PAN ATM 4444 Flashcards

1
Q

Whats the document number for PANS ATM?

A

4444

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2
Q

What does PANS stand for?

A

Procedures for Air Navigation Services.

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3
Q

Who approves PANS?

A

PANS are approved by the Council and recommended to Contracting States for world-wide application.

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4
Q

What does ATSU mean? and what comes under ATSU?

A

Air Traffic Service Units - under which you have

ATCU - Air Traffic Control Unit

  • Aerodrome Control
  • Approach Control
  • Area Control

AFIS - Aerodrome Flight Information Service (cannot give you control in the air, but can on the ground)

RADIO - Just information that they know (cannot give you control)

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5
Q

What is PANS-ATM accompanied and supplemented by?

A
  • Supplemented by Regional Procedures in Doc 7030 where necessary.
  • 7030 also deals with in-flight contingency procedures regarding Unlawful Interference if they differ from standard procedures.
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6
Q

The objectives of ATC do …. include prevention of collision with terrain.

Unless?

A

Not

Except when an IFR flight is being radar vectored!!.

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7
Q

What is ATFM

A

Air Traffic Flow Management

ATFM is necessary to organise flow of traffic at times where traffic demand exceeds ATC capacity.

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8
Q

Euro Control Deal with?

A

ATFM - Manage traffic in and out of Europe

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9
Q

If traffic demand exceeds, or is anticipated to exceed, the capacity of a particular sector or aerodrome, what happens?

A
  1. The ATCU responsible for that airspace shall advise the ATFM unit and other ATCUs concerned.
  2. As soon as practicable, flight crews and operators of aircraft planned to fly in the affected area should be advised of flow restrictions.
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10
Q

Control Zone has a radius of?

A

5 nm

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11
Q

Who is controlling a control zone?

A

Aerodrome Control - Aircraft landing and departing

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12
Q

Where can you only ask for SVFR?

A

The control zone

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13
Q

Who is controlling the control area?

A

Approach Control

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14
Q

What is the minimum height a control area can be?

A

700 ft agl

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15
Q

What is the upper limit of a control area?

A

No upper limit

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16
Q

Who controls air traffic service route / airways?

A

Area controlled

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17
Q

What can a control area in medium/heavy traffic also be referred as?

A

Terminal Manoeuvring Area

Used at the confluence of ATS routes at major aerodromes.

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18
Q

ATC is provided by one of the three basic types of Air Traffic Control Units, which are?

A

1) Aerodrome control.

2) Approach control.

3) Area control.

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19
Q

ATC provide three basic types of air traffic services, which are?

A

Control Service - Air Traffic controller ONLY

Information Service

Alerting Service - SAR

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20
Q

When shall position reports be made?

A

Position reports shall be made when over, or as soon as possible after passing compulsory reporting points.

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21
Q

What information should be contained in a position report?
6 things APTFNN

A

APTFNN
1-3 is Mandatory

  1. Aircraft Identification.
  2. Position.
  3. Time.
  4. Flight Level / Altitude.
  5. Next position and Time.
  6. Next Significant point.
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22
Q

What element of the position report that may be omitted and after the initial call and being equipped with SSR mode Charlie?

A

The Flight Level / Altitude.

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23
Q

What is the difference between Mode A and Mode C on a transponder?

A

Mode C has altitude reporting

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24
Q

When can routine met reports be requested?

A

Routine MET reports must be made at designated points.

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25
Where might you be exempt from making a position report?
where adequate flight progress data is available from other sources (radar for instance) or in other cases where it is found to be acceptable.
26
What are special air reports to do with?
Weather
27
What is the Future Air Navigation System?
28
What are the 4 contracts of ADS?
* Periodic: Time Based, information requested depends on ATC * Event: Pre-setup by ATC Controller, any deviation is immediately reported to ATC * Demand: When ATC want to know what everyone is doing. * Mayday: Initiated by the pilot.
29
Why does ATC give you clearances?
Clearances are issued to prevent collisions between aircraft and expedite and maintain an orderly flow of traffic. Avoid collision Flow of traffic
30
When ATCU issues a clearance an AC may proceed to the?
Clearance Limit
31
ATC Clearances do not give a pilot the authority to?
Violate Regulations If a clearance is not suitable to the PIC, you may request an amended clearance.
32
What are SIDS and STARS?
Standard Instrument Departure Standard Arrivals
33
What does a general clearance look like? ACRL + TACT
ACRL * Aircraft identification. * Clearance limit: The fix, point, or location to which an aircraft is cleared when issued an air traffic clearance. * Route of flight. * Level(s) of flight and changes of levels information on other matters such as: TACT 1. Transponder operation. 2. Approach or departure manoeuvres. 3. Communications. 4. The expiry time / Void Time of the clearance.
34
The following items shall always be read back? ACR
ACR * ATC route clearances. * Clearances to enter, land on, take-off from, hold short of, cross, taxi and backtrack on any runway. * Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions and Transition Levels.
35
What don't we read back to ATC?
Winds General information (birds, traffic) Time
36
What is CPDLC?
Controller Pilot Data Link Communication
37
Air Traffic Incident Reports are normally submitted to the ATSU concerned for incidents related to the provision of ATS involving?
Aircraft Proximity (AIRPROX) or other serious situations resulting in a hazard to aircraft caused by: * Faulty procedures. * Non-compliance with procedures. * Failure of ground facilities.
38
What are the two separation environments?
Radar Separation - Radar Procedural Separation - Non-Radar
39
What are the two types of procedural separation?
Vertical and Horizontal
40
What is composite separation?
A combination of both Vertical and Horizontal. With composite separation Vertical and horizontal separation minimums may be reduced by half the standard value.
41
What is the minimum for SVFR flights?
600 ft and 1.5 Km
42
What are the rules for cruising levels?
Cruising levels shall be assigned so that aircraft will be in the planned approach sequence at the destination. * 1st AC at the lower level and the 2nd, and subsequent AC at higher levels. * Aircraft at a cruising level has priority over other aircraft requesting that level. * When 2 or more aircraft are at the same cruising level, the leading aircraft normally has priority.
43
An aircraft may be cleared to a level previously occupied by another aircraft after that aircraft has reported vacating it, except when: (3 points)
1) In severe turbulence. 2) The higher aircraft is in a cruise climb. 3) The difference in aircraft performance means that less than the applicable separation minimum may result.
44
Lateral separation of aircraft at the same level is achieved by requiring them to:
1) Operate on different routes. 2) Operate in different locations. 3) Operate using RNAV.
45
Using VOR what are the lateral separation rules?
15nm from the beacons and a angle of 15 deg from each other (example 090 and 105 tracks)
46
Using an NDB what are the lateral separation rules?
15 Nm and 30 deg from each other
47
Using MDR what are the lateral separation rules?
15nm from fix and 45 Deg from each other
48
Longitudinal separation - using speed control - general rules?
* Crews should be given adequate notice of planned speed control. * Speed control shall not be applied to aircraft in a holding pattern. * Instructions for frequent changes of speed should be avoided. * Pilots must inform ATC if they can’t comply with a speed instruction. In these cases, the controller shall apply an alternative method to achieve separation between aircraft.
49
Above FL250 speed adjustments should be in multiples of...?
0.01 Mach.
50
Below FL250 speed adjustments should be in multiples of...?
10 kts IAS
51
Speed control should not be applied to aircraft within ... when on final approach.
4NM of the threshold
52
Maximum speed adjustment on Intermediate and Final Approach is
+/- 20Kts.
53
What is the standard time separation? Same Track, Same level, no nav aids
15 mins
54
If navigation aids permit frequent position checking, what is the time separation of two aircraft same track, same level, no performance advantage of leading ac?
10 mins
55
What are the numbers for longitudinal time seperation?
15 10 with nav aids frequent reporting 5 +20 knots TAS 3 +40 knots TAS
56
* If navigation aids permit frequent position checking. * If 1st Aircraft is 20kts TAS faster. Time separation?
5 mins
57
* If navigation aids permit frequent position checking. * If 1st Aircraft is 40kts TAS faster. Time separation?
3 mins
58
Time – Crossing Track, Same Level What is the time separation?
59
Time – Crossing Track, Same Level, with nav aids What is the time separation?
60
Time – Climbing or Descending on Same Track, no nav aids What is the time separation
15 mins
61
Time – Climbing or Descending on Same Track, with nav aids frequent position reporting What is the time separation
10 mins
62
Aircraft on reciprocal tracks, separation is required to be provided for at least ..... the time that the aircraft are estimated to pass each other, or are estimated to have passed each other.
10min before and after
63
DME – Same Track, Same Level What is the standard separation?
20nm
64
DME – Same Track, Same Level, AC ahead 20 kts faster? What is the longitudinal separation?
10nm
65
DME – Crossing Tracks, Same Level Standard longitudinal separation?
20 nm
66
DME – Crossing Tracks, Same Level, AC 20 knots faster Standard longitudinal separation?
10nm
67
DME – Climbing or descending on Same Track Standard longitudinal separation?
10nm
68
Mach Number Technique Separation - Standard Mach Separation?
10 mins
69
Aircraft on Reciprocal Tracks – DME
10 Nm
70
Two methods ATC have to separate aircraft?
Vertical and Horizontal Separation
71
Separation between departing aircraft >=45 deg?
1 Min
72
On departure, both aircraft following same track and the leading AC is 40 kts or more, what is the time seperation?
2 minutes
73
When an AC is 5 minutes out from the threshold, there is no ____ departures?
* Reciprocal
74
When the AC is 3 minutes from the threshold, there is ___ departures?
**NO**
75
When an AC enters a procedural turn, there is no ___ departures?
* Reciprocal
76
When an AC is arriving in 3 minutes after a procedural turn, take offs are?
* Not permitted
77
Wake turbulence categories are based on the MTCOM as follows?
* LIGHT (L): 7,000kg or less. * MEDIUM (M): >7,000kg but <136,000kg. * HEAVY (H): 136,000kg or more. * SUPER HEAVY (J): 560,000kg.
78
if you're a VFR flight will you get wake turbulence separation?
No
79
ATC are Not required to apply wake turbulence separation: Between arriving ____ on visual approaches when the 2nd aircraft has reported the 1st aircraft in sight and has been instructed to follow and maintain its own separation.
* IFR flights
80
a Light aircraft landing behind a medium or heavy AC, what is the wake turbulence separation?
3 Minutes
81
A light AC is landing behind a SUPER HEAVY AC, what is the wake turbulence separation?
4 Minutes
82
A LIGHT or MEDIUM behind HEAVY or LIGHT behind MEDIUM, departing from an intersection, would is the wake turbulence separation?
3 minutes
83
Where does wake turbulence begin when taking off?
When the nose wheel lifts off the ground
84
LIGHT or MEDIUM departure after HEAVY missed approach or departure LIGHT departure after MEDIUM missed approach or departure, what is the wake turbulence separation?
3 Minutes
85
Who is responsible for wake turbulence separation?
You
86
wake turbulence - 3 minutes separation is required for?
87
When is VFR-VFR considered essential traffic?
Class Bravo airspace
88
Reduction in horizontal separation minima may be reduced when? (3 things)
* Electronic aids enable the PIC to determine the aircraft's position accurately. * An aircraft's Radar position is available to ATC. * Electronic Aids enable ATC to predict aircraft flight paths quickly & accurately and there are adequate facilities to confirm the AC actual position.
89
Separation in the Vicinity of Aerodromes: Separation minima may be reduced when? (3 things)
* The aerodrome controller has each aircraft continuously visible. * Each aircraft is continuously visible to pilots of the other aircraft concerned and they report that they can maintain their own separation. * If one aircraft is following another, the flight crew of the 2nd aircraft reports that the 1st aircraft is in sight and that separation can be maintained.
90
What is essential local traffic?
is any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway in use which may be a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft.
91
for a visual approach as long as the pilot can maintain ____ reference to terrain and: 1) The reported ceiling is at or ____ the initial approach level for that aircraft. Or 2) At any time during the instrument approach the pilot reports that ______ allow for a visual approach and landing.
* visual * above * meteorological conditions
92
Separation of Arriving Aircraft Transfer of communications from _____ to the _____ is carried out when the Aircraft is within the ____ of the aerodrome.
* Approach control * aerodrome control * vicinity
93
What information is provided at commencing of final approach? (Wind)
Changes in surface wind direction and speed: 1. Change in mean Head-wind component of 10kts. 2. Change in mean Crosswind component of 5kts. 3. Change in mean Tail-wind component of 2kts. 10 5 2
94
Aircraft in the approach, how should priority be given?
1) Aircraft in an emergency. 2) Air Ambulance. 3) SAR aircraft. 4) Other aircraft as determined by the appropriate authority.
95
ETA is on your?
Flight plan
96
EAT is given to you by?
ATC
97
EAT should be transmitted by the quickest method when aircraft are required to hold for?
30 mins or more?
98
If an arriving aircraft is going to be subject to a delay of ____ or more an EAT shall be determined.
* 10 min
99
What is essential traffic?
When ATC is responsible for giving the separation. Only when below the minimums
100
Parallel runways, letter underneath the?
Numbers
101
Independent Parallel Approaches
Simultaneous approaches to parallel instrument runways where radar separation minima between aircraft using adjacent ILS/MLS is not prescribed. Note transgression zone is 610m wide
102
Wake turbulence, 3 minute separation is required for?
1) A LIGHT arrival behind a HEAVY or MEDIUM arrival. 2) A LIGHT departure behind MEDIUM/HEAVY or MEDIUM departure behind a HEAVY from an Intermediate part of the runway. 3) Opposite Direction Departure.
103
Wake turbulence, 3 minute separation is required for?
1) A LIGHT arrival behind a HEAVY or MEDIUM arrival. 2) A LIGHT departure behind MEDIUM/HEAVY or MEDIUM departure behind a HEAVY from an Intermediate part of the runway. 3) Opposite Direction Departure. For all other situations separation is 2 minutes
104
Dependent Parallel Approach (Mode 2)
105
106
107
Independent Parallel Departures Mode 3
Simultaneous departures for aircraft departing in the same direction from parallel runways.
108
Independent Parallel Departures (Mode 3)
109
110
111
112
Simultaneous Operations on Parallel or near Parallel Instrument Runways, relates to what document number?
Doc No 9643
113
3 general functions of control towers
1) preventing collision between Aerodrome Traffic. 2) achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of traffic on and in the vicinity of the aerodrome. 3) Air Traffic Services and Flight Information Centres are responsible for alerting rescue and firefighting services.
114
Aerodrome Traffic is?
Traffic in the vicinity of the aerodrome and Aircraft in the Manoeuvring Area.
115
What wind changes would ATC let you know?
Head wind - 10 kts Cross wind - 5 kts Tail wind - 2 kts
116
What are the min and max range of the aiming point from the threshold?
150m to 400m
117
For aircraft being provided with aerodrome control service, the initial call shall contain:
* Designation of the station being called. * **Call sign and, and for heavy wake turbulence category, the word “Heavy”** * Aircraft position. * Additional elements, as required by the appropriate ATS authority.
118
Emergency Vehicles proceeding to the assistance of an aircraft in distress, which shall have ____ over all other surface movement traffic
priority
119
Arriving aircraft have priority over?
Departing aircraft
120
Landing aircraft will not normally be permitted to cross the runway threshold, or departing aircraft to depart, until:
1) The previous departing aircraft has crossed the end of the runway-in-use. 2) The previous departing aircraft has started a turn. 3) All previous landing aircraft are clear of the runway-in-use.
121
You are no longer considered circuit traffic when?
When you cross the threshold
122
VFR operations in the vicinity of an aerodrome can be suspended by any of the following:
1) The approach control unit or ACC (Area Control Centre.) 2) The control tower. 3) The appropriate ATS authority.
123
ATS surveillance systems used in the provision of ATS shall have a very high level of
reliability, availability and integrity.
124
What is Radar vectoring?
Told to fly a specific heading - Given change of direction
125
Once aircraft radar identification has been established, the pilot shall be informed so by using the phrase _____
* "Radar Contact "
126
PSR should be used where ____ alone would not meet the ATS requirements.
* SSR
127
SSR relies on the fact?
AC target is equipped with a radar transponder
128
PSR gives?
An image on a radar screen but no information - think mil, UFO
129
To identify an AC when only using PSR what can ATC do?
Ask the AC to make turns (change of heading) minimum 30 deg
130
PSR Identification Procedures By comparing an observed radar position indication with an aircraft which is known to have just departed, provided that the identification is established within ____ from the end of the runway used.
* 2 km (1 nm)
131
Transfer of identification from one controller to another should only be attempted when it is considered that the aircraft is within the accepting controller’s ______
* surveillance coverage.
132
Standard horizontal separation between AC is?
5 Nm
133
Separation of aircraft from an FIR boundary is?
2.5nm - to maintain 5nm separation
134
Radar controllers should comply with the following
* Controlled flights should not be vectored into uncontrolled airspace * make all turns at an agreed rate * the controller shall issue clearances so that the prescribed obstacle clearance will exist at all times
135
What is the standard horizontal radar separation?
5 nm
136
If prescribed by the ATS authority, horizontal radar separation may be reduced to?
* 3 nm if radar capabilities at a given location permit * 2.5 nm between aircraft on the same final approach track / localiser course within 10 nm of the runway end, provided certain conditions are met.
137
The following separation shall be applied to aircraft in the approach and departure phases of flight:
138
When is Wake turbulence radar separation minima applied?
* An aircraft is operating directly behind another aircraft at the same altitude or less than 1000ft (300m) below. * Aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760m. * An aircraft is crossing behind another aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 1000ft (300m) below.
139
If two-way communication is lost with an aircraft, the radar controller should establish on the current radio frequency, whether the aircraft’s receiver is functioning by instructing the aircraft, by?
1) To acknowledge ATC transmissions by making a specified manoeuvre and by observing the aircraft’s track change on the radar screen. 2) To operate IDENT, or to make transponder code changes. 3) If this action is unsuccessful, it shall be repeated on any other frequency on which it is thought that the aircraft might be listening. 4) In both cases, any manoeuvring instructions should enable the aircraft to regain its current cleared track after having complied with the instructions.
140
With a transponder failure, what should ATC do?
radar separation needs to be applied between aircraft under radar control and all unidentified aircraft observed along the expected route of the aircraft with the failure.
141
If your transponder fails after departure, what will ATC tell you to do?
* Continue to get it maintained and fixed * Return to the aerodrome if it is too dangerous
142
Any aerodrome can guide you with a surveillance radar approach if equipped with?
Primary Radar
143
Precision Approach radar (PAR) differs from SAR by?
Differs from ASR by having glide slope guidance
144
What do you need for Radar approaches?
Two way radio communication
145
With radar approaches transmissions should not be interrupted for periods of more than ____ when AC is within ____
* 5 secs * 4nm
146
Radar approach: Clearance to land or an alternative clearance should be passed to the aircraft before ___ from touchdown.
* 2 nm
147
When do you get the QNH from ATC?
* Taxi
148
When you're on a visual approach under IFR are you still provided with separation?
Yes
149
What is (PBN)
Performance Based Navigation
150
What is RNP
Required Navigation Performance
151
What is SIGMENT
Significant Meteorological information Effect everybody - All AC Includes: 1. Thunderstorm. 2. Sever Icing. 3. Sever Turbulence. 4. Volcanic Ash.
152
What is a strayed aircraft?
An AC which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that is lost
153
What is AIRMET?
Issued for weather that MAY affect low level aircraft operations Includes: 1. IFR Conditions. 2. Mountain obscuration. 3. Moderate turbulence. 4. Icing and freezing levels.
154
What airspace is advisory airspace?
F
155
Air Traffic Advisory Service use the words?
Advise or Suggest
156
Emergency descent, what should you do?
Maintain Heading and Level
157
Don't dump fuel below?
* 6000ft * Over congested areas * In thunderstorms
158
When flying ATC might ask you to change callsign, why?
If a confusion between callsigns can arise
159
What is PBN?
Performance Based Navigation
160
PBN (Performance Based Navigation): is based on
RNAV systems and is the performance required of the aircraft on a route or approach or airspace.
161
RNP (Required Navigation Performance: is?
on board monitoring and alerting system of your aircraft.
162
Benefits of RNP?
1. Allows crews to fly aircraft along a precise flight path with exceptional accuracy. 2. The ability to determine aircraft position with both accuracy and integrity. 3. Reduces the cost of inefficiencies such as multiple step-down non-precision and circling approaches (saving fuel and time). 4. Reduces missed approaches due to lower minimums.
163
RNP is based on?
AC equipment
164
PBN is based on?
The route you want to fly
165
*HH --> 4 NM *MH --> 5 NM and 2 min separation *LH --> 6 NM and 3 min separation *LM --> 5 NM and 3 min separation
*HH --> 4 NM *MH --> 5 NM and 2 min separation *LH --> 6 NM and 3 min separation *LM --> 5 NM and 3 min separation
166
landing sequence *HH --> *MH --> *LH --> *LM -->
*HH --> 4 NM *MH --> 5 NM and 2 min separation *LH --> 6 NM and 3 min separation *LM --> 5 NM and 3 min separation
167
Distance from touchdown 2 NM - 2 NM - 4 NM - 4-8 NM -
2 NM - Clearance to Land. 2 NM - Go Around Instruction - missed approach. 4 NM - Short Final 4-8 NM - Long Final
168
Radar capabilities -Minimum standard = -Reduced = -Absolute minimum =
-Minimum standard = 5nm -Reduced = 3nm -Absolute minimum = 2,5nm
169
Essential traffic: is?
controlled traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima
170
Essential local traffic: is?
Aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway or traffic in the take-off, climb-out or final approach area which may constitute a collision hazard for departing or arriving aircraft
171
Transition level given by?
ATC or ATIS
172
Transition altitude given by ?
Charts, AIP and ATC