PA : Always relevant THR elevation + OCH = OCA
101
Straight-in approach= ______
Straight departure= ______
* 30 deg or less
* 15 deg or less
102
TAR : _______
RSR : _______
DME : ______
* 20nm +/- 0.8nm
* 40nm +/- 1.7nm
* 0.25 +/- 1.25%
103
Count how many "IFR and VFR" are contained in the question:
1A
2B/G
3F
4/5E
6D
8C
Class E:
ATCS for IFR (two-way and clearance required for entry in the airspace)
FIS as far as practical for VFR (two-way not required and no clearance required)
104
Non-RNAV -> ______ (class of airspace)
RNAV -> _____ (class of airspace)
* A, B, G, R
* M, N, P, L
105
A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach Using
bearing, elevation and distance information.
106
DH for CAT 1 is ?
Min RVR is?
200 ft
RVR not less then 550m
107
DH for Cat 2 is?
Min RVR is?
lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft
RVR not less then 300m
108
DH for Cat 3 is?
Min RVR is?
DH lower than 100ft or no DH
RVR not less than 200m
109
If an aircraft does not have the visual references required to land when it reaches the MAPt a
missed approach should be carried out immediately.
110
Missed approaches are kept as simple as possible.
They consist of three phases:
Initial, Intermediate and Final.
111
If the missed approach is started before arriving at the MAPt, it is expected that the pilot will proceed to the
MAPt and then follow the procedure; this will ensure that the aircraft will remain within the protected airspace.
112
For a precision approach the MAPt is ?
The point of intersection of an electronic glide path with the DA/DH
113
For a non precision approach the MAPt is ?
At a specified point (navigation facility, a fix, or a specified distance from the FAF) not lower than the MDA/H.
114
MAP
Initial phase begins at the _____ and ends at the start of climb (SOC)
* MAPt
115
MAP
Intermediate Phase Begins at the ____ has a normal minimum gradient of _____ and ends at the first point where _____ clearance is obtained.
* SOC,
* 2.5%
* 164ft (50m)
116
MAP
Final phase - Begins at the point where _____ clearance is obtained.
* 164ft (50m)
117
Circling approach - lose visual with runway, what do you do?
Turn towards runway and climb - go to missed approach point
118
visual manoeuvring area for a circling approach is established by drawing arcs centred on each runway threshold and joining those arcs with tangent lines.
The radius of the arcs is related to:
* The aircraft category
* The speed for aircraft categories A to E.
* A wind speed of 25 kt throughout the turn.
* An average bank angle of 25° or 3° per second, whichever requires less bank.
119
Descent below MDA/H should not be made until all of the following have been satisfied:
* Visual reference has been established and can be maintained.
* The pilot has the landing threshold in sight.
* The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to carry out a landing.
120
Precision approaches use?
Threshold elevation
121
Whats the function of the hold?
Air traffic flow management
122
Fixes in the hold denote ?
The beginning and the end of the hold
123
Detail the image
124
Standard Hold turns to the ?
Right
125
Non-Standard Hold turns to the ?
Left
126
Enter the hold and leave the hold at the ?
FIx
127
What are the holding entries known as ?
Parallel, Offset, Direct Entry
128
Below 14,000 ft, what is the timing ?
1 Minute
129
Above 14,000 ft, what is the timing?
1 minute 30 seconds
130
Bank angles in the holding pattern should be?
All turns are made at a bank angle of 25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.
131
C + D cat aircraft travel at what max speed in the hold?
230 kts
132
Abeam the fix, you start timing the ?
Hold
133
5 degrees either side of an entry to a hold you can ?
Decide what entry you want to do
134
Based on magnetic ?
Heading
135
Buffer area is ?
5 nm
136
lowest transition altitude is ?
3000ft
137
always choose the ___ QNH
Lowest
138
The QNH altimeter setting will be made available to aircraft in
Approach clearances and in clearances to enter the Traffic Circuit and taxi Clearances.
139
Equipment to ACAS II standard is capable of providing both
TAs and Resolution Advisories (RAs).
140
ACAS is?
Airborne Collision and Avoidance System.
