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Finals > Paedriatric Dentistry > Flashcards

Paedriatric Dentistry Flashcards

1
Q

What are the indications for Inhalation Sedation in Adults and Children? (6)

A

Anxiety
Needle phobia
Gagging
Traumatic procedures
Medical conditions aggravated by stress
Unaccompanied adults requiring sedation

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2
Q

What are the contraindications of Inhalation Sedation in Adults and Children? (7)

A

Common cold
Tonsillar/Adenoidal enlargement
Severe COPD
First trimester of pregnancy
Fear of ‘mask’/ Claustrophobia
Patients with limited ability to understand
Obstruction of the operation field by mask

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3
Q

What are the components of the equipment utilised in Inhalation Sedation? (7)

A

Gas cylinders
Pressure reducing valves
Flow control meter
Reservoir bag
Gas delivery hoses
Nasal hood
Waste gas scavenging system

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the Flow Control Meter in the equipment used in Inhalation sedation?

A

Measures flow rates of up to 10 l/min
Blue= nitrous oxide
Clear= oxygen
Accuracy +/- 5%

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5
Q

What is the function of the Reservoir bag component of the Inhalation Sedation equipment?

A

2-3 litre bag; rubber or silicone
Should move visibly with each breath and must not collapse
Monitors respiration

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6
Q

What is the diameter of the gas delivery hose component of the Inhalation Sedation equipment?

A

2.5cm

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7
Q

What is the function of each hose of the gas delivery hoses in the Inhalation Sedation equipment?

A

One hose: delivers fresh gases from the machine
One hose: delivers waste gas to scavenging system

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8
Q

What are examples of Safety features of Inhalation Sedation equipment?

A

Pin Index System
Diameter Index System
Minimum Oxygen Delivery
Oxygen Fail Safe
Air entrainment valve
Oxygen flush button
Oxygen monitor
Reservoir bag
Colour coding
Scavenging System
Oxygen and Nitrous oxide pressure dials
Pressure reducing valves
One way expiratory valve
Quick fit connection for positive pressure oxygen delivery

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9
Q

What is the function of a Pin Index System in Inhalation Sedation?

A

Prevents the wrong cylinder being attached to the

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10
Q

What is the function of the Diameter index system in Inhalation Sedation?

A

Prevents cross connection of piping

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11
Q

What is the minimum oxygen delivery in Inhalation Sedation?

A

30%

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12
Q

When does the oxygen fail safe kick in in Inhalation Sedation?

A

When oxygen pressure <40 psi

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13
Q

What are the advantages of Inhalation Sedation? (9)

A

Rapid onset (2-3mins)
Rapid peak action (3-5mins)
Flexible duration
Rapid recovery
No injection (for sedation not LA)
Few side effects on patient
Drug not metabolised
Some analgesia (better for ischaemic > inflammatory pain)
No amnesia

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14
Q

What are the disadvantages of Inhalation Sedation? (8)

A

Expensive equipment
Expensive gases
Space occupying equipment
Environmental concerns
Requires ability to breath through nose
Chronic exposure risk (potentially)
Staff addiction
Difficult to accurately determine actual dose

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15
Q

What are the signs of adequate sedation? (10)

A

Patient relaxed/comfortable
Patient awake
Reduced blink rate
Laryngeal reflexes unaffected
Vital signs unaffected
Gag reflex obtunded/reduced
Mouth open on request
Decreased reaction to painful stimuli
Decrease in spontaneous movement
Verbal contact maintained

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16
Q

What are the symptoms of adequate Inhalation Sedation? (10)

A

Mental and physical relaxation
Lessened awareness of pain
Paraesthesia: lips, fingers, toes, legs, tongue
Lethargy
Euphoria
Detachment ‘floating feeling’
Warmth
Altered awareness of time
Dreaming
Small controllable ‘fits of giggles’

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17
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of over sedation (Inhalation Sedation)? (9)

A

Mouth closing
Spontaneous mouth breathing
Nausea/Vomiting
Irrational and sluggish responses
Decreased cooperation
Incoherent speech
Uncontrolled laughter/tears
Patient no longer enjoying effects
Loss of Consciousness

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18
Q

What are the pre-operative instructions prior to Inhalation Sedation? (8)

A

Have a light meal before appointment
Take routine medications
Child accompanied by competed adult
Adults must be accompanied on their first appointment
Do not drink alcohol on day of appointment
Wear sensible clothing
Arrange care of children during and after appointment
Plan to remain in clinic up to 30 minutes after treatment

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19
Q

Discuss Inhalation Sedation Technique:

A

Set up
Select nasal hood and connect hoses
Set dial to 100% O2
Set flow to 5-6l per min and position on patient nose
Encourage nasal breathing and verify reservoir bag movements
Reduce O2 by 10%
One min later reduce O2 by 10%
Reduce by 5% per minute until patient ready

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20
Q

What should you do to the O2 concentration when patient is over sedated?

A

Increase O2 in 5-10% increments

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21
Q

What should you do to the O2 concentration if the patient is under sedated?

A

Decrease O2 in 5% increments

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22
Q

What should you do to get to the recovery phase of Inhalation Sedation?

A

Increase O2 to 100%
Administer 100% for 2-3 minutes
Remove hood and turn gas flow off
Return patient up right, praise and reassure

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23
Q

Why do you leave the O2 at 100% for 2-3 minutes in Inhalation Sedation?

A

To prevent diffusion hypoxia

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24
Q

What is the success rate for Inhalation Sedation and why does it vary?

A

50-90%
Patient populations, greater success with orthodontic extractions, poorer in patients with pain

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25
Q

What are the important aspects of a social history for IV sedation assessment?

A

Nature of fear
Phobia vs anxiety
General vs Specific
Anxiety questionnaire
Occupation
Escort
Alcohol
Responsibilities
Transport
Age

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26
Q

What are the important aspects of a dental history for IV sedation assessment?

A

Referral source
Previous bad experiences
Previous sedation/GA
Symptoms
Proposed procedure

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27
Q

What are the important aspects of a medical history for IV sedation assessment?

A

Drug history/allergy
Recreational drug use

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28
Q

Which drugs increase the sedative effect of midazolam?

A

Alcohol
Opioids
Erythromycin
Antidepressants
Antihistamines
Antipsychotics
Recreational drugs

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29
Q

What is ASA 1?

A

Normal healthy patient
Non smoker
Minimal alcohol

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30
Q

What is ASA 2?

A

Mild systemic disease

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31
Q

What is ASA 3?

A

Severe systemic disease
Limits activity but not incapacitating

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32
Q

What is ASA 4?

A

Severe systemic disease
Constant threat to life

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33
Q

What is ASA 5?

A

Moribund
Not expected to live >24 hours

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34
Q

What is ASA 6?

A

Brain dead for organ donation

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35
Q

Which ASA can be treated in primary care?

A

1 and 2

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36
Q

Which ASA can be treated in secondary care?

A

3 and 4

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37
Q

What questions should you ask an asthmatic in regard to IV sedation?

A

What drugs do they take and how often?
Have they been hospitalised?
Is it exacerbated by stress?

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38
Q

What is the definition of pharmacodynamic interactions?

A

Interactions between drugs which have similar or antagonistic pharmacological effects or side effects

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39
Q

What is the definition of pharmacokinetic interactions?

A

One drug alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism or excretion of another thereby increasing or reducing the amount of drug available in the system

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40
Q

What ASA category does pregnant put a person in?

A

ASA 2

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41
Q

What are the important features of a general examination for IV sedation?

A

Signs of anxiety
Discomfort with surroundings
Eye contact
Speech
Vital signs

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42
Q

What are the vital signs?

A

Heart rate
Blood pressure
Oxygen saturation
BMI

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43
Q

What is the BMI for underweight?

A

<18.5

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44
Q

What is the BMI for healthy weight?

A

18.5-24.9

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45
Q

What is the BMI for overweight?

A

25-29.9

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46
Q

What is the BMI for obese?

A

30

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47
Q

What is the BMI cut off for sedation?

A

35

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48
Q

What is a good working time for IV sedation patients?

A

45 minutes

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49
Q

What are the ideal features of an IV sedation agent?

A

Anxiolysis
Sedative effect
Ease of administration
Non-irritant
Quick onset
Quick recovery
No side effects
Amnesia
Low cost

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50
Q

What is the mode of action of benzodiazepines?

A

Acts on receptors in CNS to enhance effect of GABA
Prolongs the time for receptor repolarisation
Mimics effect of glycine on receptors

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51
Q

What allows benzodiazepines to attach to receptors?

A

Benzene ring

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52
Q

Why do sedative agents cause respiratory depression?

A

CNS depression and muscle relaxation
Decreases cerebral response to increased carbon dioxide
Synergistic relationship with other CNS depressants
Increased respiratory depression in already compromised patients

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53
Q

How do sedative agents affect the cardiovascular system?

A

Decrease blood pressure by muscle relaxation decreasing vascular resistance
Increasing heart rate due to baroreceptor reflex compensating for blood pressure fall

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54
Q

What are the side effects of sedative agents?

A

Tolerance
Dependance
Sexual fantasies (increases with dose)

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55
Q

Why is diazepam not given in water?

A

It is insoluble in water

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56
Q

What is the elimination half life of diazepam?

A

43 hours

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57
Q

What is the dosage of diazepam?

A

0.1-0.2mg/kg

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58
Q

What is the current gold standard sedative?

A

Midazolam

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59
Q

What is the elimination half life of midazolam?

A

90-150 minutes

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60
Q

Where is the metabolism of midazolam?

A

Liver and extra hepatic

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61
Q

What are the advantages of midazolam over diazepam?

A

Painless
Quicker onset
Quicker recovery
More reliable

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62
Q

Who makes up the sedation team?

A

Operator; sedationist
Second sedation trained person: dental nurse etc

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63
Q

How often is sedation training?

A

Annually

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64
Q

Why is the dorsum of the hand a cannulation site?

A

Accessible
Superficial and visible
Poorly tethered
Affected by peripheral vasoconstriction so may need to warm up hand

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65
Q

What is the second choice for cannulation area?

A

Antecubital fossa

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66
Q

What is ametop gel?

A

A topical anaesthetic

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67
Q

When must the assessment for intravenous sedation be carried out?

A

On a separate day

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68
Q

What must be done pre-operatively to intravenous sedation?

A

Pulse and blood pressure
Reconfirm consent

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69
Q

How is a patient monitored during intravenous sedation?

A

High volume aspiration
Pulse oximeter
Non invasive blood pressure (NIBP) measurements every 5-10 minutes

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70
Q

What emergency drugs should be prepared during intravenous sedation?

A

Flumazenil (antagonises benzodiazepines)

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71
Q

What is the drug administration of midazolam?

A

2mg bolus
1mg increments every minute

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72
Q

What is the drug administration of midazolam?

A

2mg bolus
1mg increments every minute

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73
Q

What is the end point of intravenous sedation?

A

Slurring and slowing of speech
Relaxed
Delayed response to commands
Willingness to accept treatment
Vergil’s sign ptosis
Eves sign-loss of motor coordination

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74
Q

What is the maximum dose of midazolam?

A

7.5mg

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75
Q

What makes the therapeautic dose of midazolam change?

A

Sleep
Alcohol
Stress
Drugs

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76
Q

What makes the therapeautic dose of midazolam change?

A

Sleep
Alcohol
Stress
Drugs

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77
Q

What are the steps for managing respiratory depression?

A

Talk, shake, hurt
Head tilt, chin lift, jaw thrust
O2 (2l/min via nasal cannulae)
O2 (5l/min via Hudson mask)
Flumazenil
Ambu bag
Airways

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78
Q

What is the preparation and dose of Flumazenil?

A

500mcg in 5ml
Dose; 200mcg then 100mcg increments every minute until a response is seen

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79
Q

What is the half life of Flumazenil?

A

50 min

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80
Q

What is anéxate?

A

Flumazenil

81
Q

What is the meaning of Child Protection?

A

Activity undertaken to protect specific children who are suffering, or are at risk of suffering harm

82
Q

What is the meaning of Children in Need?

A

Those who require additional support or services to achieve their full potential

83
Q

What is the meaning of Safeguarding Children?

A

Measures taken to minimise risks of harm

84
Q

What are three methods of safeguarding children?

A

Protecting children from maltreatment
Preventing impairment of children’s health or development
Ensuring children grow up in a safe and caring environment

85
Q

What are the three factors of child abuse?

A

Carer has some responsibility for the harm
Significant connection between the carer’s responsibility to the child and the harm to the child
Significant harm to the child

86
Q

What are the features of a wellbeing wheel?

A

Achieving
Active
Healthy
Included
Nurtured
Respected
Safe
Responsible

87
Q

Which three features can decrease parental capacity?

A

Domestic abuse
Drug and alcohol misuse
Mental health problems

88
Q

What 4 factors are associated with vulnerable children?

A

Under 5’s
Irregular attenders
Medical problems and disability
Looked after children

89
Q

What 4 factors are associated with vulnerable children?

A

Under 5’s
Irregular attenders
Medical problems and disability
Looked after children

90
Q

What are the five types of neglect?

A

Nutrition
Warmth, clothing and shelter
Hygiene and healthcare
Stimulation and education
Affection

91
Q

What are the short term effects of childhood neglect?

A

Physical health
Emotional health
Social and cognitive development

92
Q

What are the long term effects of child neglect?

A

Increased arrests
Suicide attempts
Major depression
Diabetes
Heart disease

93
Q

What are three indicators of dental neglect?

A

Obvious dental decay
Impact on child
Practical care offered, child does not return for treatment

94
Q

What are the three stages of management for child neglect?

A

Preventive Dental Team Management
Preventive Multi-agency Management
Child Protection Referral

95
Q

What are the ten features of the Index of Suspicion?

A

Delay in seeking help
Story is vague, lacking in detail and varies from person to person
Account is not compatible with the injury
Parent’s mood is abnormal
Parents behaviour is a cause for concern- refusal of treatment or hospital admission, aggression to staff
Child’s appearance and interaction with parent is abnormal
Child may contradict parents
History of previous injury
History of violence within family

96
Q

What are the expectations of the dental team when dealing with child neglect?

A

Observe
Record
Communicate
Refer

97
Q

X

A
98
Q

What percentage of abuse injuries are found in the head and neck area?

A

60%

99
Q

What is motivational interviewing and how is it conducted?

A

Translating knowledge into behaviour
Seek permission, open questions, affirmations, reflective listening, summarising

100
Q

What is standard prevention?

A

Tooth brushing demo once a year
OHI and diet advice

101
Q

What is enhanced prevention?

A

Tooth brushing demo and diet advice each appointment

102
Q

Where should fissure sealant be placed in enhanced prevention?

A

2’s palatal pits

103
Q

What is the toxic dose of fluoride?

A

5mg/kg body weight

104
Q

What % of 2800 ppm toothpaste is fluoride?

A

0.619%

105
Q

What age does tooth trauma most commonly occur?

A

2-4 years

106
Q

What gender is mostly affected by tooth trauma?

A

Male

107
Q

Which teeth are mostly affected by tooth trauma?

A

Maxillary incisors

108
Q

What are the features of a concussed tooth?

A

Tender to touch
No displacement
No increased mobility

109
Q

What are the features of subluxation?

A

Tender to touch
No displacement
Increased mobility

110
Q

What are the features of lateral luxation?

A

Tooth displaced in palatal/lingual/labial direction

111
Q

What are the features of lateral luxation?

A

Tooth displaced in palatal/lingual/labial dirección

112
Q

What are the features of intrusion?

A

Tooth displaced apically

113
Q

What are the features of extrusion?

A

Partial displacement of tooth out of socket

114
Q

What are the features of extrusion?

A

Partial displacement of tooth out of socket

115
Q

What are the features of avulsion?

A

Tooth completely out of its socket

116
Q

What are the four features of a paediatric patient assessment?

A

History
Patient factors
Goals
Treatment plan

117
Q

What do patient factors consist of?

A

Understanding
Co-operation
Coping style

118
Q

What does MCDASf stand for?

A

Modified child dental anxiety scale (faces)

119
Q

What are the options of methods of pain and anxiety management?

A

Non-pharmacological behaviour management
Local anaesthesia
Sedation
General anaesthetic

120
Q

What is used for inhalation sedation?

A

Nitrous oxide and oxygen

121
Q

What are the indications of inhalation sedation in paeds?

A

Age (must be amenable to hypnotic suggestion, understand nasal breathing)
Anxiety level (mild to moderate)
Management of gag reflex
Medical considerations
Previous dental history
Dental needs

122
Q

What are the contraindications for inhalation sedation in paeds?

A

Age (under 4)
Anxiety level
Medical considerations
Previous dental history
Dental needs
Patient choice

123
Q

What is the consenting procedure for inhalation sedation in paeds?

A

Check understanding
Written pre-operative and post-operative instructions

124
Q

What are the important factors of providing inhalation sedation in paeds?

A

Keep talking to patient
Ensure child avoids mouth breathing

125
Q

What are the important factors of providing inhalation sedation in paeds?

A

Keep talking to patient
Ensure child avoids mouth breathing
Monitor
Post op instructions

126
Q

What drugs are used for IV sedation in paeds?

A

Midazolam
Propofol

127
Q

What are the indications for IV sedation in paeds?

A

Age
Anxiety level
Medical considerations
Previous dental history
Dental needs

128
Q

What are the contraindications for IV sedation?

A

Age
Anxiety level
Medical considerations
Dental needs

129
Q

What does TCI mean?

A

Target controlled infusion

130
Q

When is TCI Propofol used?

A

For very long and short procedures
Mean rapid onset and recovery

131
Q

What is the consenting procedure for IV sedation in paeds?

A

Check understanding
Written pre and post op instructions

132
Q

What are the alternative sedative techniques to IV and inhalation sedation?

A

Oral and transmucosal sedation

133
Q

What are the 9 features of a trauma stamp?

A

Radiograph
TTP
Colour
Ethyl Chloride
Thermal
Sinus
Mobility
Displacement
Percussion

134
Q

What are the radiographic signs of tooth trauma?

A

Periapical radiolucency
Internal inflammatory resorption
External inflammatory resorption
Ankylosis

135
Q

What is the definition of a strong recommendation?

A

Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit vs risk, almost all individuals would choose this option

136
Q

What is the aim of pads dental treatment?

A

To reduce the risk of the child experiencing pain, infection or treatment-induced anxiety

137
Q

What does a comprehensive assessment include?

A

Patient history
Clinical examination
Caries risk assessment

138
Q

What are the five factors of motivational interviewing?

A

Seek permission
Open questions
Affirmations
Reflective listening
Summarising

139
Q

Where should fissure sealant be placed in enhanced prevention patients?

A

2’s palatal pits

140
Q

What are the components of silver diamine fluoride?

A

Silver
Fluoride
Ammonium ions

141
Q

What are the indications for use of SDF?

A

Asymptomatic cavitated carious lesions in primary teeth
Non-restorable dentinal lesions
Root caries
Pre-cooperative children and adults whose behaviour/medical conditions limit invasive restorative treatment

142
Q

What are the contraindications for use of SDF?

A

Not able/willing to brush teeth
Potassium iodide contraindicated in pregnant/breast feeding women, patients undergoing thyroid surgery/medication
Patients with ulceration, mucositis, stomatitis
Allergy to silver, fluoride or ammonia

143
Q

What method can be used for needle desensitisation?

A

Teach relaxation
Explain LA
Practice LA
Deliver LA

143
Q

What prevention should be carried out alongside providing SDF?

A

Dietary advice
OHI
Topical fluoride application

144
Q

What are the causes of child dental anxiety?

A

Parental anxiety
Difficult medical experiences
Difficult dental experiences

145
Q

What are some physiological and somatic associations with dental anxiety?

A

Breathlessness
Perspiration
Unease

146
Q

What is concussion?

A

An injury to the tooth supporting structures without increased mobility or displacement
Pain to percussion

147
Q

What are three signs of a brain injury?

A

Amnesia
Vomiting
Nausea

148
Q

How long should an avulsed primary tooth be under review?

A

Until eruption of the permanent

149
Q

What is the role of dental professionals in regard to neglect?

A

Know how to refer concerns about abuse or neglect
Know who to contact for further advice about abuse or neglect of children
Raise concerns about the possible abuse or neglect of children

149
Q

What is the definition of child protection?

A

Activity undertaken to protect specific children who are suffering or at risk of suffering significant harm

149
Q

Which act made it illegal to smack a child?

A

The Children (Equal Protection from Assault) (Scotland) Bill

150
Q

What are three examples of factors that can decrease parenting capacity?

A

Domestic violence
Drug/alcohol misuse
Mental health problems

151
Q

How many children per year are killed by a parent/parent substitute?

A

10

152
Q

Why does neglect of neglect occur?

A

Neglect is less incident focused

153
Q

What are three long term effects of child neglect?

A

Greater incidence of heart disease
Greater incidence of diabetes
Greater incidence of neglect

154
Q

What are the three stages in managing dental neglect?

A

Preventive dental team management
Preventive multi-disciplinary agency management
Child protection referral

155
Q

Which % of serious head injuries in the first year of life are non-accidental?

A

95%

156
Q

What % of abuse injuries are found on the head and neck?

A

60%

157
Q

At what age range do primary teeth erupt?

A

6 months to 2.5 years

158
Q

What is the order of primary tooth eruption?

A

a b d c e

159
Q

What are four factors of primary tooth occlusion?

A

Upright incisors
Spaced
Terminal E’s: flush terminal plane
Class I molar relationship

160
Q

How common are natal teeth?

A

1 in 3000

161
Q

What are the three phases of tooth eruption?

A

Pre-eruptive phase
Eruptive phase
Post-eruptive phase

162
Q

What happens during the pre-eruptive phase?

A

Crown formation

163
Q

What happens during the eruptive phase?

A

Crown reaches occlusal plane

164
Q

What are the two stage of the eruptive phase?

A

Intra-osseous
Extra-osseous

165
Q

What happens during the post-eruptive phase?

A

Tooth movement/eruption

166
Q

What are the three stages of the intra-osseous phase?

A

Root formation
Movement occlusally or incisally
Reduced enamel epithelium fuses with the oral epithelium

167
Q

What are the three stages of the extra-osseous phase?

A

Penetration of crown through epithelium
Crown moves until contact with opposing tooth
Environmental factors: muscles from cheeks, lips and tongue determine final position

168
Q

What is the gubernacular cord?

A

Remnant of the dental lamina that allows the permanent tooth to retain contact with the lamina propria of the oral mucosa

169
Q

What are the roles of the dental follicle?

A

Initiates resorption of the bone overlying the tooth
Creates eruption pathway
Promotes alveolar bone growth

170
Q
A
171
Q

What are the radiographic signs of a non-vital tooth on a radiograph?

A

Furcation bone loss
External and Internal resorption
Radiolucencies
Periapical periodontitis

172
Q

What is the treatment for an enamel-dentine fracture?

A

Bond fragment/composite bandage
2 Periapicla radiographs to rule out root fracture/luxation

173
Q

What is the treatment for an enamel-dentine fracture?

A

Bond fragment/composite bandage
2 Periapicla radiographs to rule out root fracture/luxation

174
Q

What does preventive dental team management involve?

A

Single unit approach
Raise concerns with parents
Offer support
Set targets
Keep records
Monitor progress

175
Q

What does preventive multi-agency management involve?

A

Liase with other professionals to see if concerns are shared
Child may be subject to common assessment framework (CAF)
Check if child is subject to child protection plans
Agree joint plan of action; to be reviewed at agreed intervals
Letter to health visitor of child under 5 who fails to respond to letter from practice

176
Q

What does a child protection referral involve?

A

Follow local guidelines
Refer to social services if required

177
Q

What does a child protection referral involve?

A

Follow local guidelines
Refer to social services if required

178
Q

What are the long term effects of trauma on the permanent dentition?

A

Discolouration
Delayed exfoliation of primary
Enamel defects (44%)
Abnormal tooth/root morphology
Crown or root duplication
Delayed eruption (1%)
Ectopic tooth position
Arrest in development
Complete failure in permanent tooth formation
Odontome formation
Undeveloped tooth germ

179
Q

What does immediate vs delayed discolouration suggests?

A

Immediate- vital tooth
Delayed- non-vital tooth

180
Q

What is the treatment for hypomineralisation?

A

Mask with composite
Localised removal and restore with composite
External bleaching

181
Q

What is the treatment for hypoplasia?

A

Repair with composite or porcelain veneers when gingival level is stabilised at 16 years old

182
Q

What is the treatment for crown/root dilacerations?

A

Surgical exposure and orthodontic treatment

183
Q

Why can primary tooth trauma lead to delayed permanent tooth eruption?

A

Premature loss of primary teeth
Delayed eruption due to thickened mucosa

184
Q

What is the treatment for delayed permanent tooth eruption?

A

Surgical exposure and orthodontic treatment

185
Q

What is the treatment for delayed permanent tooth eruption?

A

Surgical exposure and orthodontic treatment

186
Q

When should you not replant an avulsed tooth?

A

Immunocompromised
Other more serious injuries
Very immature apex and >90 mins EAT
Very immature lower incisors in young people finding it difficult to cope

187
Q

What are the clinical findings of dentó-alveolar fracture?

A

Complete fracture from buccal to lingual
Segment mobility and displacement with several teeth moving together
Occlusal disturbance

188
Q

What is the treatment of a dentó-alveolar fracture?

A

Reposition any displaced segment
Stabilise by splinting for 4 weeks
Suture gingival lacerations if present
Monitor pulp condition of all involved teeth

189
Q

How long should a lateral luxation be splinted?

A

4 weeks

190
Q

What is the sequel are of trauma to primary teeth?

A

Discolouration
Infection
Delayed exfoliation

191
Q

What is dilaceration?

A

Abrupt deviation of the long axis of the crown or root portion of the tooth

192
Q

What are the contraindications for preformed metal crowns?

A

Irreversible Pulpitis
Periapical pathology
Insufficient tooth tissue to retain crown

193
Q

What are the contrindications to fluoride varnish?

A

Hospitalised due to severe asthma
Allergy in last 12 months
Allergy to sticky plasters/ colophony

194
Q

What is the difference between a trauma splint and an orthodontic wire?

A

Trauma splint- 0.4mm
Ortho wire- 0.7mm

195
Q

What are the SDCEP plaque scores?

A

10: perfectly clean tooth
8: line of plaque around cervical margin
6: cervical 1/3 crown
4: middle 1/3 crown

196
Q

How long should a mid/apical root fracture be splinted?

A

4 weeks

Finals (20 decks)

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