Oral Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What is the flow chart of the end result of caries

A

Caries
—> Pulp Hyperaemia
<-> Chronic Pulpitis or

—> Acute Apical Periodontitis
—> Acute Apical Abscess
(<—> Chronic Sinus)* some cases
<-> Chronic Apical Infection (granuloma)
—> Apical Cyst (Radicular)
<-> Infected Apical Radicular Cyst

Can jump Acute apical periodontitis —> Chronic apical infection (granuloma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the four clinical features of pulp hyperaemia?

A

Pain lasting for seconds
Pain stimulated by hot/cold or sweet foods
Pain resolves after stimulus
Caries approaching pulp, but tooth can still be restored without treating pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the clinical features of acute pulpitis?

A

Constant severe pain
Reacts to thermal stimulus
Poorly localised pain
Referral of pain
No (or minimal) response to analgesics
Open symptoms, less severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the factors that contribute towards the diagnosis of Acute Pulpitis?

A

History
Visual Examination
Negative tenderness to percussion (usuallly)
Pulp testing is equivocal
Radiographs
Diagnostic Local anaesthetic
Removal of restorations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the factors of an acute apical periodontitis diagnosis?

A

Tenderness to percussion
Tooth is non-vital (unless traumatic)
Slight increase in mobility
Radiographs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the radiographic presentation of acute apical periodontitis?

A

Loss of clarity of lamina dura
Radiolucent shadow
Delay in changes at the apex of the tooth
Widening of apical periodontal space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the causes of traumatic periodontitis?

A

Parafunction; tooth clenching or grinding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the features of diagnosis of traumatic periodontitis?

A

Clinical examination of the occlusion: functional positioning, posturing
Tender to percussion
Normal vitality
Radiographs; generalised pdl space widening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the treatment options for traumatic periodontitis?

A

Occlusal adjustment
Therapy for parafunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common pus producing infection?

A

Acute apical abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the four pus producing infections?

A

Acute apical abscess
Periodontal abscess
Pericoronitis
Sialadenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are two examples of organisms associated with dental abscesses?

A

Polymicrobial
Anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are two unusual infections associated with dental abscesses?

A

Staphylococcal lymphadenitis of childhood
Cervico-facial actinomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the symptoms of acute apical abscess?

A

Severe unremitting pain
Acute tenderness in function
Acute tenderness on percussion
No swelling, redness or heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

Heat
Redness
Swelling
Pain
Loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the symptoms of an abscess that has perforated bone?

A

Pain often remits
Swelling, redness and heat in the soft tissues
As swelling increases, pain returns
Initial reduction in tenderness to percussion of the tooth as pus escapes into soft tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the site of swelling of an acute apical abscess depend on?

A

The position of the tooth in the arch
Root length
Muscle attachments
Potential spaces in proximity to lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some examples of potential spaces in proximity to an acute apical abscess lesion?

A

Submental space
Sublingual space
Submandibular space
Buccal space
Infraortbital space
Lateral pharyngeal space
Palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the treatment options for an acute apical abscess?

A

Provide drainage
Provide antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the methods used to provide drainage of an acute apical abscess?

A

Soft tissue incision intraorally
Soft tissue incision extraorally
Remove source/cause; extract tooth, pulp extirpation, Periradicular surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the need for antibiotics determined by?

A

Severity
Absence of adequate drainage
Patient’s medical condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the local factors considered in the assessment of antibiotic need?

A

Toxicity
Airway compression
Dysphagia
Trismus
Lymphadenitis
Location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the systemic factors in assessment for need of antibiotics?

A

Immunocompromised (acquired, drug induced, blood disorders)
Diabetes
Extremes of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is an example of acquired immunocompromisation?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are causes of drug induced immunocompromisation?
Steroids Cytostatics
26
What are the causes of blood disorder associated immunocompromisation?
Leukaemia
27
How would you describe a periapical granuloma (chronic apical periodontitis)
Mass of chronically inflamed granulation tissue at apex of tooth
28
Which cells are in a periapical granuloma/ chronic apical periodontitis?
plasma cells, lymphocytes, histiocytes, fibroblasts and capillaries)
29
Why is a periapical granuloma not a true granuloma?
It is not granulomatous inflammation
30
What type of cells are present in granulomatous inflammation?
Epithelloid histocytes Lymphocytes Giant cells
31
What is the aetiology of an apical (radicular) cyst?
Caries Trauma Periodontal disease Pulp necrosis Apical bone inflammation Dental granuloma Stimulation of epithelial rests of malassez Epithelial proliferation Periapical cyst formation
32
Why is a maxillary abscess more likely to spread buccally opposed to palatally?
The palate is more dense
33
What happens when a sublingual abscess travels above the mylohyoid muscle?
It will become a sublingual abscess
34
What happens if a mandibular abscess travels below the mylohyoid muscle?
It will become a submandibular abscess
35
Where can an infection in the upper anterior teeth spread to?
Lip Nasolabial region Lower eyelid
36
From which tooth can infection spread to the palate?
Upper lateral incisor
37
Where can infection in upper premolars and molars spread to?
Cheek Infra-temporal region Maxillary antrum Palate
38
Where can infection in lower anterior spread to?
Mental and submental space
39
Where can infection in lower premolars and molars spread to?
Buccal space Submasseteric space Sublingual space Submandibular space Lateral pterygoid space
40
What are the three management options for infections?
Establishment of drainage Removal of source of infection Antibiotic therapy
41
What is Ludwigs Angina?
Bilateral cellulitis of the sublingual and submandibular spaces
42
What are the intraoral features of Ludwig’s Angina?
Raised tongue Difficulty breathing Difficulty swallowing Drooling
43
What are the extra oral features of Ludwigs Angina?
Diffuse redness and swelling bilaterally in the submandibular region
44
What are the systemic features of ludwigs angina?
Increased heart rate Increased respiratory rate Increased temperature Increased white cell count
45
What techniques can be used to stop a bleeding socket?
Direct pressure Vasoconstrictor (LA) Diathermy Surgicel Bone wax
46
What techniques can be used to stop bleeding soft tissue?
Suturing Cauterising Direct pressure Haemostatic clips Ligatures
47
What are the 5 types of sensory changes?
Anaesthesisa Paraesthesia Dysaesthesia Hypoaesthesia Hyperaesthesia
48
What are the four causes of nerve damage?
LA damage Transection Crush injuries Cutting/shredding injuries
49
What are the three types of nerve damage?
Neurapraxia Axonotmesis Neurotmesis
50
What is neurapraxia?
Contusion Epineural sheath intact Axons intact
51
What is axonotmesis?
Epineural sheath not intact Axons intact
52
What is neurotmesis?
Nerve transected
53
53
54
What are 4 causes of abnormal resistance?
Hypercementosis Ankylosis Long/divergent/increased number of roots Thick cortical bone
55
What are post extraction complications?
Dry socket Prolonged bleeding Infection OAF Bruising Swelling Pain Trismus ORN MRONJ
56
How is OAC diagnosed?
Visual Air bubbling Blunt probe
57
How is a small OAC managed?
Bone cutterage Encourage new clot Alvogyl
58
How is a large OAC managed?
Buccal advancement flap
59
What are the causes of post extraction pain/swelling/bruising?
Poor technique Rough tissue handling Torn periosteum
60
What are the two types of post Xla haemorrhage?
Immediate Secondary
61
What does an immediate post Xla haemorrhage consist of?
Reactionary and rebound bleeding within 48 hours post op
62
What is immediate post Xla haemorrhage associated with?
Vessels opening up as the vasoconstrictive effect of local anaesthetic wears off Sutures become loose Socket is traumatised
63
What is secondary post Xla haemorrhage associated with?
Infection Occurs 3-7 days after Xla
64
What are examples of haemostatic agents?
Surgical oxidised cellulose Gelation sponges WHVP Bone wax Thrombin liquid/powder Fibrin foam
65
What does Whitehead's Varnish Pack (WHVP) consist of?
Iodoform Gum benzoin Storax Balsam tolu Ethyl ester
66
What are the surgical aids for haemostasis?
Suturing the socket Ligation of vessels Diathermy
67
68
What are the aims of suturing?
To approximate and reposition tissues To compress the blood vessels To cover the bone To achieve haemostasis To encourage healing by primary intention
69
What are the two types of suture?
Resorbable Non-resorbable
70
What are examples of resorbable monofilament sutures?
Monocryl: poliglecaprone 25
71
What are examples of multifilament/polyfilament sutures?
Vicryl rapide: polyglactin 910
72
What are the features of vicryl rapide?
Holds tissue edges together temporarily Vicryl breaks down via water absorption
73
What are examples of non-resorbable monofilament sutures?
Prolene: polypropylene
74
What are examples of non-resorbable multifilament/polyfilament sutures?
Mersilk: black silk
75
What are the features of mersilk sutures?
Used when extensive periods of retention are required Must be removed post-op Used for closure of the OAF/exposure of a canine
76
What are the ten principles of flap design?
Maximal access, minimal trauma Wide based incision for circulation Scalpel used in one firm motion No sharp angles Minimise trauma to dental papilla Flap resection down to bone No crushing of tissues Keep tissues moist Ensure flap margins lie on sound bone Aim for healing by primary intention to minimise scarring
77
What hand piece is used during surgical extractions?
Straight electric with saline cooled round or tissue tungsten carbide bur
78
Why should air turbine handpieces be avoided in oral surgery?
Risk of surgical emphysema
79
Why should air turbine handpieces be avoided in oral surgery?
Risk of surgical emphysema
80
What is flap design influenced by?
The procedure Surrounding nerves Required access Personal preference
81
What are the methods for debridement?
Physical Aspiration Irrigation
82
What is the official name for dry socket?
Localised osteitis
83
What are the predisposing factors for dry socket?
Female Contraceptive Mandible Previous experience Smoking Family history Excessive trauma Excessive rinsing
84
What are the treatment options for dry socket?
Irrigate with warm saline Currette or debridement to encourage bleeding Use an antiseptic pack
85
What instructions should be given to a DOAC patient before a single tooth extraction?
Miss morning dose: apixaban, dabigatran Delay morning dose: rivaroxiban
86
What are reasons for fractures?
Thick cortical bone Root shape Root number Hypercementosis Ankylosis Caries Alignment
87
What are post-op complications of extractions?
Pain Stiffness Swelling Bleeding Bruising Dry socket Infection Nerve damage
88
How are large OACs managed?
Buccal advancement flap Antibiotics Nose blowing instructions
89
How are small OACs managed?
Encourage clot Suture margins Antibiotics Post op instructions
90
How is a tuberosity fracture diagnosed?
Noise Movement noted- visually or with fingers Tear on palate
91
What are examples of soft tissue excisional pre-prosthetic surgery?
Frenectomy/frenoplasty (labial, buccal or lingual) Papillary hyperplasia Flabby ridges Denture induced hypoplasia (epulis fissuratum) Maxillary tuberosity reduction Retromolar pad reduction
92
What are examples of pre-prosthetic ridge extension procedures?
Vestibuloplasty- maxillary or mandibular
93
What are examples of pre-prosthetic augmentation procedures?
Soft tissue grafting
94
What are examples of hard tissue excisional pre-prosthodontic surgery?
Removal of retained teeth/root/pathology Ridge defect correction (alveoplasty) Mandibular tori Maxillary tori Maxillary tuberosity Exostoses Undercuts Genial tubercle reduction Mylohyoid ridge reduction
95
What are examples of hard tissue augmentation procedures in pre-prosthodontic surgery?
Autografts Allografts Xenografts Synthetic grafts
96
What are some other examples of hard tissue pre-prosthodontic surgeries?
Implants Inferior alveolar nerve relocation
97
What are examples of autographs?
Iliac crest bone Rib
98
What is an allograft?
Bone from other humans
99
What is a xenograft?
From animals e.g. Bio-oss
100
What is a xenograft?
From animals e.g. Bio-OSS
101
What is an example of a synthetic graft?
Tri calcium phosphate
102
At what age do third molars usually erupt?
18-24 years
103
When does the crown calcification of third molars begin?
7-10 years
104
When does the crown calcification of third molars end?
18 years
105
When does the root calcification of third molars complete?
18-25 years
106
What percentage of adults have at least 1 third molar missing?
25%
107
Which arch is ageneis of third molars most common?
Maxilla
108
What gender is agenesis of third molars most common?
Females
109
At what age should third molars be radiographically present?
14
110
What does impacted mean?
Tooth eruption is blocked
111
What is the most common reason that third molars fail to erupt?
Impaction
112
What are third molars usually impacted against?
Adjacent tooth Alveolar bone Surrounding mucosal soft tissue Combination
113
What does partially erupted mean?
Some of the tooth has erupted into the oral cavity
114
What does unerupted mean?
The tooth is completely buried
115
What is the incidence of impacted lower third molars?
36-59%
116
What are the consequences of third molar impaction?
Caries Pericoronitis Cyst formation
117
What nerves are at risk during third molar surgery?
Inferior alveolar nerve Lingual nerve Nerve to mylohyoid Long buccal nerve
118
How medial to the mandible is the lingual nerve?
0-3.5mm
119
In what % of cases is the lingual nerve at or above the level of the lingual plate?
15-18%
120
What guidelines are associated with third molar surgery?
NICE: Guidance on Extraction of Wisdom Teeth, 2000 SIGN Publication Number 43- Management of Unerupted and Impacted Third Molar Teeth, 2000 FDS, RCS 2020- Parameters of Care for patients undergoing mandibular third molar sugery
121
What are the Therapeutic indications for third molar extraction?
Infection (caries, pericoronitis, periodontal disease, local bone infection) Cysts Tumours External resorption of 7 or 8 High risk of disease Medical indications (awaiting cardiac surgery, immunosuppressed or to prevent osteonecrosis) Patient age- complications and recovery time increase with age Autotransplantation GA
122
What are the surgical indications for third molar extraction?
Orthognathic Fractured mandible In resection of diseased tissue
123
What can pericoronitis result in?
Food and debris gets trapped under the operculum resulting in inflammation or infection
124
What is pericoronitis?
Inflammation around the crown of a partially erupted tooth
125
What is the second most common reason for third molar extraction?
Pericoronitis
126
What anaerobic microbes are associated with pericoronitis?
Streptococci Actinomyces Propionibacterium A Beta Lactase producing prevotella Bacteroides Fusobacterium Capnocytophaga Staphlococci
127
What are the signs and symptoms of pericoronitis?
Pain Swelling- intra or extra Bad taste Pus discharge Occlusal trauma to operculum Ulceration of operculum Cheek biting Foetor oris Limited mouth opening Dysphagia Pyrexia Malaise Regional lymphadenopathy
128
What is the treatment of pericoronitis?
Incision of localised pericoronitis abscess if required +/- local anaesthetic (depends on pain/patient) Irrigation with warm saline or chlorhexidine mouthwash (10-20ml syringe with blunt needle- under the operculum) Extraction of third molar if traumatising the operculum Patient instructed on frequent warm saline or chlorhexidine mouthwashes Advice regarding analgesia Keep fluid levels up and eating soft
129
When should antibiotics be prescribed to a pericoronitis patient?
Severe Systemically unwell Extra oral swelling Immunocompromised
130
When should you refer a patient with pericoronitis to A&E/maxillofacial unit?
Extra oral swelling Systemically unwell Trismus Dysphagia
131
What are the predisposing factors to pericoronitis?
Partial eruption and vertical or distoangular impaction Opposing maxillary molar causing mechanical trauma contributing to recurrent infection Upper respiratory tract infections including stress and fatigue pericoronitis Poor oral hygiene Insufficient space between the ascending ramus of the lower jaw and the distal aspect of the 2nd molar White race Full dentition
132
What are the causes of temporomandibular dysfunction?
Myofascial pain Disc displacement Degenerative disease
133
What are the two types of disc displacement?
Anterior with reduction Anterior without reduction
134
What is a localised degenerative disease associated with temporomandibular dysfunction?
Osteoarthritis
135
What is a generalised/systemic degenerative disease associated with temporomandibular dysfunction?
Rheumatoid arthritis
136
What are the causes of TMD?
Chronic recurrent dislocation Ankylosis Hyperplasia Neoplasia (osteochrondroma, osteoma or sarcoma) Infection
137
What is the pathogenesis of TMD?
Inflammation of muscles of mastication or TMJ secondary to parafunctional habits Trauma, either directly to the joint or indirectly (sustained opening during treatment) Stress Psychogenic Occlusal abnormalities
138
What features of a pain history should be taken for a patient with TMD?
Location, nature, duration, exacerbating/relieving factors, severity, frequency, time of occurrence Associated pain in neck/shoulders
139
What does TMD pain in the morning indicate?
Bruxism
140
What does TMD pain in during the day indicate?
Habits
141
What features of a social history are relevant for a patient with TMD?
Occupation Stress Home circumstance Sleeping pattern Recent bereavement Relationships Habits Hobbies
142
What features of an E/O exam are relevant for a patient with TMD?
Muscles of Mastication Joints- clicks (early/late), crepitus Jaw movements Facial asymmetry
143
What features of an I/O exam are relevant for a patient with TMD?
Interincisal mouth opening Signs of parafunctional habits Musicels of mastication
144
What are intra oral signs of parafunctional habits?
Cheek biting Linea alba Tongue scalloping Occlusal non-carious tooth surface loss
145
What special investigations can be carried out for a TMD patient?
Radiographs
146
What gender is TMD most common in?
Females
147
What age is TMD most common in?
18-30 years
148
What are the clinical features of TMD?
Intermittent pain of several months or years duration Muscle/joint/ear pain particularly on wakening Trismus/locking Clicking/popping joint noises Headaches Crepitus indicates degenerative changes
149
What may have a similar presentation to TMD?
Dental pain Sinusitis Ear pathology Salivary gland pathology Referred neck pain Headache Atypical facial pain Trigeminal neuralgia Angina Condylar fracture Temporal arteritis
150
What are the reversible treatments for TMD?
Patient education Medication Reassurance Physical therapy Splint
151
What does patient education for TMD contain?
Counselling Electromyographic recording Jaw exercises (physiotherapy)
152
What medications can be offered for TMD?
NSAIDs Muscle relaxants Tricyclic antidepressants Botox Steroids
153
What reassurance can be given to a TMD patient?
Soft diet Masticate bilaterally No wide opening No chewing gum Don't incise foods Cut food into small pieces Stop parafunctional habits (e.g. nail biting, grinding) Support mouth on opening e.g. yawning
154
What physical therapy can be provided to a TMD patient?
Physiotherapy Massage/heat Acupuncture Relaxation Ultrasound therapy TENS (Transcutaneous Electronic Nerve Stimulation) Hypnotherapy
155
What splints can be given to a TMD patient?
Bite raising appliances (Lucia jig, hard acrylic) Anterior repositioning splint (wenvac or Michigan)
156
What is the theory behind bite raising appliances?
Stabilise the occlusion and improve the function of the masticatory muscles thereby decreasing abnormal activity They protect the teeth in grinding cases May need to be worn for several weeks before effect is seen
157
What are the irreversible treatments of TMD?
Occlusal adjustment TMJ surgery
158
What are the TMJ surgeries that can be done for TMD patients?
Arthrocentesis Arthroscopy Disc-repositioning surgery Disc repair/removal High condylar shave Total joint replacement
159
What is the cause of painful clicking in the TMJ
Lack of coordinated movement between the condyle and the articular disc The condyle has to overcome the mechanical obstruction before full joint movement can be achieved
160
Discuss anterior disc replacement with reduction?
Disc is initially displaced anteriorly by the condyle during opening until disc reduction occurs
161
What are the signs/symptoms of anterior disc replacement?
Jaw tightness/locking The mandible may initially deviate to the affected side before returning to the midline
162
What can untreated anterior disc displacement lead to?
Osteoarthritis
163
What is the treatment for disc displacement with reduction?
Counselling: limit mouth opening, bite raising appliance, surgery may be considered If painless: reassurance
164
What are minor traumatic events that can cause trismus?
IDB Prolonged dental treatment Infection
165
What happens if there is no resolution to trismus after acute phase?
Physiotherapy Therabite Jaw screw
166
What is therabite?
Jaw motion rehabilitation system
167
What are the common treatment options for third molars?
Referral Clinical review Removal of M3M Extraction of maxillary third molar Corenectomy
168
What are the less common treatment options for third molars?
Operculectomy Surgical exposure Pre-surgical orthodontics Simple reimplantation/autotransplantation
169
What factors play a role in decision making when treatment planning for a third molar?
Patient involvement Good note keeping Current status of the patient and the M3M Risk of complications Patient access to treatment
170
What are the anaesthetic options when managing M3M?
Local anaesthetic Conscious sedation General anaesthetic
171
What % of people require conscious sedation for routine dental treatment?
7%
172
What type of anaesthetic requires written consent?
GA and IV (LA if there is high risks associated with the tx)
173
What should feature in the consent for a M3M extraction?
Explain procedure to patient If tooth is likely to need sectioned; explain this Give the patient an idea of what to expect during the procedure Explain minor surgical procedure, flap, possible drilling, sutures If there is a large 2nd molar restoration explain risk of restoration fracture If risk of jaw fracture- aberrant lower 8 to lower border of mandible, large cynic lesion associated with wisdom tooth
174
What are the components of an assessment for M3M?
History Clinical Radiographic
175
What features should be noted when taking a history for a third molar?
General appearance Presenting complaint e.g. recurrent pericoronitis History of presenting complaint: how long, how many episodes, how often, severity, requirement for Ab Medical history : systemic enquiry, medications, allergies, previous hospitalisations Dental history: history of extractions, dental anxiety, dental experience, regular oral hygiene Social history: smoking, alcohol, occupation, carer, support
176
What should be noted in an extra-oral examination for a third molar?
TMJ Limited mouth opening Lymphadenopathy Facial asymmetry Muscles of Mastication
177
What should be noted in an intra-oral examination for a third molar?
Soft tissue examination Dentition M2M Eruption status of the M3Ms Condition of the remaining dentition Occlusion Caries status Periodontal status
178
What should be noted in a radiographic assessment for a third molar if surgical intervention is being considered?
Presence or absence of disease Anatomy of 3M (crown size, shape, condition, root formation) Depth of impaction Working distance (distal of lower 7 to ramus of mandible) Folicular width Periodontal status The relationship or proximity of upper third molars to the maxillary antrum and of lower third molars to the inferior dental canal Any other associated pathology
179
What features are associated with risky relationship between the roots and the ID canal?
Interruption of the white lines/lamina dura of the canal Darkening of the root where crossed by the canal Diversion/deflection of the inferior dental canal Deflection of the root Narrowing of the inferior dental canal Narrowing of the root Dark and bifid root Juxta apical area
180
What parts of a radiographic assessment are associated with a significantly increased risk of nerve damage during third molar surgery?
Diversion of the inferior dental canal Darkening of the root where crossed by the canal Interruption of the white lines of the canal
181
What can be used if the proximity of the roots is close to the ID canal?
CBCT
182
What % of lower 8's have a vertical impaction?
30-37%
183
What % of lower 8's have a medial impaction?
40%
184
What % of lower 8's have a distal impaction?
6-15%
185
What % of lower 8's have a horizontal impaction?
3-15%
186
What is the angulation/orientation of third molars measured against?
Curve of Spee
187
What does depth of third molars give an indication about?
The amount of bone removal required
188
What does a superficial depth indicate?
Crown of 8 related to crown of 7
189
What does a moderate depth indicate?
Crown of 8 related to crown and root of 7
190
What does a deep depth indicate?
Crown of 8 related to root of 7
191
What is the management of asymptomatic diseased/high risk disease development?
If high risk surgical intervention should be considered Active surveillance is recommended until symptoms develop
192
When are therapeutic extractions indicated?
Single severe acute or recurrent subacute pericoronitis Unrestorable caries of the M3M or to assist restoration the adjacent tooth Periodontal disease compromising the M3M and/or adjacent tooth Resorption of the M3M and/or adjacent tooth Fractured M3M M3M periapical abscess, irreversible pulpitis, or acute spreading infection Surrounding pathology (cysts or tumours) associated with the M3M
193
What is the treatment for symptomatic diseased/high risk disease development?
Therapeutic removal of M3M (coronectomy) Removal of upper third molar
194
What are the medical considerations for prophylactic removal?
Patients undergoing planned medical treatment/therapy that may complicate the likely surgery of M3M including: Pharmaceutical therapy (bisphosphonates, antiangiogenics, chemotherapy) Radiotherapy of head and neck Immunosuppressant therapy
195
What are the surgical considerations for prophylactic removal of third molars?
The third molar lies within the perimeter of a surgical field: Mandibular fractures Orthographic surgery Resection of disease (benign and malignant lesions)
196
What can you do to manage the pain in the region of third molars?
Temporomandibular disorders Parotid disease Skin lesions Migraines or other primary headaches Referred pain from angina, cervical spine Oropharyngeal oncology
197
What post operative complications are associated with third molar extractions?
Pain Swelling Bruising Jaw stiffness/limited mouth opening Bleeding Infection Dry socket (localised osteitis)
198
What % of patients have temporary numbness to lower lip/chin in IDB?
10-20%
199
What % of patients have temporary numbness to the tongue after a lingual infiltration?
0.25-23%
200
What % of patients have permanent numbness to the lip/chin in IDB?
<1%
201
What % of patients have permanent numbness to the tongue after a lingual infiltration?
0.14-2%
202
How long can temporary numbness last?
18-24 months
203
What should a referral include?
Situation Background Assessment Recommendation
204
205
What are examples of TMJ diseases?
TMJ dysfunction Jaw dislocation Osteo-arthritis Rheumatoid arthritis Chondromatosis Foreign body granuloma Infection Traumatic damage Radiation damage Ankylosis Tumours
206
What are the components of TMJ dysfunction?
Muscular ‘initiation’ Mechanical ‘TMJ dysfunction’ Psychological ‘underlying cause’ Trauma ‘aetiology’
207
What are the components of TMJ dysfunction?
Muscular ‘initiation’ Mechanical ‘TMJ dysfunction’ Psychological ‘underlying cause’ Trauma ‘aetiology’
208
What are examples of aetiological factors associated with TMJ dysfunction?
Macrotrauma Microtrauma Occlusal factors Anatomical factors
209
What are examples of microtrauma associated with TMJ disorder?
Chronic joint overloading secondary to stress related repetitive clenching or bruxism
210
What are examples of occlusal factors associated with TMJ dysfunction?
Deep bite Occlusal disharmony (high filling) Lack of teeth
211
What are examples of anatomical factors associated with TMJ dysfunction?
Class II jaw relation
212
What are the symptoms of TMJ dysfunction?
Pain Reduced mobility TMJ clicking and locking
213
What types of pain is associated with TMJ dysfunction?
Muscular Capsular Intra-capsular ‘disc’
214
What are the anatomical considerations associated with TMJ dysfunction?
Glenoid fossa Condylar head Articular disc Lateral ligament Internal surface of capsule Synovial membrane
215
What type of joint is the TMJ?
Fibro-cartilage discs
216
What movement takes place in the upper compartment of the TMJ?
Translocation
217
What movements take place in the lower compartment of the TMJ?
Rotation
218
What aspect of the TMJ helps to resist load?
Cartilage Synovial fluid Joint shape Muscles Ligaments
219
What does articular cartilage consist of?
Chondrocytes Collagen fibres in proteoglycan matrix
220
What is the effect of inflammatory disease on proteoglycans?
Inflammatory diseases produce proteases which degrade proteoglycans
221
What are the innervated components of the TMJ?
Capsule Synovial tissue Subchondral bone
222
What is the effect of compressive forces on collagen?
Compression may damage proteoglycans which protect collagen
223
What does TMJ inflammation lead to the production of?
Proteases Hyaluronidase
224
What does synovitis lead to?
Chronic adhesive capsulitis and disc displacement
225
What is the effect of shearing forces in the TMJ?
May cause the break up of collagen fibrils
226
What are the effects of degenerative changes on the TMJ?
Cartilage degeneration: chondromalacia/collagen/fibrillation/subchondral bone exposure Disc perforation Multiple adhesions and adhesive capsulitis Osteophytes Flattening of condyle and eminence Subchondral cysts
227
What is included in the conservative management of TMJ dysfunction?
Counselling Pain management Joint rest Physical therapy Restoration of occlusal stability
228
What are the functions of a bite appliance?
Eliminates occlusal interferences Prevents the joint head from rotating so far posteriorly in the glenoid fossa Reduces loading on the TMJ
229
What are the investigations for TMJ dysfunction?
Radiographic Arthrogram MRI scan Arthroscopy
230
What are examples of arthroscopic procedures?
Diagnosis Biopsy Lysis and lavage Disc reduction- release, cautery, suturing Removal of loose bodies Eminectomy
231
What are examples of intra and post operative complications of arthroscopic procedures?
Iatrogenic scuffing Broken instruments Middle ear perforation Glenoid fossa perforation Extravasation Haemorrhage Haemarthrosis Damage to Vn and VIIn Infection Dysocclusion Laceration of EAM Perforation of tympanic membrane
232
What is the post operative management when dealing with TMJ dysfunction?
Joint rest- soft diet, avoid wide opening Pain management Physical therapy Restoration of occlusal stability
233
What are examples of surgical procedures to manage TMJ dysfunction?
Disc plication Eminectomy High condylar shave Condylotomy Meniscectomy Condylectomy Reconstructive procedures
234
What are the indications for TMJ reconstruction?
Joint destruction Ankylosis Developmental deformity Tumours
235
What are examples of joint destruction causes that indicate for TMJ reconstruction?
Trauma Infection Tumours Previous surgery Radiation
236
What are examples of slow growing tumours associated with indication for TMJ reconstruction?
Giant cell lesions Fibro-osseous lesions Myxomas
237
What is type I ankylosis of the TMJ?
Flattening deformity of condyle, little joint space and extensive fibrous adhesions
238
What is type II ankylosis of the TMJ?
Bony fusion at outer edge of articular surface
239
What is type III ankylosis of the TMJ?
Marked fusion bone between upper part of ramus of mandible and zygomatic arch
240
What is type IV ankylosis of the TMJ?
Entire joint replaced by mass of bone
241
At what age does sinus formation occur?
Between 3rd and 4th foetal months with evaginations of the mucosa of the nasal cavity
242
Discuss the sizes of the sinuses at birth;
Maxillary and ethmoid are relatively large at birth Sphenoid and frontal undergo expansion within the first few years of life
243
What are the functions of the paranasal sinuses?
Adds resonance to the voice Reserve chambers for warming inspired air Reduces the weight of the skull
244
What is the avg volumetric space of the maxillary sinus?
15ml
245
What are the dimensions of the maxillary sinus?
37mm high 27mm wide 35mm antero-posteriorly
246
What is the opening of the maxillary sinus called?
Optimum
247
Where is the ostium?
Middle meats (semi-lunar hiatus)
248
What is the approximate diameter of the ostium of the maxillary sinus?
4mm
249
Where are the alveolar canals to the maxillary teeth in relation to the sinus
Found on the posterior wall of the sinus cavity
250
What type of epithelium of the sinuses?
Pseudo-stratified ciliates columnar epithelium
251
What is the function of the cilia in the sinuses?
Mobilise trapped particulate matter and foreign material within the sinus Moves this material toward the ostia for elimination into the nasal cavity
252
What is the clinical significance of the maxillary sinus?
Oro-antral communication Oro-antral fistula Root in the antrum Sinusitis Benign lesions Malignant lesions
253
What are the factors associated with the diagnosis of an oro-antral communication/fistula?
Size of tooth Radiographic position of roots in relation to the antrum Bone at trifurcation of the roots Bubbling of blood Nose holding test (risk of creating OAC) Direct vision Good light and suction (echo) Blunt probe (take care- risk of creating OAC)
254
What is the management of an oro-antral communication if small or sinus lining is intact?
Inform patient Encourage clot Suture margins Antibiotic (debatable) Post op instructions (minimising pressure formation within sinus and mouth)
255
What is the prognosis for small OAC’s?
<2mm usually heal with normal blood clot formation and routine mucosal healing
256
What is the management of oro-antral communication if large or sinus lining is torn?
Inform patient Close with buccal advancement flap
257
What are the steps of raising a buccal advancement flap?
Flap designed Flap raised Trimming of the buccal bone (occasionally) Incise the periosteum Check flap can be brought across defect tension free Suturing
258
What complaints are associated with a chronic OAF?
Problems with fluid consumption (fluids from nose) Problems with speech or singing (nasal quality) Problems playing brass/wind instrument Problems smoking cigarette or using a straw Bad taste/odour/halitosis/pus discharge (post-nasal drip) Pain/sinusitis type symptoms
259
What must be done in a OAF case prior to buccal advancement flap?
Excision of sinus tract Antral wash out (occasionally)
260
What are the flap design options in OAF?
Buccal advancement flap Buccal fat pad with buccal advancement flap Palatal flap Bone graft/collagen membrane Rotated tongue flap (historic)
261
What is the aetiology of maxillary tuberosity fracture?
Single standing molar Unknown un erupted molar or wisdom tooth Pathological germination/concresence Extracting in the wrong order Inadequate alveolar support
262
How is a fractured maxillary tuberosity diagnosed?
Noise Movement noted both visually or with supporting fingers More than one tooth movement Tear in soft tissue of palate
263
What is the management of a fractured maxillary tuberosity?
Reduce and stabilise; orthodontic buccal arch wire with composite, arch bar, lab-made splints Dissect out and close wound primarily
264
What should be done when splinting a tooth following a maxillary tuberosity fracture?
Remove or treat pulp Ensure it is out of occlusion Consider antibiotics and antiseptics Post op instructions Remove tooth surgically 4-8 weeks later
265
What should be done if there it root/tooth in the maxillary sinus?
Confirm radiographically by OPT, occlusal or periapical (+/- CBCT) Decision on retrieval If in doubt or retrieve difficult— refer
266
How is a root in the antrum/sinus retrieved?
OAF approach (through extraction socket) Caldwell-Luc approach ENT
267
Discuss retrieval of roots in the antrum/sinus taking an OAF type approach:
Open fenestration with care Suction- efficient and narrow bore Small curettes Irrigation or ribbon gauze Close as for oro-antral communication
268
Discuss retrieval of roots in the antrum/sinus taking an Caldwell-Luc approach:
Buccal/labial sulcus Buccal window cut in bone
269
What should be remembered when examining patients with maxillary discomfort?
Close relationship of the sinuses and the posterior maxillary teeth The aetiology of paranasal sinus inflammation and infection Patients with sinusitis usually present to the dentist first
270
What is the aetiology of sinusitis precipitated by?
Viral infection: inflammation and oedema, obstruction of ostia, trapping of debris within the sinus cavity
271
What may alter mucociliary clearance patterns?
Allergens Inflammation Anatomical abnormalities
272
What happens when the sinus can no longer evacuate its contents efficiently?
Build up of pressure Opportune situation for bacterial overgrowth of normal flora
273
What are the signs and symptoms of sinusitis?
Facial pain Pressure Congestion (fullness) Nasal obstruction Paranasal drainage Hyposmia Fever Headache Dental pain Halitosis Fatigue Cough Ear pain Anaesthesia/paraesthesia over the cheek
274
What may sinusitis present similarly to?
Periapical abscess Periodontal infection Deep caries Recent extraction socket TMD Neuralgia or atypical facial pain/chronic midfacial pain
275
What are the indicators of sinusitis?
Discomfort on palpation of infraorbital region A diffuse pain in the maxillary teeth Equal sensitivity from percussion of multiple teeth in the same region Pain that worsens with head or facial movements
276
What are the aims of sinusitis treatment?
Treat presenting symptoms Reduce tissue oedema Reverse obstruction of the ostia
277
What are the treatment options for sinusitis?
Decongestants to reduce mucosal oedema (ephedrine nasal drops 0.5% one drop each nostril up to 3x daily, max 7 days) Humidified air
278
When should antibiotics be used for sinusitis?
Is symptomatic treatment is not effective/symptoms worsen Signs and symptoms point to a bacterial sinusitis
279
What is the antibiotic regime for sinusitis?
Amoxicillin 500mg, 3x daily 7 days Doxycycline 100mg, 1x daily 7 days (200mg loading dose)
280
What are the causes of sinusitis?
Fungal Trauma Benign sinus lesions Malignant lesions
281
What trauma can cause sinusitis?
Sinus wall fractures Orbital floor fractures Root canal therapy Tooth extractions Dental implants/ sinus lifts Deep periodontal treatment t Nasal packing Nasogastric tubes Mechanical (nasal) intubation
282
What are examples of benign sinus lesions associated with sinusitis?
Polyps Papillomas Antral psuedocysts Mucoceles and mucous retention cysts Odontogenic cysts/tumours expanding into the maxillary sinus
283
What are the stages of blood clot formation?
Vasoconstriction Platelet plug Fibrosis of platelet plug
284
What is a biopsy?
Sample of tissue for histopathological analysis Allows confirmation or establishment of a diagnosis and can aid with determining prognosis
285
What are examples of tissue sampling techniques?
Aspiration Aspiration from lesion Fine needle aspiration biopsy
286
What are examples of aspiration tissue sampling techniques?
Blood sample
287
What are the benefits/downsides of aspiration from lesion?
Avoids contamination by oral commensals Protects anaerobic species May also aspirate cystic lesions Aspiration will determine whether a lesion is solid or fluid filled May occasionally yield blood
288
What is fine needle aspiration biopsy?
Aspiration of cells from solid lesions Neck swellings, salivary gland lesions, cytology
289
What are the features of an excisional biopsy?
Removal of all clinically abnormal tissue Confidence in provisional diagnosis
290
When should an excisional biopsy be done?
Benign lesions (fibrous overgrowths, denture hyperplasia, mucocoeles) Discrete lesions
291
What are the features of an incisional biopsy?
Representative tissue sample Larger lesions More uncertain in provisional diagnosis
292
What conditions is a incisional biopsy useful in?
Leukoplakia Lichen planus Squamous cell carcinoma
293
What is a punch biopsy?
Incisional biopsy Hollow trephine 4, 6, or 8mm in diameter Removes core of tissue Minimal damage May not require suture/ only minimal suturing
294
What factors are associated with selecting the biopsy site?
Must be large enough Must be representative Maybe more than one biopsy Include perilesional tissue
295
How should samples be sent to the pathology lab?
Placed immediately into 10% formalin (dont place on gauze swap) Suture may help the pathologist orientate the sample Include relevant clinical information on the pathology form to aid diagnosis
296
What is the effect of sutures in regard to a specimen?
Can be useful for orientation
297
What is the effect of gauze in regard to a specimen?
Distorts the sample so dont use
298
What is the effect of filter paper in regard to a specimen?
Reduces sample distortuib
299
What should be done to the pot containing the sample?
Label as fully as possible Correct usage should ensure no leaks Do not confuse with the tooth collection pots
300
Where should specimens be sent to?
The Pathology Dept Queen Elizabeth University Hospital
301
How are specimens sent?
By courier, under very strict instructions
302
What factors are associated with choosing biopsy area?
Chose a representative sample Not necessary to include 'normal tissue' margin Try to avoid salivary gland duct orifices, tip of tongue, areas close to nerves and larger blood vessels
303
What are examples of soft tissue lesions?
Carcinoma Denture hyperplasia Fibrous epulis Fibrous overgrowth Giant cell epulis Pregnancy epulis Haemangioma/lymphangioma Lipoma Pyogenic granuloma Squamous cell papilloma Salivary gland lesions Lichen planus Lichenoid reactions Pemphigus Pemphigoid Behcet’s Leukoplakia Erythroplakia
304
What is a fibrous epulis?
Swelling arises from the gingivae Hyperplastic response to irritiation
305
What are examples of irritations that can cause fibrous epulis'
Overhanging restoration Subgingival calculus
306
How to fibrous epulis' appear?
Smooth surface, rounded swelling Pink and pedunculated
307
How are fibrous epulis' sampled and treated?
Excisional biopsy Coe pack dressing Remove source of irriation
308
What is a fibrous overgrowth?
Fibroepithelial polyp
309
What can cause a fibrous overgrowth?
Frictional irritation or trauma
310
How do fibrous overgrowths appear?
Semi-pedunculated or sessile Pink Smooth surface
311
Where do fibrous overgrowths usually present?
Buccal mucosa and inner surface of lip
312
How are fibrous overgrowths sampled?
Surgical excision No need for deep excision or normal margin
313
What is giant cell epulis?
Peripheral giant cell granuloma Multi-nucleated giant cells in vascular stroma
314
When and where does giant cell epulis commonly present?
Teenagers Anterior regions of mouth
315
How does giant cell epulis present?
Deep red or purple Broad base
316
Why should a giant cell epulis be radiographed?
To ensure it is not centrally originating (would appear as a radiolucency)
317
How is a giant cell epulis sampled?
Surgical excision with curettage of base Coe pack dressing
318
What are the features of a haemangioma?
Exophytic Blue in colour Pressure will cause loss of colour
319
How are haemangiomas sampled/removed?
Surgical removal or cryotherapy
320
What is a down side of cryotherapy?
No histological diagnosis
321
What is a lipoma?
Benign neoplasm of fat
322
How does lipoma present?
Soft swelling Pale yellow Sessile
323
How is lipoma sampled?
Excision
324
How is a pregnancy epulis managed?
Small lesions may not require excision and may regress after birth Larger lesions should be excised
325
What is the cause of a pyogenic granuloma?
Failure of normal healing
326
What is a pyogenic granuloma?
Overgrowth of granulation tissue
327
What are example causes of pyogenic granuloma?
May be related to extraction sockets or traumatic soft tissue injuries
328
How are pyogenic granulomas managed?
Surgical excision Curettage of base
329
Where do squamous cell papilloma present commonly?
Palate Buccal mucosa or lips
330
What is a squamous cell papilloma?
Benign neoplasm
331
How do squamous cell papilloma present?
Usually pedunculate White surface Cauliflower appearance
332
How is squamous cell papilloma managed?
Excision at base
333
What is squamous cell papilloma similar to?
Viral warts
334
What is denture hyperplasia?
Roll of excess tissue on outer aspect of denture flange and alveolar ridge caused by a poorly fitting denture
335
How is denture hyperplasia managed?
Trim denture flange Remove excess tissue If large area use Coe pack dressing to ensure sulcus depth is maintained
336
Where is commonly affected by denture hyperplasia?
Lower labial sulcus
337
What is the cause of a leaf fibroma?
Chronic irritation form denture
338
Why is a leaf fibroma flattened not rounded?
Due to the denture covering it
339
How does a leaf fibroma present?
Pedunculated
340
How is a leaf fibroma managed?
Excision
341
What is a mucocoele?
Mucous extravasation cyst
342
Where are mucocoeles commonly?
Minor salivary glands
343
How are mucocoeles formed?
Damage to minor salivary gland Saliva leaks into submucosal layer Soft bluish swelling- fluid filled
344
What is a ranula?
Mucocoele on the floor of mouth
345
What is the management of a mucocoele?
Surgical excision Blunt dissection
346
What risk is associated with swellings in upper lips?
More commonly neoplastic than simple mucocoeles
347
How may squamous cell carcinoma present?
A lump, red or white patch, non-healing ulcer Commonly appears as an ulcer with a rolled margin and induration
348
How is suspected squamous cell carcinoma sampled?
Incisional biopsy
349
350
What are the four causes of bone loss?
Congenital Pathology Natural Trauma
351
What are the methods of ridge augmentation?
Bone grafts Inferior dental nerve retraction Distraction osteogenesis Zygomatic implants Growth factors; bone morphogenic protein (BMP)
352
What are examples of local bone grafts?
Chin Ramus Tuberosity Coronoid process
353
What are examples of distant bone grafts?
Iliac crest Calverium
354
What is an allograph?
Graft from same species
355
What is an autograft?
Graft from the patients own body
356
What is a Zenograft?
Graft from an animal
357
What is an onlay graft?
Graft is placed over site
358
What is an interpositional graft?
Graft placed in between two structures
359
What are examples of congenital bone loss?
Hypodontia Cleft
360
What are the basic principles of distraction osteogenesis?
Osteotomy (location and direction) Latency Distraction (vector, rate and rhythm) Consolidation Remodelling
361
What is osteotomy?
Cutting of the bone
362
What is latency? (distraction osteogenesis)
Period of time (around 10 days) following osteotomy
363
What is the rate of distraction?
1mm per day (half in morning, half in afternoon- rhythm)
364
What does vector mean in regard to distraction?
Direction of the movement
365
What is consolidation?
After space is made, device is left in situ for 2-3 months to allow bone remodelling
366
What is the length of a zygomatic implant?
45-55mm
367
What are the indications for a zygomatic implant?
Severe maxillary atrophy Sinus pneumotisation To avoid harvesting of bone graft Hemimaxillectomy
368
What are BMPS?
Active osteoinductive factors Extracellular proteins stored in bone matrix Convert UMCs into osteoblasts and stimulate angiogenesis
369
Which BMPs induce bone formation?
15 BMPs BMP2 BMP4 BMP7
370
What does BMP stand for?
Bone morphogenetic proteins
371
What are the basic principles of surgical removal?
Risk assessment: good planning, medical history Aespetic technique Minimal trauma to hard and soft tissues
372
What are the stages of surgical removal?
Anaesthesia Access Bone removal as necessary Tooth division as necessary Debridement Suture Achieve haemostasis Post operative instructions
373
How is access gained for a third molar removal?
Raising a buccal mucoperiosteal flap (with/without raising a lingual flap)
374
What are the principles to follow when raising a flap?
Maximum access with minimal trauma Large flaps heal as quickly as smaller ones Use the scalpel in one firm continuous stroke Minimise trauma to dental papilla
375
What instruments are used for reflection?
Mitchell's trimmer Howarth's periosteal elevator Ash periosteal elevator Curved Warwick James elevator
376
What are the stages of reflection?
Commence raising flap at base of relieving incision Undermine/free anterior papilla before proceeding with reflection distally (avoid tears) Reflect with periosteal elevator firmly on bone
377
What factors should be considered when reflecting with a periosteal elevator?
Avoid dissection occurring superficial to periosteum Reduce soft tissue bruising/trauma
378
What areas are the most difficult to reflect with minimal trauma?
Papilla Mucogingival junction
379
What factors are important in regard to retraction?
Access to field Protection of soft tissues Flap design facilitates retraction Atraumatic/passive retraction
380
What instruments can be used for retraction?
Howarth's periosteal elevator Rake retractor Minnesota retractor
381
How is atraumatic/passive retraction achieved?
Rest firmly on the bone Have an awareness of adjacent structures
382
What handpiece is used for bone removal and why?
Electrical straight handpiece with saline cooled bur Air driven handpicks may lead to surgical emphysema
383
What burs are used for bone removal?
Round or fissure stainless steel and tungsten carbide burs
384
Where is the drill placed in regard to bone removal?
Buccal aspect of the tooth and to the distal aspect of the impaction
385
What is the aim when drilling for bone removal?
Create a deep, narrow gutter around the crown of the wisdom tooth Should allow correct application of elevators in the mesial and buccal aspects of the tooth
386
What are the factors to consider when looking at a good quality drill unit/bur?
Free-standing drill unit/ straight handpiece Tungsten carbide burs Plenty of irrigation
387
What is the most common type of tooth separation?
Crown sectioned from the roots
388
How is a horizontal crown section carried out?
Tooth is sectioned just above the enamel-cementum junction
389
Where is the tooth sectioned for a coronectomy?
Tooth is sectioned below the enamel cementum junction
390
Why is a tooth sectioned above the ACJ for horizontal sectioning?
Leaves some crown behind and allows orientation and elevation
391
When is vertical crown section carried out?
Where the roots are separate
392
What does vertical crown sectioning allow?
Removal of the distal portion of the crown and distal root followed by elevation of the mesial portion of the crown and mesial root
393
What are the types of debridement?
Physical Irrigation Suction
394
How is physical debridement carried out?
Bone files or handpiece to remove sharp bony edges Mitchell's trimmer or Victoria curette to remove soft tissue debris
395
How is irrigation debridement carried out?
Sterile saline into socket and under flap
396
How is suction irrigation carried out?
Aspirate under the flap to remove debris Check socket for retained apices
397
What are the aims of suturing?
Reposition tissues Cover bone Prevent wound breakdown Achieve haemostasis
398
When is a coronectomy carried out?
Alternative to surgical removal of entire tooth when there is increased risk of IAN damage with surgical removal
399
What are the stages of a coronectomy?
Flap design to gain access to tooth Transection of tooth 3-4mm below the enamel of the crown into dentine Elevate/lever crown off without mobilising the roots Pulp left in place- untreated (If necessary further reduction of the roots with a rose head bur to 3-4mm below alveolar crest) Socket irrigated Flap replaced
400
When should a coronecromy be followed up?
Review 1-2 weeks Further review 3-6 months then 1 year Can be reviewed at 2 years Radiographic review- 6 months, 1 year or both (if symptomatic 1 week post op)
401
When is a coronectomy patient discharged back to their GDP?
After 6 months/1 year review
402
What warnings should be given to a patient in regard to their coronectomy?
If the root is mobilised during crown removal the entire tooth must be removed (more likely with conical fused roots) Leaving roots behind could result in infection Can get a slow healing/painful 'socket' The roots may migrate later and begin to erupt through the mucosa and may require extraction
403
Discuss extraction in regard to upper third molars:
Generally easier than lower Removed by elevation only or elevation and forceps extraction (straight or curved Warwick James or couplings) Bayonet forceps may be used
404