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Air Law > PANS - OPS 8168 > Flashcards

PANS - OPS 8168 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is PANS-OPS?

A

Rules for designing instrument approach and departure procedures

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2
Q

What are the two volumes of PANS OPS?

A

Volume 1 - Flight Procedures

Volume 2 - Construction of Visual and Instrument Flight Procedures

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3
Q

_____ is a primary safety concern in the development of instrument flight procedures.

A

Obstacle clearance

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4
Q

Pilots should attempt to maintain the track over the ground by applying _____ to headings where the wind is known.

A

wind corrections

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5
Q

In the primary area how much obstacle clearance are you given?

A

1000ft

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6
Q

In the secondary area how much obstacle clearance are you given?

A

Less than the primary area - 500 ft

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7
Q

System use accuracy is based on the following factors:

A
  1. Station system tolerance.
  2. Airborne receiving system tolerance.
  3. Flight technical tolerance.
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8
Q

In the development of instrument procedures the following values are normally used:

1) NDB: ____

2) VOR: ____

3) ILS localiser: ____

A
  • ±6.9°
  • ±5.2°
  • ±2.4°
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9
Q

What are SID, STAR and APPROACH

A

SID - Standard Instrument Departure

STAR - Standard Terminal Arrival Procedures

APPROACH - Instrument approach procedures that pilots use to fly instrument approaches

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10
Q

A SID: is a departure procedure that terminates at the _____ of the en-route phase of the flight.

A
  • first fix/facility/waypoint
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11
Q

The criteria for omnidirectional departures are applied where no ____

A
  • suitable navigation aid is available,
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12
Q

Omnidirectional Departure:

Sectors where the Aircraft is not permitted to fly will be given as a ____

A
  • Bearing and distance.
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13
Q

Departure procedures commence at the _____, which is the end of the area declared suitable for take-off.

A
  • departure end of the runway (DER)
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14
Q

The Procedure Design Gradient starts at the ____?

A
  • Departure end of the runway
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15
Q

Unless otherwise publicized a PDG of ____ is assumed.

A

3.3%

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16
Q

OIS stands for?

A

Obstacle Identification Surface (OIS)

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17
Q

The operator is responsible for the Development of contingency procedures to cover an engine failure or Emergency in flight which occurs after ____

A

V1 (Descision Speed).

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18
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of the runway?

A

0 ft

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19
Q

In the turn commencement area and turn area, a minimum obstacle clearance of ___ is provided.

A

90 m (295 ft)

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20
Q

What are the two basic types of SID?

A
  • Straight
  • Turning
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21
Q

A straight SID departure requires Track guidance within ____ from the departure end of the runway.

A
  • 10.8nm (20km) (must capture NavAid within)
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22
Q

A turning SID departure require Track guidance within ____ after
completion of departure turns.

A
  • 5.4nm (10km) (must capture NavAid within)
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23
Q

A straight SID departure is made within?

A

15 Deg either side of the runway on departure

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24
Q

A turning SID departure is made?

A

over 15 Deg either side of the runway on departure

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25
Q

During a turning departure no turns are to be made until reaching a height of?

A

120 m (394ft)

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26
Q

Omnidirectional departure have?

A

No nav aids

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27
Q

With a turning departure, turns may start?

A

600m from the start of the runway

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28
Q

The arrival route normally ends at the?

A

Initial Approach Fix

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29
Q

At the end of the en route section is the start of the ?

A

STAR

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30
Q

The beginning of the approach starts at the?

A

Initial Approach Fix

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31
Q

What are the 5 approach segments?

A

Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final and Missed Approach

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32
Q

What is the purpose of the initial segment?

A

Align AC on Final

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33
Q

What is the obstacle clearance on the initial approach segment?

A

1000 ft

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34
Q

Arrival is known as?

A

STAR

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35
Q

The intermediate approach segment purpose is?

A

Configure the aircraft

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36
Q

What is the purpose of the final approach segment?

A

Descend to land

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37
Q

Where is the Missed Approach Point?

A

At the end of the final approach segment

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38
Q

Atop the final approach fix you have ___ of obstacle clearance?

A

500 ft

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39
Q

IF stands for?

A

Intermediate fix

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40
Q

IAF stands for?

A

Initial Approach Fix

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41
Q

FAP stands for?

A

Final Approach Position (Precision)

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42
Q

FAF stands for?

A

Final Approach Fix (Non Precision)

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43
Q

FAP is precision or non precision?

A

Precision

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44
Q

FAF is precision or non precision?

A

Non precision

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45
Q

The two types of instrument approach procedures are?

A
  • Straight in approach
  • Circling Approach
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46
Q

If the turn is more or less then ___ on an approach it is considered?

A
  • More than 30 Deg circling approach
  • Less than 30 Deg straight in approach
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47
Q

CDFA stands for?

A

Continuous Descent Final approach

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48
Q

If it says CDFA use?

A

DA

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49
Q

Aircraft categories are?

A

SPEED IN THE LANDING CONFIGURATION

Most significant performance factor is speed

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50
Q

OCA stands for?

A

Obstacle Clearance Altitude

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51
Q
  • Categories are based on Vat / Vref ____ at Max Landing mass.
  • VS0 – Stalling speed in the landing configuration.
A
  • 1.3 x Vso
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52
Q

DA/H & MDA/H cannot be below ____

A
  • OCA!
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53
Q
  • DH & DA: ____
  • MDH & MDA: ______
A
  • Precision Approaches
  • Non-precision & Circling Approaches
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54
Q

Final approach point is where you capture the?

A

ILS

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55
Q

Where is the missed approach point?

What are the arrows showing for the VOR and the LOC?

A

Final Approach Point (Capture ILS) and Missed Approach Point (D7.2 QAA)

Arrows show Minimum heights for the VOR the LOC

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56
Q

TCH stands for?

A

Threshold crossing height

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57
Q

The clover on the chart is the?

A

Final Approach Fix

58
Q
A

Aircraft Categories (Bottom left)
Missed approach Point
Final Approach Fix (Non Precision)
Final Approach Point (Precision)
ILS (Precision)
LOC (Non Precision)
RVR - Runway Visual range
TDZ - Touch Down Zone
CL - Centre Line lights

59
Q

What does MDA stand for?

A

Minimum Descent Altitude

60
Q

Precision approaches uses?

A

Threshold elevation

61
Q

Non precision approaches use?

A

Aerodrome elevation UNLESS the threshold elevation is 7ft or more below aerodrome elevation

62
Q

MDA is sometimes called?

A

Dive and drive

63
Q

Both CDFA and MDA are what type of approaches?

A

Non precision approaches

64
Q

Factors considered for precision approach (DA) or Non-Precision Approach (MDA) are based on:

A
  • Category of operation. (A,B,C,D,E)
  • Ground/airborne equipment characteristics.
  • Crew qualification.
  • Meteorological conditions.
  • Aerodrome characteristics.
  • Altimeter Errors.
65
Q

What is the radius of this disc?
What is the obstacle clearance it must provide?

A

25nm
1000ft

66
Q

What are the 5 segments of the approach?

A

Arrival
Initial
Intermediate
Final
Missed approach

67
Q

The initial approach segment commences at the _____

This segment provides at least ____

A

IAF and ends at the IF.

300 m (1000 ft) of obstacle clearance

68
Q

Race track is part of the ?

A

Approach procedure

69
Q

Holding procedures are for ?

A

Air traffic flow management

70
Q

This is a ?

A

Procedure turn

71
Q

This is a ?

A

Base turn

72
Q

Cat A and B aircraft how long do you spend on a procedural turn?

A

1 min

73
Q

Cat C and D aircraft how long do you spend on a procedural turn?

A

1 min and 15 seconds

74
Q

What kind of turn is this?

A

45 Deg, 180 Deg turn

75
Q

Procedural turns have?

A

No track guidance

76
Q

Base turns have?

A

Track guidance

77
Q

The red line is ?

A

The intimidate segment

78
Q

Procedures are based on an average achieved bank angle of

A

25°,

79
Q

Established on the localiser means?

A

Half scale deflection on the EHSI

±5° of the required bearing for an NDB approach.

80
Q

In the Intermediate segment, the minimum obstacle clearance reduces to ?

A

150m (492ft)

81
Q

Where no FAF is specified, the inbound track is

A

the final approach segment.

82
Q

The Final Segment Begins at the FAF/FAP and ends at

A

the MAPt or upon landing on the runway.

83
Q

What is the purpose of the final approach segment?

A

Approach to land

84
Q

typical descent angle and glide slope?

A

3 Deg

85
Q

Standard climb gradient is?

A

3.3%

86
Q

The arrival ends at the ?

A

IAF

87
Q

The final approach segment is the ?

A

The descent for landing

88
Q

The four types of final approaches are?

A

➢ Non-precision approach (NPA) with final approach fix (FAF).

➢ NPA without FAF.

➢ Approach with vertical guidance (APV) such as LPV / LNAV/VNAV.

➢ Precision approach (PA).

89
Q

LNAV and VNAV are ? approaches

A

Precision

90
Q

The optimum distance for locating the FAF from the threshold is

A

from 5 - 10 nm from the threshold

91
Q

RVR section at bottom of approach plate is the ?

A

Minimum RVR that you can shoot the approach

92
Q

ALS out means?

A

Approach Lighting System lights out

93
Q

Step down fixes are ?

A

Non precision

94
Q

Final approach segment begins at the

A

final approach point (FAP).

95
Q

The intermediate approach altitude/height generally intercepts the glide path/MLS elevation angle at heights from

A

1000 ft to 3000 ft above runway elevation.

96
Q

DA/H for ILS and MLS are based on the following standard conditions:

A
  • Aircraft dimensions.
  • Cat I flown with pressure altimeter.
  • Cat II flown with radio altimeter and flight director.
  • Missed approach climb gradient of 2.5%.
  • Glide path angle, minimum 2.5°, optimum 3°, maximum 3.5° (3° for CAT II/III).
97
Q

Missed approach climb gradient is

A

2.5 %

98
Q

What are the 3 join procedures?

A

Parallel
Offset
Direct

99
Q
A
100
Q

Circling : Aerdrome Eelevation + OCH = OCA
NPA : Aerdrome Elevation or relevant THR if 7ft below AD elevation + OCH = OCA
PA : Always relevant THR elevation + OCH = OCA

A
101
Q

Straight-in approach= ______
Straight departure= ______

A
  • 30 deg or less
  • 15 deg or less
102
Q

TAR : _______
RSR : _______
DME : ______

A
  • 20nm +/- 0.8nm
  • 40nm +/- 1.7nm
  • 0.25 +/- 1.25%
103
Q

Count how many “IFR and VFR” are contained in the question:
1A
2B/G
3F
4/5E
6D
8C
Class E:
ATCS for IFR (two-way and clearance required for entry in the airspace)
FIS as far as practical for VFR (two-way not required and no clearance required)

A
104
Q

Non-RNAV -> ______ (class of airspace)
RNAV -> _____ (class of airspace)

A
  • A, B, G, R
  • M, N, P, L
105
Q

A “precision approach” is a direct instrument approach Using

A

bearing, elevation and distance information.

106
Q

DH for CAT 1 is ?
Min RVR is?

A

200 ft
RVR not less then 550m

107
Q

DH for Cat 2 is?
Min RVR is?

A

lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft
RVR not less then 300m

108
Q

DH for Cat 3 is?
Min RVR is?

A

DH lower than 100ft or no DH
RVR not less than 200m

109
Q

If an aircraft does not have the visual references required to land when it reaches the MAPt a

A

missed approach should be carried out immediately.

110
Q

Missed approaches are kept as simple as possible.

They consist of three phases:

A

Initial, Intermediate and Final.

111
Q

If the missed approach is started before arriving at the MAPt, it is expected that the pilot will proceed to the

A

MAPt and then follow the procedure; this will ensure that the aircraft will remain within the protected airspace.

112
Q

For a precision approach the MAPt is ?

A

The point of intersection of an electronic glide path with the DA/DH

113
Q

For a non precision approach the MAPt is ?

A

At a specified point (navigation facility, a fix, or a specified distance from the FAF) not lower than the MDA/H.

114
Q

MAP

Initial phase begins at the _____ and ends at the start of climb (SOC)

A
  • MAPt
115
Q

MAP

Intermediate Phase Begins at the ____ has a normal minimum gradient of _____ and ends at the first point where _____ clearance is obtained.

A
  • SOC,
  • 2.5%
  • 164ft (50m)
116
Q

MAP

Final phase - Begins at the point where _____ clearance is obtained.

A
  • 164ft (50m)
117
Q

Circling approach - lose visual with runway, what do you do?

A

Turn towards runway and climb - go to missed approach point

118
Q

visual manoeuvring area for a circling approach is established by drawing arcs centred on each runway threshold and joining those arcs with tangent lines.

The radius of the arcs is related to:

A
  • The aircraft category
  • The speed for aircraft categories A to E.
  • A wind speed of 25 kt throughout the turn.
  • An average bank angle of 25° or 3° per second, whichever requires less bank.
119
Q

Descent below MDA/H should not be made until all of the following have been satisfied:

A
  • Visual reference has been established and can be maintained.
  • The pilot has the landing threshold in sight.
  • The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to carry out a landing.
120
Q

Precision approaches use?

A

Threshold elevation

121
Q

Whats the function of the hold?

A

Air traffic flow management

122
Q

Fixes in the hold denote ?

A

The beginning and the end of the hold

123
Q

Detail the image

A
124
Q

Standard Hold turns to the ?

A

Right

125
Q

Non-Standard Hold turns to the ?

A

Left

126
Q

Enter the hold and leave the hold at the ?

A

FIx

127
Q

What are the holding entries known as ?

A

Parallel, Offset, Direct Entry

128
Q

Below 14,000 ft, what is the timing ?

A

1 Minute

129
Q

Above 14,000 ft, what is the timing?

A

1 minute 30 seconds

130
Q

Bank angles in the holding pattern should be?

A

All turns are made at a bank angle of 25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.

131
Q

C + D cat aircraft travel at what max speed in the hold?

A

230 kts

132
Q

Abeam the fix, you start timing the ?

A

Hold

133
Q

5 degrees either side of an entry to a hold you can ?

A

Decide what entry you want to do

134
Q

Based on magnetic ?

A

Heading

135
Q

Buffer area is ?

A

5 nm

136
Q

lowest transition altitude is ?

A

3000ft

137
Q

always choose the ___ QNH

A

Lowest

138
Q

The QNH altimeter setting will be made available to aircraft in

A

Approach clearances and in clearances to enter the Traffic Circuit and taxi Clearances.

139
Q

Equipment to ACAS II standard is capable of providing both

A

TAs and Resolution Advisories (RAs).

140
Q

ACAS is?

A

Airborne Collision and Avoidance System.

Air Law (16 decks)

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