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Finals > Clinical Dentistry > Flashcards

Clinical Dentistry Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of medical history taking?

A

RFA
C/O
HPC
Pain History
Medical History
Medications
Allergies
Past Dental Histroy
Social History
Family History

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2
Q

What does SOCRATES stand for?

A

Site
Onset
Character
Radiation
Associated Symptoms
Time
Exacerbating Factors
Severity

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3
Q

What are the main features of a Medical History?

A

Cardiovascular
Respiratory
Endocrinology
Gastrointestinal
Neurological
Musculoskeletal
Blood Disorders
Hospital Admissions

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4
Q

What are the eight classes of caries?

A

Decalcification
Pit and fissure
Smooth surface
Interproximal
Early childhood/nursing bottle
Recurrent/Secondary
Arrested
Rampant

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5
Q

What is the definition of rampant caries?

A

> 10 new lesions/year
Affects lower anterior

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6
Q

What is the pattern of caries in the primary dentition?

A

Lower molars —> upper molars —> upper anterior

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7
Q

How often should high risk patients get radiographs?

A

6 months

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8
Q

How often should medium risk patients get radiographs?

A

12 months

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9
Q

How often should low risk patients with primary dentition get radiographs?

A

12-18 months

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10
Q

How often should low risk patients in the permanent dentition get radiographs?

A

24 months

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11
Q

What are the five management options for caries in the primary dentition?

A

Complete caries removal and restoration
Partial caries removal and restoration
No caries removal, seal with restoration
No caries removal, provide prevention alone or after first making the lesion self-cleansing
Extraction or review with extraction if pain or sepsis develops

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12
Q

Where does the minimata treaty prevent the use of amalgam?

A

Primary teeth
Under 15 years old
Pregnant and/or breastfeeding

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13
Q

What are the nine indications for traditional preformed crowns?

A

> 2 surfaces affected
Developmental defect
Fractured d
High caries
Space maintainer
Extensive lesions
Pulpotomy/Pulpectomy
Extensive tooth surface loss
Impaired oral hygiene

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14
Q

What are the advantages of partial caries removal?

A

Effective
Decreased pulp exposure risk
Decreased time for cavity prep

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15
Q

What are the disadvantages of partial caries removal?

A

Needs effective marginal seal
Decreased evidence for effectiveness in primary care

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16
Q

What does TIPPS stand for?

A

Talk
Instruct
Practice
Plan
Support

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17
Q

What toothpaste should under 3 year olds use?

A

1,000 ppm

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18
Q

What toothpaste should under 10s use?

A

1,500 ppm

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19
Q

What toothpaste should high risk 10-16 year olds use?

A

2,800 ppm

20
Q

What toothpaste should high risk over 16s use?

A

5,000 ppm

21
Q

What is the constituents of fluoride varnish?

A

22,600 ppm
5% Sodium Fluoride

22
Q

What is the dose of fluoride varnish for 2-6 years?

A

0,25ml

23
Q

What dose of fluoride varnish for over 6 years?

A

0.4ml

24
Q

How often should low risk patients get fluoride varnish?

A

2x year

25
Q

How often should high risk patients get fluoride varnish?

A

4 times a year

26
Q

What is the minimum age for fluoride mouthwash?

A

7 years

27
Q

What is the dose of fluoride mouthwash?

A

225ppm

28
Q

What is the mode of action of fluoride?

A

Slows down the development of decay: prevents the demineralisation of dentine
Makes enamel more resistant to attack from plaque bacteria
Speeds up remineralisation

29
Q

What is the treatment of NUG/NUP?

A

Smoking cessation
OHI
Mechanical debridement
Mouthwash: 6% H2O2, 0.2% CHX
400mg metronidazole (or 500mg amoxicillin): 3x day for 3 days

30
Q

What factors are associated with access/vision difficulties?

A

Limited opening
Trismus
Crowded
Positioning
Light

31
Q

What is the treatment of a dental abscess?

A

Mechanical debridement short of base of pocket
Drain pus (through pocket/incise and drain)
Irrigation
Analgesisa
Chlorhexidine MW
500mg amoxicillin (400mg metronidazole) 3x day for 3 days

32
Q

What is the treatment for pseudomembranous candida?

A

Use toothbrush/gauze to clean the palate
Improve/maintain denture hygiene
Remove denture at night

If unsuccessful: Miconazole/nystatin

33
Q

When should you get a patients INR?

A

24 hours before treatment

34
Q

What can be done in the immediate phase of a treatment plan?

A

Relief of acute symptoms
Consider endodontics and extraction
Consider immediate denture/bridge

35
Q

What can be done in the initial (disease control) phase of a treatment plan?

A

Extraction of hopeless teeth
OHI and dietary advice
HPT
Management of carious lesions and defective restorations with direct restorations/ provisional restorations
Endodontics
Denture design, wax up for fixed prosthesis

36
Q

What are the stages of a treatment plan?

A

Immediate
Initial (disease control)
Reevaluation
Reconstruction
Maintainance

37
Q

What can be done in the reevaluation phase of a treatment plan?

A

Reassessment of periodontal status
Confirm denture/bridge design

38
Q

What can be done in the reconstructive phase of a treatment plan?

A

Perio surgery
Fixed and removable prosthodontics

39
Q

What can be done in the maintainance phase of a treatment plan?

A

Supportive periodontal care and review of restorations

40
Q

Which type of sugar has the highest caries risk?

A

Sucrose

41
Q

What are the white band burs?

A

Superfine

42
Q

What are the yellow band burs?

A

Extrafine (composite)

43
Q

What are the red band burs?

A

Fine

44
Q

What are the blue band burs?

A

Standard/medium

45
Q

What are the green band burs?

A

Coarse

46
Q

What are the black band burs?

A

Super coarse

47
Q

What can be used to cease bleeding in a pulpotomy?

A

Ferric sulphate

Finals (20 decks)

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