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Finals > Oral Surgery > Flashcards

Oral Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What is the flow chart of the end result of caries

A

Caries
—> Pulp Hyperaemia
<-> Chronic Pulpitis or

—> Acute Apical Periodontitis
—> Acute Apical Abscess
(<—> Chronic Sinus)* some cases
<-> Chronic Apical Infection (granuloma)
—> Apical Cyst (Radicular)
<-> Infected Apical Radicular Cyst

Can jump Acute apical periodontitis —> Chronic apical infection (granuloma)

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2
Q

What are the four clinical features of pulp hyperaemia?

A

Pain lasting for seconds
Pain stimulated by hot/cold or sweet foods
Pain resolves after stimulus
Caries approaching pulp, but tooth can still be restored without treating pulp

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3
Q

What are the clinical features of acute pulpitis?

A

Constant severe pain
Reacts to thermal stimulus
Poorly localised pain
Referral of pain
No (or minimal) response to analgesics
Open symptoms, less severe

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4
Q

What are the factors that contribute towards the diagnosis of Acute Pulpitis?

A

History
Visual Examination
Negative tenderness to percussion (usuallly)
Pulp testing is equivocal
Radiographs
Diagnostic Local anaesthetic
Removal of restorations

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5
Q

What are the factors of an acute apical periodontitis diagnosis?

A

Tenderness to percussion
Tooth is non-vital (unless traumatic)
Slight increase in mobility
Radiographs

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6
Q

What is the radiographic presentation of acute apical periodontitis?

A

Loss of clarity of lamina dura
Radiolucent shadow
Delay in changes at the apex of the tooth
Widening of apical periodontal space

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7
Q

What are the causes of traumatic periodontitis?

A

Parafunction; tooth clenching or grinding

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8
Q

What are the features of diagnosis of traumatic periodontitis?

A

Clinical examination of the occlusion: functional positioning, posturing
Tender to percussion
Normal vitality
Radiographs; generalised pdl space widening

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9
Q

What are the treatment options for traumatic periodontitis?

A

Occlusal adjustment
Therapy for parafunction

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10
Q

What is the most common pus producing infection?

A

Acute apical abscess

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11
Q

What are the four pus producing infections?

A

Acute apical abscess
Periodontal abscess
Pericoronitis
Sialadenitis

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12
Q

What are two examples of organisms associated with dental abscesses?

A

Polymicrobial
Anaerobes

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13
Q

What are two unusual infections associated with dental abscesses?

A

Staphylococcal lymphadenitis of childhood
Cervico-facial actinomycosis

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14
Q

What are the symptoms of acute apical abscess?

A

Severe unremitting pain
Acute tenderness in function
Acute tenderness on percussion
No swelling, redness or heat

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15
Q

What are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

Heat
Redness
Swelling
Pain
Loss of function

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16
Q

What are the symptoms of an abscess that has perforated bone?

A

Pain often remits
Swelling, redness and heat in the soft tissues
As swelling increases, pain returns
Initial reduction in tenderness to percussion of the tooth as pus escapes into soft tissues

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17
Q

What does the site of swelling of an acute apical abscess depend on?

A

The position of the tooth in the arch
Root length
Muscle attachments
Potential spaces in proximity to lesion

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18
Q

What are some examples of potential spaces in proximity to an acute apical abscess lesion?

A

Submental space
Sublingual space
Submandibular space
Buccal space
Infraortbital space
Lateral pharyngeal space
Palate

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19
Q

What are the treatment options for an acute apical abscess?

A

Provide drainage
Provide antibiotics

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20
Q

What are the methods used to provide drainage of an acute apical abscess?

A

Soft tissue incision intraorally
Soft tissue incision extraorally
Remove source/cause; extract tooth, pulp extirpation, Periradicular surgery

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21
Q

What is the need for antibiotics determined by?

A

Severity
Absence of adequate drainage
Patient’s medical condition

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22
Q

What are the local factors considered in the assessment of antibiotic need?

A

Toxicity
Airway compression
Dysphagia
Trismus
Lymphadenitis
Location

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23
Q

What are the systemic factors in assessment for need of antibiotics?

A

Immunocompromised (acquired, drug induced, blood disorders)
Diabetes
Extremes of age

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24
Q

What is an example of acquired immunocompromisation?

A

HIV

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25
Q

What are causes of drug induced immunocompromisation?

A

Steroids
Cytostatics

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26
Q

What are the causes of blood disorder associated immunocompromisation?

A

Leukaemia

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27
Q

How would you describe a periapical granuloma (chronic apical periodontitis)

A

Mass of chronically inflamed granulation tissue at apex of tooth

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28
Q

Which cells are in a periapical granuloma/ chronic apical periodontitis?

A

plasma cells, lymphocytes, histiocytes, fibroblasts and capillaries)

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29
Q

Why is a periapical granuloma not a true granuloma?

A

It is not granulomatous inflammation

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30
Q

What type of cells are present in granulomatous inflammation?

A

Epithelloid histocytes
Lymphocytes
Giant cells

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31
Q

What is the aetiology of an apical (radicular) cyst?

A

Caries
Trauma
Periodontal disease
Pulp necrosis
Apical bone inflammation
Dental granuloma
Stimulation of epithelial rests of malassez
Epithelial proliferation
Periapical cyst formation

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32
Q

Why is a maxillary abscess more likely to spread buccally opposed to palatally?

A

The palate is more dense

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33
Q

What happens when a sublingual abscess travels above the mylohyoid muscle?

A

It will become a sublingual abscess

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34
Q

What happens if a mandibular abscess travels below the mylohyoid muscle?

A

It will become a submandibular abscess

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35
Q

Where can an infection in the upper anterior teeth spread to?

A

Lip
Nasolabial region
Lower eyelid

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36
Q

From which tooth can infection spread to the palate?

A

Upper lateral incisor

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37
Q

Where can infection in upper premolars and molars spread to?

A

Cheek
Infra-temporal region
Maxillary antrum
Palate

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38
Q

Where can infection in lower anterior spread to?

A

Mental and submental space

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39
Q

Where can infection in lower premolars and molars spread to?

A

Buccal space
Submasseteric space
Sublingual space
Submandibular space
Lateral pterygoid space

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40
Q

What are the three management options for infections?

A

Establishment of drainage
Removal of source of infection
Antibiotic therapy

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41
Q

What is Ludwigs Angina?

A

Bilateral cellulitis of the sublingual and submandibular spaces

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42
Q

What are the intraoral features of Ludwig’s Angina?

A

Raised tongue
Difficulty breathing
Difficulty swallowing
Drooling

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43
Q

What are the extra oral features of Ludwigs Angina?

A

Diffuse redness and swelling bilaterally in the submandibular region

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44
Q

What are the systemic features of ludwigs angina?

A

Increased heart rate
Increased respiratory rate
Increased temperature
Increased white cell count

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45
Q

What techniques can be used to stop a bleeding socket?

A

Direct pressure
Vasoconstrictor (LA)
Diathermy
Surgicel
Bone wax

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46
Q

What techniques can be used to stop bleeding soft tissue?

A

Suturing
Cauterising
Direct pressure
Haemostatic clips
Ligatures

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47
Q

What are the 5 types of sensory changes?

A

Anaesthesisa
Paraesthesia
Dysaesthesia
Hypoaesthesia
Hyperaesthesia

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48
Q

What are the four causes of nerve damage?

A

LA damage
Transection
Crush injuries
Cutting/shredding injuries

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49
Q

What are the three types of nerve damage?

A

Neurapraxia
Axonotmesis
Neurotmesis

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50
Q

What is neurapraxia?

A

Contusion
Epineural sheath intact
Axons intact

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51
Q

What is axonotmesis?

A

Epineural sheath not intact
Axons intact

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52
Q

What is neurotmesis?

A

Nerve transected

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53
Q
A
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53
Q
A
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54
Q

What are 4 causes of abnormal resistance?

A

Hypercementosis
Ankylosis
Long/divergent/increased number of roots
Thick cortical bone

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55
Q

What are post extraction complications?

A

Dry socket
Prolonged bleeding
Infection
OAF
Bruising
Swelling
Pain
Trismus
ORN
MRONJ

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56
Q

How is OAC diagnosed?

A

Visual
Air bubbling
Blunt probe

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57
Q

How is a small OAC managed?

A

Bone cutterage
Encourage new clot
Alvogyl

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58
Q

How is a large OAC managed?

A

Buccal advancement flap

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59
Q

What are the causes of post extraction pain/swelling/bruising?

A

Poor technique
Rough tissue handling
Torn periosteum

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60
Q

What are the two types of post Xla haemorrhage?

A

Immediate
Secondary

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61
Q

What does an immediate post Xla haemorrhage consist of?

A

Reactionary and rebound bleeding within 48 hours post op

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62
Q

What is immediate post Xla haemorrhage associated with?

A

Vessels opening up as the vasoconstrictive effect of local anaesthetic wears off
Sutures become loose
Socket is traumatised

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63
Q

What is secondary post Xla haemorrhage associated with?

A

Infection
Occurs 3-7 days after Xla

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64
Q

What are examples of haemostatic agents?

A

Surgical oxidised cellulose
Gelation sponges
WHVP
Bone wax
Thrombin liquid/powder
Fibrin foam

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65
Q

What does Whitehead’s Varnish Pack (WHVP) consist of?

A

Iodoform
Gum benzoin
Storax
Balsam tolu
Ethyl ester

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66
Q

What are the surgical aids for haemostasis?

A

Suturing the socket
Ligation of vessels
Diathermy

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67
Q
A
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68
Q

What are the aims of suturing?

A

To approximate and reposition tissues
To compress the blood vessels
To cover the bone
To achieve haemostasis
To encourage healing by primary intention

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69
Q

What are the two types of suture?

A

Resorbable
Non-resorbable

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70
Q

What are examples of resorbable monofilament sutures?

A

Monocryl: poliglecaprone 25

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71
Q

What are examples of multifilament/polyfilament sutures?

A

Vicryl rapide: polyglactin 910

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72
Q

What are the features of vicryl rapide?

A

Holds tissue edges together temporarily
Vicryl breaks down via water absorption

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73
Q

What are examples of non-resorbable monofilament sutures?

A

Prolene: polypropylene

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74
Q

What are examples of non-resorbable multifilament/polyfilament sutures?

A

Mersilk: black silk

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75
Q

What are the features of mersilk sutures?

A

Used when extensive periods of retention are required
Must be removed post-op
Used for closure of the OAF/exposure of a canine

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76
Q

What are the ten principles of flap design?

A

Maximal access, minimal trauma
Wide based incision for circulation
Scalpel used in one firm motion
No sharp angles
Minimise trauma to dental papilla
Flap resection down to bone
No crushing of tissues
Keep tissues moist
Ensure flap margins lie on sound bone
Aim for healing by primary intention to minimise scarring

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77
Q

What hand piece is used during surgical extractions?

A

Straight electric with saline cooled round or tissue tungsten carbide bur

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78
Q

Why should air turbine handpieces be avoided in oral surgery?

A

Risk of surgical emphysema

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79
Q

Why should air turbine handpieces be avoided in oral surgery?

A

Risk of surgical emphysema

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80
Q

What is flap design influenced by?

A

The procedure
Surrounding nerves
Required access
Personal preference

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81
Q

What are the methods for debridement?

A

Physical
Aspiration
Irrigation

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82
Q

What is the official name for dry socket?

A

Localised osteitis

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83
Q

What are the predisposing factors for dry socket?

A

Female
Contraceptive
Mandible
Previous experience
Smoking
Family history
Excessive trauma
Excessive rinsing

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84
Q

What are the treatment options for dry socket?

A

Irrigate with warm saline
Currette or debridement to encourage bleeding
Use an antiseptic pack

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85
Q

What instructions should be given to a DOAC patient before a single tooth extraction?

A

Miss morning dose: apixaban, dabigatran
Delay morning dose: rivaroxiban

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86
Q

What are reasons for fractures?

A

Thick cortical bone
Root shape
Root number
Hypercementosis
Ankylosis
Caries
Alignment

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87
Q

What are post-op complications of extractions?

A

Pain
Stiffness
Swelling
Bleeding
Bruising
Dry socket
Infection
Nerve damage

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88
Q

How are large OACs managed?

A

Buccal advancement flap
Antibiotics
Nose blowing instructions

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89
Q

How are small OACs managed?

A

Encourage clot
Suture margins
Antibiotics
Post op instructions

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90
Q

How is a tuberosity fracture diagnosed?

A

Noise
Movement noted- visually or with fingers
Tear on palate

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91
Q

What are examples of soft tissue excisional pre-prosthetic surgery?

A

Frenectomy/frenoplasty (labial, buccal or lingual)
Papillary hyperplasia
Flabby ridges
Denture induced hypoplasia (epulis fissuratum)
Maxillary tuberosity reduction
Retromolar pad reduction

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92
Q

What are examples of pre-prosthetic ridge extension procedures?

A

Vestibuloplasty- maxillary or mandibular

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93
Q

What are examples of pre-prosthetic augmentation procedures?

A

Soft tissue grafting

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94
Q

What are examples of hard tissue excisional pre-prosthodontic surgery?

A

Removal of retained teeth/root/pathology
Ridge defect correction (alveoplasty)
Mandibular tori
Maxillary tori
Maxillary tuberosity
Exostoses
Undercuts
Genial tubercle reduction
Mylohyoid ridge reduction

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95
Q

What are examples of hard tissue augmentation procedures in pre-prosthodontic surgery?

A

Autografts
Allografts
Xenografts
Synthetic grafts

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96
Q

What are some other examples of hard tissue pre-prosthodontic surgeries?

A

Implants
Inferior alveolar nerve relocation

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97
Q

What are examples of autographs?

A

Iliac crest bone
Rib

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98
Q

What is an allograft?

A

Bone from other humans

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99
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

From animals e.g. Bio-oss

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100
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

From animals e.g. Bio-OSS

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101
Q

What is an example of a synthetic graft?

A

Tri calcium phosphate

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102
Q

At what age do third molars usually erupt?

A

18-24 years

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103
Q

When does the crown calcification of third molars begin?

A

7-10 years

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104
Q

When does the crown calcification of third molars end?

A

18 years

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105
Q

When does the root calcification of third molars complete?

A

18-25 years

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106
Q

What percentage of adults have at least 1 third molar missing?

A

25%

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107
Q

Which arch is ageneis of third molars most common?

A

Maxilla

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108
Q

What gender is agenesis of third molars most common?

A

Females

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109
Q

At what age should third molars be radiographically present?

A

14

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110
Q

What does impacted mean?

A

Tooth eruption is blocked

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111
Q

What is the most common reason that third molars fail to erupt?

A

Impaction

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112
Q

What are third molars usually impacted against?

A

Adjacent tooth
Alveolar bone
Surrounding mucosal soft tissue
Combination

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113
Q

What does partially erupted mean?

A

Some of the tooth has erupted into the oral cavity

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114
Q

What does unerupted mean?

A

The tooth is completely buried

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115
Q

What is the incidence of impacted lower third molars?

A

36-59%

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116
Q

What are the consequences of third molar impaction?

A

Caries
Pericoronitis
Cyst formation

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117
Q

What nerves are at risk during third molar surgery?

A

Inferior alveolar nerve
Lingual nerve
Nerve to mylohyoid
Long buccal nerve

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118
Q

How medial to the mandible is the lingual nerve?

A

0-3.5mm

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119
Q

In what % of cases is the lingual nerve at or above the level of the lingual plate?

A

15-18%

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120
Q

What guidelines are associated with third molar surgery?

A

NICE: Guidance on Extraction of Wisdom Teeth, 2000
SIGN Publication Number 43- Management of Unerupted and Impacted Third Molar Teeth, 2000
FDS, RCS 2020- Parameters of Care for patients undergoing mandibular third molar sugery

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121
Q

What are the Therapeutic indications for third molar extraction?

A

Infection (caries, pericoronitis, periodontal disease, local bone infection)
Cysts
Tumours
External resorption of 7 or 8
High risk of disease
Medical indications (awaiting cardiac surgery, immunosuppressed or to prevent osteonecrosis)
Patient age- complications and recovery time increase with age
Autotransplantation
GA

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122
Q

What are the surgical indications for third molar extraction?

A

Orthognathic
Fractured mandible
In resection of diseased tissue

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123
Q

What can pericoronitis result in?

A

Food and debris gets trapped under the operculum resulting in inflammation or infection

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124
Q

What is pericoronitis?

A

Inflammation around the crown of a partially erupted tooth

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125
Q

What is the second most common reason for third molar extraction?

A

Pericoronitis

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126
Q

What anaerobic microbes are associated with pericoronitis?

A

Streptococci
Actinomyces
Propionibacterium
A Beta Lactase producing prevotella
Bacteroides
Fusobacterium
Capnocytophaga
Staphlococci

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127
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pericoronitis?

A

Pain
Swelling- intra or extra
Bad taste
Pus discharge
Occlusal trauma to operculum
Ulceration of operculum
Cheek biting
Foetor oris
Limited mouth opening
Dysphagia
Pyrexia
Malaise
Regional lymphadenopathy

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128
Q

What is the treatment of pericoronitis?

A

Incision of localised pericoronitis abscess if required
+/- local anaesthetic (depends on pain/patient)
Irrigation with warm saline or chlorhexidine mouthwash (10-20ml syringe with blunt needle- under the operculum)
Extraction of third molar if traumatising the operculum
Patient instructed on frequent warm saline or chlorhexidine mouthwashes
Advice regarding analgesia
Keep fluid levels up and eating soft

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129
Q

When should antibiotics be prescribed to a pericoronitis patient?

A

Severe
Systemically unwell
Extra oral swelling
Immunocompromised

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130
Q

When should you refer a patient with pericoronitis to A&E/maxillofacial unit?

A

Extra oral swelling
Systemically unwell
Trismus
Dysphagia

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131
Q

What are the predisposing factors to pericoronitis?

A

Partial eruption and vertical or distoangular impaction
Opposing maxillary molar causing mechanical trauma contributing to recurrent infection
Upper respiratory tract infections including stress and fatigue pericoronitis
Poor oral hygiene
Insufficient space between the ascending ramus of the lower jaw and the distal aspect of the 2nd molar
White race
Full dentition

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132
Q

What are the causes of temporomandibular dysfunction?

A

Myofascial pain
Disc displacement
Degenerative disease

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133
Q

What are the two types of disc displacement?

A

Anterior with reduction
Anterior without reduction

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134
Q

What is a localised degenerative disease associated with temporomandibular dysfunction?

A

Osteoarthritis

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135
Q

What is a generalised/systemic degenerative disease associated with temporomandibular dysfunction?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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136
Q

What are the causes of TMD?

A

Chronic recurrent dislocation
Ankylosis
Hyperplasia
Neoplasia (osteochrondroma, osteoma or sarcoma)
Infection

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137
Q

What is the pathogenesis of TMD?

A

Inflammation of muscles of mastication or TMJ secondary to parafunctional habits
Trauma, either directly to the joint or indirectly (sustained opening during treatment)
Stress
Psychogenic
Occlusal abnormalities

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138
Q

What features of a pain history should be taken for a patient with TMD?

A

Location, nature, duration, exacerbating/relieving factors, severity, frequency, time of occurrence
Associated pain in neck/shoulders

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139
Q

What does TMD pain in the morning indicate?

A

Bruxism

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140
Q

What does TMD pain in during the day indicate?

A

Habits

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141
Q

What features of a social history are relevant for a patient with TMD?

A

Occupation
Stress
Home circumstance
Sleeping pattern
Recent bereavement
Relationships
Habits
Hobbies

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142
Q

What features of an E/O exam are relevant for a patient with TMD?

A

Muscles of Mastication
Joints- clicks (early/late), crepitus
Jaw movements
Facial asymmetry

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143
Q

What features of an I/O exam are relevant for a patient with TMD?

A

Interincisal mouth opening
Signs of parafunctional habits
Musicels of mastication

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144
Q

What are intra oral signs of parafunctional habits?

A

Cheek biting
Linea alba
Tongue scalloping
Occlusal non-carious tooth surface loss

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145
Q

What special investigations can be carried out for a TMD patient?

A

Radiographs

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146
Q

What gender is TMD most common in?

A

Females

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147
Q

What age is TMD most common in?

A

18-30 years

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148
Q

What are the clinical features of TMD?

A

Intermittent pain of several months or years duration
Muscle/joint/ear pain particularly on wakening
Trismus/locking
Clicking/popping joint noises
Headaches
Crepitus indicates degenerative changes

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149
Q

What may have a similar presentation to TMD?

A

Dental pain
Sinusitis
Ear pathology
Salivary gland pathology
Referred neck pain
Headache
Atypical facial pain
Trigeminal neuralgia
Angina
Condylar fracture
Temporal arteritis

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150
Q

What are the reversible treatments for TMD?

A

Patient education
Medication
Reassurance
Physical therapy
Splint

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151
Q

What does patient education for TMD contain?

A

Counselling
Electromyographic recording
Jaw exercises (physiotherapy)

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152
Q

What medications can be offered for TMD?

A

NSAIDs
Muscle relaxants
Tricyclic antidepressants
Botox
Steroids

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153
Q

What reassurance can be given to a TMD patient?

A

Soft diet
Masticate bilaterally
No wide opening
No chewing gum
Don’t incise foods
Cut food into small pieces
Stop parafunctional habits (e.g. nail biting, grinding)
Support mouth on opening e.g. yawning

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154
Q

What physical therapy can be provided to a TMD patient?

A

Physiotherapy
Massage/heat
Acupuncture
Relaxation
Ultrasound therapy
TENS (Transcutaneous Electronic Nerve Stimulation)
Hypnotherapy

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155
Q

What splints can be given to a TMD patient?

A

Bite raising appliances (Lucia jig, hard acrylic)
Anterior repositioning splint (wenvac or Michigan)

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156
Q

What is the theory behind bite raising appliances?

A

Stabilise the occlusion and improve the function of the masticatory muscles thereby decreasing abnormal activity
They protect the teeth in grinding cases
May need to be worn for several weeks before effect is seen

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157
Q

What are the irreversible treatments of TMD?

A

Occlusal adjustment
TMJ surgery

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158
Q

What are the TMJ surgeries that can be done for TMD patients?

A

Arthrocentesis
Arthroscopy
Disc-repositioning surgery
Disc repair/removal
High condylar shave
Total joint replacement

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159
Q

What is the cause of painful clicking in the TMJ

A

Lack of coordinated movement between the condyle and the articular disc
The condyle has to overcome the mechanical obstruction before full joint movement can be achieved

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160
Q

Discuss anterior disc replacement with reduction?

A

Disc is initially displaced anteriorly by the condyle during opening until disc reduction occurs

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161
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of anterior disc replacement?

A

Jaw tightness/locking
The mandible may initially deviate to the affected side before returning to the midline

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162
Q

What can untreated anterior disc displacement lead to?

A

Osteoarthritis

163
Q

What is the treatment for disc displacement with reduction?

A

Counselling: limit mouth opening, bite raising appliance, surgery may be considered
If painless: reassurance

164
Q

What are minor traumatic events that can cause trismus?

A

IDB
Prolonged dental treatment
Infection

165
Q

What happens if there is no resolution to trismus after acute phase?

A

Physiotherapy
Therabite
Jaw screw

166
Q

What is therabite?

A

Jaw motion rehabilitation system

167
Q

What are the common treatment options for third molars?

A

Referral
Clinical review
Removal of M3M
Extraction of maxillary third molar
Corenectomy

168
Q

What are the less common treatment options for third molars?

A

Operculectomy
Surgical exposure
Pre-surgical orthodontics
Simple reimplantation/autotransplantation

169
Q

What factors play a role in decision making when treatment planning for a third molar?

A

Patient involvement
Good note keeping
Current status of the patient and the M3M
Risk of complications
Patient access to treatment

170
Q

What are the anaesthetic options when managing M3M?

A

Local anaesthetic
Conscious sedation
General anaesthetic

171
Q

What % of people require conscious sedation for routine dental treatment?

A

7%

172
Q

What type of anaesthetic requires written consent?

A

GA and IV
(LA if there is high risks associated with the tx)

173
Q

What should feature in the consent for a M3M extraction?

A

Explain procedure to patient
If tooth is likely to need sectioned; explain this
Give the patient an idea of what to expect during the procedure
Explain minor surgical procedure, flap, possible drilling, sutures
If there is a large 2nd molar restoration explain risk of restoration fracture
If risk of jaw fracture- aberrant lower 8 to lower border of mandible, large cynic lesion associated with wisdom tooth

174
Q

What are the components of an assessment for M3M?

A

History
Clinical
Radiographic

175
Q

What features should be noted when taking a history for a third molar?

A

General appearance
Presenting complaint e.g. recurrent pericoronitis
History of presenting complaint: how long, how many episodes, how often, severity, requirement for Ab
Medical history : systemic enquiry, medications, allergies, previous hospitalisations
Dental history: history of extractions, dental anxiety, dental experience, regular oral hygiene
Social history: smoking, alcohol, occupation, carer, support

176
Q

What should be noted in an extra-oral examination for a third molar?

A

TMJ
Limited mouth opening
Lymphadenopathy
Facial asymmetry
Muscles of Mastication

177
Q

What should be noted in an intra-oral examination for a third molar?

A

Soft tissue examination
Dentition
M2M
Eruption status of the M3Ms
Condition of the remaining dentition
Occlusion
Caries status
Periodontal status

178
Q

What should be noted in a radiographic assessment for a third molar if surgical intervention is being considered?

A

Presence or absence of disease
Anatomy of 3M (crown size, shape, condition, root formation)
Depth of impaction
Working distance (distal of lower 7 to ramus of mandible)
Folicular width
Periodontal status
The relationship or proximity of upper third molars to the maxillary antrum and of lower third molars to the inferior dental canal
Any other associated pathology

179
Q

What features are associated with risky relationship between the roots and the ID canal?

A

Interruption of the white lines/lamina dura of the canal
Darkening of the root where crossed by the canal
Diversion/deflection of the inferior dental canal
Deflection of the root
Narrowing of the inferior dental canal
Narrowing of the root
Dark and bifid root
Juxta apical area

180
Q

What parts of a radiographic assessment are associated with a significantly increased risk of nerve damage during third molar surgery?

A

Diversion of the inferior dental canal
Darkening of the root where crossed by the canal
Interruption of the white lines of the canal

181
Q

What can be used if the proximity of the roots is close to the ID canal?

A

CBCT

182
Q

What % of lower 8’s have a vertical impaction?

A

30-37%

183
Q

What % of lower 8’s have a medial impaction?

A

40%

184
Q

What % of lower 8’s have a distal impaction?

A

6-15%

185
Q

What % of lower 8’s have a horizontal impaction?

A

3-15%

186
Q

What is the angulation/orientation of third molars measured against?

A

Curve of Spee

187
Q

What does depth of third molars give an indication about?

A

The amount of bone removal required

188
Q

What does a superficial depth indicate?

A

Crown of 8 related to crown of 7

189
Q

What does a moderate depth indicate?

A

Crown of 8 related to crown and root of 7

190
Q

What does a deep depth indicate?

A

Crown of 8 related to root of 7

191
Q

What is the management of asymptomatic diseased/high risk disease development?

A

If high risk surgical intervention should be considered
Active surveillance is recommended until symptoms develop

192
Q

When are therapeutic extractions indicated?

A

Single severe acute or recurrent subacute pericoronitis
Unrestorable caries of the M3M or to assist restoration the adjacent tooth
Periodontal disease compromising the M3M and/or adjacent tooth
Resorption of the M3M and/or adjacent tooth
Fractured M3M
M3M periapical abscess, irreversible pulpitis, or acute spreading infection
Surrounding pathology (cysts or tumours) associated with the M3M

193
Q

What is the treatment for symptomatic diseased/high risk disease development?

A

Therapeutic removal of M3M (coronectomy)
Removal of upper third molar

194
Q

What are the medical considerations for prophylactic removal?

A

Patients undergoing planned medical treatment/therapy that may complicate the likely surgery of M3M including:
Pharmaceutical therapy (bisphosphonates, antiangiogenics, chemotherapy)
Radiotherapy of head and neck
Immunosuppressant therapy

195
Q

What are the surgical considerations for prophylactic removal of third molars?

A

The third molar lies within the perimeter of a surgical field:
Mandibular fractures
Orthographic surgery
Resection of disease (benign and malignant lesions)

196
Q

What can you do to manage the pain in the region of third molars?

A

Temporomandibular disorders
Parotid disease
Skin lesions
Migraines or other primary headaches
Referred pain from angina, cervical spine
Oropharyngeal oncology

197
Q

What post operative complications are associated with third molar extractions?

A

Pain
Swelling
Bruising
Jaw stiffness/limited mouth opening
Bleeding
Infection
Dry socket (localised osteitis)

198
Q

What % of patients have temporary numbness to lower lip/chin in IDB?

A

10-20%

199
Q

What % of patients have temporary numbness to the tongue after a lingual infiltration?

A

0.25-23%

200
Q

What % of patients have permanent numbness to the lip/chin in IDB?

A

<1%

201
Q

What % of patients have permanent numbness to the tongue after a lingual infiltration?

A

0.14-2%

202
Q

How long can temporary numbness last?

A

18-24 months

203
Q

What should a referral include?

A

Situation
Background
Assessment
Recommendation

204
Q
A
205
Q

What are examples of TMJ diseases?

A

TMJ dysfunction
Jaw dislocation
Osteo-arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Chondromatosis
Foreign body granuloma
Infection
Traumatic damage
Radiation damage
Ankylosis
Tumours

206
Q

What are the components of TMJ dysfunction?

A

Muscular ‘initiation’
Mechanical ‘TMJ dysfunction’
Psychological ‘underlying cause’
Trauma ‘aetiology’

207
Q

What are the components of TMJ dysfunction?

A

Muscular ‘initiation’
Mechanical ‘TMJ dysfunction’
Psychological ‘underlying cause’
Trauma ‘aetiology’

208
Q

What are examples of aetiological factors associated with TMJ dysfunction?

A

Macrotrauma
Microtrauma
Occlusal factors
Anatomical factors

209
Q

What are examples of microtrauma associated with TMJ disorder?

A

Chronic joint overloading secondary to stress related repetitive clenching or bruxism

210
Q

What are examples of occlusal factors associated with TMJ dysfunction?

A

Deep bite
Occlusal disharmony (high filling)
Lack of teeth

211
Q

What are examples of anatomical factors associated with TMJ dysfunction?

A

Class II jaw relation

212
Q

What are the symptoms of TMJ dysfunction?

A

Pain
Reduced mobility
TMJ clicking and locking

213
Q

What types of pain is associated with TMJ dysfunction?

A

Muscular
Capsular
Intra-capsular ‘disc’

214
Q

What are the anatomical considerations associated with TMJ dysfunction?

A

Glenoid fossa
Condylar head
Articular disc
Lateral ligament
Internal surface of capsule
Synovial membrane

215
Q

What type of joint is the TMJ?

A

Fibro-cartilage discs

216
Q

What movement takes place in the upper compartment of the TMJ?

A

Translocation

217
Q

What movements take place in the lower compartment of the TMJ?

A

Rotation

218
Q

What aspect of the TMJ helps to resist load?

A

Cartilage
Synovial fluid
Joint shape
Muscles
Ligaments

219
Q

What does articular cartilage consist of?

A

Chondrocytes
Collagen fibres in proteoglycan matrix

220
Q

What is the effect of inflammatory disease on proteoglycans?

A

Inflammatory diseases produce proteases which degrade proteoglycans

221
Q

What are the innervated components of the TMJ?

A

Capsule
Synovial tissue
Subchondral bone

222
Q

What is the effect of compressive forces on collagen?

A

Compression may damage proteoglycans which protect collagen

223
Q

What does TMJ inflammation lead to the production of?

A

Proteases
Hyaluronidase

224
Q

What does synovitis lead to?

A

Chronic adhesive capsulitis and disc displacement

225
Q

What is the effect of shearing forces in the TMJ?

A

May cause the break up of collagen fibrils

226
Q

What are the effects of degenerative changes on the TMJ?

A

Cartilage degeneration: chondromalacia/collagen/fibrillation/subchondral bone exposure
Disc perforation
Multiple adhesions and adhesive capsulitis
Osteophytes
Flattening of condyle and eminence
Subchondral cysts

227
Q

What is included in the conservative management of TMJ dysfunction?

A

Counselling
Pain management
Joint rest
Physical therapy
Restoration of occlusal stability

228
Q

What are the functions of a bite appliance?

A

Eliminates occlusal interferences
Prevents the joint head from rotating so far posteriorly in the glenoid fossa
Reduces loading on the TMJ

229
Q

What are the investigations for TMJ dysfunction?

A

Radiographic
Arthrogram
MRI scan
Arthroscopy

230
Q

What are examples of arthroscopic procedures?

A

Diagnosis
Biopsy
Lysis and lavage
Disc reduction- release, cautery, suturing
Removal of loose bodies
Eminectomy

231
Q

What are examples of intra and post operative complications of arthroscopic procedures?

A

Iatrogenic scuffing
Broken instruments
Middle ear perforation
Glenoid fossa perforation
Extravasation
Haemorrhage
Haemarthrosis
Damage to Vn and VIIn
Infection
Dysocclusion
Laceration of EAM
Perforation of tympanic membrane

232
Q

What is the post operative management when dealing with TMJ dysfunction?

A

Joint rest- soft diet, avoid wide opening
Pain management
Physical therapy
Restoration of occlusal stability

233
Q

What are examples of surgical procedures to manage TMJ dysfunction?

A

Disc plication
Eminectomy
High condylar shave
Condylotomy
Meniscectomy
Condylectomy
Reconstructive procedures

234
Q

What are the indications for TMJ reconstruction?

A

Joint destruction
Ankylosis
Developmental deformity
Tumours

235
Q

What are examples of joint destruction causes that indicate for TMJ reconstruction?

A

Trauma
Infection
Tumours
Previous surgery
Radiation

236
Q

What are examples of slow growing tumours associated with indication for TMJ reconstruction?

A

Giant cell lesions
Fibro-osseous lesions
Myxomas

237
Q

What is type I ankylosis of the TMJ?

A

Flattening deformity of condyle, little joint space and extensive fibrous adhesions

238
Q

What is type II ankylosis of the TMJ?

A

Bony fusion at outer edge of articular surface

239
Q

What is type III ankylosis of the TMJ?

A

Marked fusion bone between upper part of ramus of mandible and zygomatic arch

240
Q

What is type IV ankylosis of the TMJ?

A

Entire joint replaced by mass of bone

241
Q

At what age does sinus formation occur?

A

Between 3rd and 4th foetal months with evaginations of the mucosa of the nasal cavity

242
Q

Discuss the sizes of the sinuses at birth;

A

Maxillary and ethmoid are relatively large at birth
Sphenoid and frontal undergo expansion within the first few years of life

243
Q

What are the functions of the paranasal sinuses?

A

Adds resonance to the voice
Reserve chambers for warming inspired air
Reduces the weight of the skull

244
Q

What is the avg volumetric space of the maxillary sinus?

A

15ml

245
Q

What are the dimensions of the maxillary sinus?

A

37mm high
27mm wide
35mm antero-posteriorly

246
Q

What is the opening of the maxillary sinus called?

A

Optimum

247
Q

Where is the ostium?

A

Middle meats (semi-lunar hiatus)

248
Q

What is the approximate diameter of the ostium of the maxillary sinus?

A

4mm

249
Q

Where are the alveolar canals to the maxillary teeth in relation to the sinus

A

Found on the posterior wall of the sinus cavity

250
Q

What type of epithelium of the sinuses?

A

Pseudo-stratified ciliates columnar epithelium

251
Q

What is the function of the cilia in the sinuses?

A

Mobilise trapped particulate matter and foreign material within the sinus
Moves this material toward the ostia for elimination into the nasal cavity

252
Q

What is the clinical significance of the maxillary sinus?

A

Oro-antral communication
Oro-antral fistula
Root in the antrum
Sinusitis
Benign lesions
Malignant lesions

253
Q

What are the factors associated with the diagnosis of an oro-antral communication/fistula?

A

Size of tooth
Radiographic position of roots in relation to the antrum
Bone at trifurcation of the roots
Bubbling of blood
Nose holding test (risk of creating OAC)
Direct vision
Good light and suction (echo)
Blunt probe (take care- risk of creating OAC)

254
Q

What is the management of an oro-antral communication if small or sinus lining is intact?

A

Inform patient
Encourage clot
Suture margins
Antibiotic (debatable)
Post op instructions (minimising pressure formation within sinus and mouth)

255
Q

What is the prognosis for small OAC’s?

A

<2mm usually heal with normal blood clot formation and routine mucosal healing

256
Q

What is the management of oro-antral communication if large or sinus lining is torn?

A

Inform patient
Close with buccal advancement flap

257
Q

What are the steps of raising a buccal advancement flap?

A

Flap designed
Flap raised
Trimming of the buccal bone (occasionally)
Incise the periosteum
Check flap can be brought across defect tension free
Suturing

258
Q

What complaints are associated with a chronic OAF?

A

Problems with fluid consumption (fluids from nose)
Problems with speech or singing (nasal quality)
Problems playing brass/wind instrument
Problems smoking cigarette or using a straw
Bad taste/odour/halitosis/pus discharge (post-nasal drip)
Pain/sinusitis type symptoms

259
Q

What must be done in a OAF case prior to buccal advancement flap?

A

Excision of sinus tract
Antral wash out (occasionally)

260
Q

What are the flap design options in OAF?

A

Buccal advancement flap
Buccal fat pad with buccal advancement flap
Palatal flap
Bone graft/collagen membrane
Rotated tongue flap (historic)

261
Q

What is the aetiology of maxillary tuberosity fracture?

A

Single standing molar
Unknown un erupted molar or wisdom tooth
Pathological germination/concresence
Extracting in the wrong order
Inadequate alveolar support

262
Q

How is a fractured maxillary tuberosity diagnosed?

A

Noise
Movement noted both visually or with supporting fingers
More than one tooth movement
Tear in soft tissue of palate

263
Q

What is the management of a fractured maxillary tuberosity?

A

Reduce and stabilise; orthodontic buccal arch wire with composite, arch bar, lab-made splints
Dissect out and close wound primarily

264
Q

What should be done when splinting a tooth following a maxillary tuberosity fracture?

A

Remove or treat pulp
Ensure it is out of occlusion
Consider antibiotics and antiseptics
Post op instructions
Remove tooth surgically 4-8 weeks later

265
Q

What should be done if there it root/tooth in the maxillary sinus?

A

Confirm radiographically by OPT, occlusal or periapical (+/- CBCT)
Decision on retrieval
If in doubt or retrieve difficult— refer

266
Q

How is a root in the antrum/sinus retrieved?

A

OAF approach (through extraction socket)
Caldwell-Luc approach
ENT

267
Q

Discuss retrieval of roots in the antrum/sinus taking an OAF type approach:

A

Open fenestration with care
Suction- efficient and narrow bore
Small curettes
Irrigation or ribbon gauze
Close as for oro-antral communication

268
Q

Discuss retrieval of roots in the antrum/sinus taking an Caldwell-Luc approach:

A

Buccal/labial sulcus
Buccal window cut in bone

269
Q

What should be remembered when examining patients with maxillary discomfort?

A

Close relationship of the sinuses and the posterior maxillary teeth
The aetiology of paranasal sinus inflammation and infection
Patients with sinusitis usually present to the dentist first

270
Q

What is the aetiology of sinusitis precipitated by?

A

Viral infection: inflammation and oedema, obstruction of ostia, trapping of debris within the sinus cavity

271
Q

What may alter mucociliary clearance patterns?

A

Allergens
Inflammation
Anatomical abnormalities

272
Q

What happens when the sinus can no longer evacuate its contents efficiently?

A

Build up of pressure
Opportune situation for bacterial overgrowth of normal flora

273
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of sinusitis?

A

Facial pain
Pressure
Congestion (fullness)
Nasal obstruction
Paranasal drainage
Hyposmia
Fever
Headache
Dental pain
Halitosis
Fatigue
Cough
Ear pain
Anaesthesia/paraesthesia over the cheek

274
Q

What may sinusitis present similarly to?

A

Periapical abscess
Periodontal infection
Deep caries
Recent extraction socket
TMD
Neuralgia or atypical facial pain/chronic midfacial pain

275
Q

What are the indicators of sinusitis?

A

Discomfort on palpation of infraorbital region
A diffuse pain in the maxillary teeth
Equal sensitivity from percussion of multiple teeth in the same region
Pain that worsens with head or facial movements

276
Q

What are the aims of sinusitis treatment?

A

Treat presenting symptoms
Reduce tissue oedema
Reverse obstruction of the ostia

277
Q

What are the treatment options for sinusitis?

A

Decongestants to reduce mucosal oedema (ephedrine nasal drops 0.5% one drop each nostril up to 3x daily, max 7 days)
Humidified air

278
Q

When should antibiotics be used for sinusitis?

A

Is symptomatic treatment is not effective/symptoms worsen
Signs and symptoms point to a bacterial sinusitis

279
Q

What is the antibiotic regime for sinusitis?

A

Amoxicillin 500mg, 3x daily 7 days
Doxycycline 100mg, 1x daily 7 days (200mg loading dose)

280
Q

What are the causes of sinusitis?

A

Fungal
Trauma
Benign sinus lesions
Malignant lesions

281
Q

What trauma can cause sinusitis?

A

Sinus wall fractures
Orbital floor fractures
Root canal therapy
Tooth extractions
Dental implants/ sinus lifts
Deep periodontal treatment t
Nasal packing
Nasogastric tubes
Mechanical (nasal) intubation

282
Q

What are examples of benign sinus lesions associated with sinusitis?

A

Polyps
Papillomas
Antral psuedocysts
Mucoceles and mucous retention cysts
Odontogenic cysts/tumours expanding into the maxillary sinus

283
Q

What are the stages of blood clot formation?

A

Vasoconstriction
Platelet plug
Fibrosis of platelet plug

284
Q

What is a biopsy?

A

Sample of tissue for histopathological analysis
Allows confirmation or establishment of a diagnosis and can aid with determining prognosis

285
Q

What are examples of tissue sampling techniques?

A

Aspiration
Aspiration from lesion
Fine needle aspiration biopsy

286
Q

What are examples of aspiration tissue sampling techniques?

A

Blood sample

287
Q

What are the benefits/downsides of aspiration from lesion?

A

Avoids contamination by oral commensals
Protects anaerobic species
May also aspirate cystic lesions
Aspiration will determine whether a lesion is solid or fluid filled
May occasionally yield blood

288
Q

What is fine needle aspiration biopsy?

A

Aspiration of cells from solid lesions
Neck swellings, salivary gland lesions, cytology

289
Q

What are the features of an excisional biopsy?

A

Removal of all clinically abnormal tissue
Confidence in provisional diagnosis

290
Q

When should an excisional biopsy be done?

A

Benign lesions (fibrous overgrowths, denture hyperplasia, mucocoeles)
Discrete lesions

291
Q

What are the features of an incisional biopsy?

A

Representative tissue sample
Larger lesions
More uncertain in provisional diagnosis

292
Q

What conditions is a incisional biopsy useful in?

A

Leukoplakia
Lichen planus
Squamous cell carcinoma

293
Q

What is a punch biopsy?

A

Incisional biopsy
Hollow trephine 4, 6, or 8mm in diameter
Removes core of tissue
Minimal damage
May not require suture/ only minimal suturing

294
Q

What factors are associated with selecting the biopsy site?

A

Must be large enough
Must be representative
Maybe more than one biopsy
Include perilesional tissue

295
Q

How should samples be sent to the pathology lab?

A

Placed immediately into 10% formalin (dont place on gauze swap)
Suture may help the pathologist orientate the sample
Include relevant clinical information on the pathology form to aid diagnosis

296
Q

What is the effect of sutures in regard to a specimen?

A

Can be useful for orientation

297
Q

What is the effect of gauze in regard to a specimen?

A

Distorts the sample so dont use

298
Q

What is the effect of filter paper in regard to a specimen?

A

Reduces sample distortuib

299
Q

What should be done to the pot containing the sample?

A

Label as fully as possible
Correct usage should ensure no leaks
Do not confuse with the tooth collection pots

300
Q

Where should specimens be sent to?

A

The Pathology Dept
Queen Elizabeth University Hospital

301
Q

How are specimens sent?

A

By courier, under very strict instructions

302
Q

What factors are associated with choosing biopsy area?

A

Chose a representative sample
Not necessary to include ‘normal tissue’ margin
Try to avoid salivary gland duct orifices, tip of tongue, areas close to nerves and larger blood vessels

303
Q

What are examples of soft tissue lesions?

A

Carcinoma
Denture hyperplasia
Fibrous epulis
Fibrous overgrowth
Giant cell epulis
Pregnancy epulis
Haemangioma/lymphangioma
Lipoma
Pyogenic granuloma
Squamous cell papilloma
Salivary gland lesions
Lichen planus
Lichenoid reactions
Pemphigus
Pemphigoid
Behcet’s
Leukoplakia
Erythroplakia

304
Q

What is a fibrous epulis?

A

Swelling arises from the gingivae
Hyperplastic response to irritiation

305
Q

What are examples of irritations that can cause fibrous epulis’

A

Overhanging restoration
Subgingival calculus

306
Q

How to fibrous epulis’ appear?

A

Smooth surface, rounded swelling
Pink and pedunculated

307
Q

How are fibrous epulis’ sampled and treated?

A

Excisional biopsy
Coe pack dressing
Remove source of irriation

308
Q

What is a fibrous overgrowth?

A

Fibroepithelial polyp

309
Q

What can cause a fibrous overgrowth?

A

Frictional irritation or trauma

310
Q

How do fibrous overgrowths appear?

A

Semi-pedunculated or sessile
Pink
Smooth surface

311
Q

Where do fibrous overgrowths usually present?

A

Buccal mucosa and inner surface of lip

312
Q

How are fibrous overgrowths sampled?

A

Surgical excision
No need for deep excision or normal margin

313
Q

What is giant cell epulis?

A

Peripheral giant cell granuloma
Multi-nucleated giant cells in vascular stroma

314
Q

When and where does giant cell epulis commonly present?

A

Teenagers
Anterior regions of mouth

315
Q

How does giant cell epulis present?

A

Deep red or purple
Broad base

316
Q

Why should a giant cell epulis be radiographed?

A

To ensure it is not centrally originating (would appear as a radiolucency)

317
Q

How is a giant cell epulis sampled?

A

Surgical excision with curettage of base
Coe pack dressing

318
Q

What are the features of a haemangioma?

A

Exophytic
Blue in colour
Pressure will cause loss of colour

319
Q

How are haemangiomas sampled/removed?

A

Surgical removal or cryotherapy

320
Q

What is a down side of cryotherapy?

A

No histological diagnosis

321
Q

What is a lipoma?

A

Benign neoplasm of fat

322
Q

How does lipoma present?

A

Soft swelling
Pale yellow
Sessile

323
Q

How is lipoma sampled?

A

Excision

324
Q

How is a pregnancy epulis managed?

A

Small lesions may not require excision and may regress after birth
Larger lesions should be excised

325
Q

What is the cause of a pyogenic granuloma?

A

Failure of normal healing

326
Q

What is a pyogenic granuloma?

A

Overgrowth of granulation tissue

327
Q

What are example causes of pyogenic granuloma?

A

May be related to extraction sockets or traumatic soft tissue injuries

328
Q

How are pyogenic granulomas managed?

A

Surgical excision
Curettage of base

329
Q

Where do squamous cell papilloma present commonly?

A

Palate
Buccal mucosa or lips

330
Q

What is a squamous cell papilloma?

A

Benign neoplasm

331
Q

How do squamous cell papilloma present?

A

Usually pedunculate
White surface
Cauliflower appearance

332
Q

How is squamous cell papilloma managed?

A

Excision at base

333
Q

What is squamous cell papilloma similar to?

A

Viral warts

334
Q

What is denture hyperplasia?

A

Roll of excess tissue on outer aspect of denture flange and alveolar ridge caused by a poorly fitting denture

335
Q

How is denture hyperplasia managed?

A

Trim denture flange
Remove excess tissue
If large area use Coe pack dressing to ensure sulcus depth is maintained

336
Q

Where is commonly affected by denture hyperplasia?

A

Lower labial sulcus

337
Q

What is the cause of a leaf fibroma?

A

Chronic irritation form denture

338
Q

Why is a leaf fibroma flattened not rounded?

A

Due to the denture covering it

339
Q

How does a leaf fibroma present?

A

Pedunculated

340
Q

How is a leaf fibroma managed?

A

Excision

341
Q

What is a mucocoele?

A

Mucous extravasation cyst

342
Q

Where are mucocoeles commonly?

A

Minor salivary glands

343
Q

How are mucocoeles formed?

A

Damage to minor salivary gland
Saliva leaks into submucosal layer
Soft bluish swelling- fluid filled

344
Q

What is a ranula?

A

Mucocoele on the floor of mouth

345
Q

What is the management of a mucocoele?

A

Surgical excision
Blunt dissection

346
Q

What risk is associated with swellings in upper lips?

A

More commonly neoplastic than simple mucocoeles

347
Q

How may squamous cell carcinoma present?

A

A lump, red or white patch, non-healing ulcer
Commonly appears as an ulcer with a rolled margin and induration

348
Q

How is suspected squamous cell carcinoma sampled?

A

Incisional biopsy

349
Q
A
350
Q

What are the four causes of bone loss?

A

Congenital
Pathology
Natural
Trauma

351
Q

What are the methods of ridge augmentation?

A

Bone grafts
Inferior dental nerve retraction
Distraction osteogenesis
Zygomatic implants
Growth factors; bone morphogenic protein (BMP)

352
Q

What are examples of local bone grafts?

A

Chin
Ramus
Tuberosity
Coronoid process

353
Q

What are examples of distant bone grafts?

A

Iliac crest
Calverium

354
Q

What is an allograph?

A

Graft from same species

355
Q

What is an autograft?

A

Graft from the patients own body

356
Q

What is a Zenograft?

A

Graft from an animal

357
Q

What is an onlay graft?

A

Graft is placed over site

358
Q

What is an interpositional graft?

A

Graft placed in between two structures

359
Q

What are examples of congenital bone loss?

A

Hypodontia
Cleft

360
Q

What are the basic principles of distraction osteogenesis?

A

Osteotomy (location and direction)
Latency
Distraction (vector, rate and rhythm)
Consolidation
Remodelling

361
Q

What is osteotomy?

A

Cutting of the bone

362
Q

What is latency? (distraction osteogenesis)

A

Period of time (around 10 days) following osteotomy

363
Q

What is the rate of distraction?

A

1mm per day (half in morning, half in afternoon- rhythm)

364
Q

What does vector mean in regard to distraction?

A

Direction of the movement

365
Q

What is consolidation?

A

After space is made, device is left in situ for 2-3 months to allow bone remodelling

366
Q

What is the length of a zygomatic implant?

A

45-55mm

367
Q

What are the indications for a zygomatic implant?

A

Severe maxillary atrophy
Sinus pneumotisation
To avoid harvesting of bone graft
Hemimaxillectomy

368
Q

What are BMPS?

A

Active osteoinductive factors
Extracellular proteins stored in bone matrix
Convert UMCs into osteoblasts and stimulate angiogenesis

369
Q

Which BMPs induce bone formation?

A

15 BMPs
BMP2
BMP4
BMP7

370
Q

What does BMP stand for?

A

Bone morphogenetic proteins

371
Q

What are the basic principles of surgical removal?

A

Risk assessment: good planning, medical history
Aespetic technique
Minimal trauma to hard and soft tissues

372
Q

What are the stages of surgical removal?

A

Anaesthesia
Access
Bone removal as necessary
Tooth division as necessary
Debridement
Suture
Achieve haemostasis
Post operative instructions

373
Q

How is access gained for a third molar removal?

A

Raising a buccal mucoperiosteal flap (with/without raising a lingual flap)

374
Q

What are the principles to follow when raising a flap?

A

Maximum access with minimal trauma
Large flaps heal as quickly as smaller ones
Use the scalpel in one firm continuous stroke
Minimise trauma to dental papilla

375
Q

What instruments are used for reflection?

A

Mitchell’s trimmer
Howarth’s periosteal elevator
Ash periosteal elevator
Curved Warwick James elevator

376
Q

What are the stages of reflection?

A

Commence raising flap at base of relieving incision
Undermine/free anterior papilla before proceeding with reflection distally (avoid tears)
Reflect with periosteal elevator firmly on bone

377
Q

What factors should be considered when reflecting with a periosteal elevator?

A

Avoid dissection occurring superficial to periosteum
Reduce soft tissue bruising/trauma

378
Q

What areas are the most difficult to reflect with minimal trauma?

A

Papilla
Mucogingival junction

379
Q

What factors are important in regard to retraction?

A

Access to field
Protection of soft tissues
Flap design facilitates retraction
Atraumatic/passive retraction

380
Q

What instruments can be used for retraction?

A

Howarth’s periosteal elevator
Rake retractor
Minnesota retractor

381
Q

How is atraumatic/passive retraction achieved?

A

Rest firmly on the bone
Have an awareness of adjacent structures

382
Q

What handpiece is used for bone removal and why?

A

Electrical straight handpiece with saline cooled bur
Air driven handpicks may lead to surgical emphysema

383
Q

What burs are used for bone removal?

A

Round or fissure stainless steel and tungsten carbide burs

384
Q

Where is the drill placed in regard to bone removal?

A

Buccal aspect of the tooth and to the distal aspect of the impaction

385
Q

What is the aim when drilling for bone removal?

A

Create a deep, narrow gutter around the crown of the wisdom tooth
Should allow correct application of elevators in the mesial and buccal aspects of the tooth

386
Q

What are the factors to consider when looking at a good quality drill unit/bur?

A

Free-standing drill unit/ straight handpiece
Tungsten carbide burs
Plenty of irrigation

387
Q

What is the most common type of tooth separation?

A

Crown sectioned from the roots

388
Q

How is a horizontal crown section carried out?

A

Tooth is sectioned just above the enamel-cementum junction

389
Q

Where is the tooth sectioned for a coronectomy?

A

Tooth is sectioned below the enamel cementum junction

390
Q

Why is a tooth sectioned above the ACJ for horizontal sectioning?

A

Leaves some crown behind and allows orientation and elevation

391
Q

When is vertical crown section carried out?

A

Where the roots are separate

392
Q

What does vertical crown sectioning allow?

A

Removal of the distal portion of the crown and distal root followed by elevation of the mesial portion of the crown and mesial root

393
Q

What are the types of debridement?

A

Physical
Irrigation
Suction

394
Q

How is physical debridement carried out?

A

Bone files or handpiece to remove sharp bony edges
Mitchell’s trimmer or Victoria curette to remove soft tissue debris

395
Q

How is irrigation debridement carried out?

A

Sterile saline into socket and under flap

396
Q

How is suction irrigation carried out?

A

Aspirate under the flap to remove debris
Check socket for retained apices

397
Q

What are the aims of suturing?

A

Reposition tissues
Cover bone
Prevent wound breakdown
Achieve haemostasis

398
Q

When is a coronectomy carried out?

A

Alternative to surgical removal of entire tooth when there is increased risk of IAN damage with surgical removal

399
Q

What are the stages of a coronectomy?

A

Flap design to gain access to tooth
Transection of tooth 3-4mm below the enamel of the crown into dentine
Elevate/lever crown off without mobilising the roots
Pulp left in place- untreated
(If necessary further reduction of the roots with a rose head bur to 3-4mm below alveolar crest)
Socket irrigated
Flap replaced

400
Q

When should a coronecromy be followed up?

A

Review 1-2 weeks
Further review 3-6 months then 1 year
Can be reviewed at 2 years
Radiographic review- 6 months, 1 year or both (if symptomatic 1 week post op)

401
Q

When is a coronectomy patient discharged back to their GDP?

A

After 6 months/1 year review

402
Q

What warnings should be given to a patient in regard to their coronectomy?

A

If the root is mobilised during crown removal the entire tooth must be removed (more likely with conical fused roots)
Leaving roots behind could result in infection
Can get a slow healing/painful ‘socket’
The roots may migrate later and begin to erupt through the mucosa and may require extraction

403
Q

Discuss extraction in regard to upper third molars:

A

Generally easier than lower
Removed by elevation only or elevation and forceps extraction (straight or curved Warwick James or couplings)
Bayonet forceps may be used

404
Q
A

Finals (20 decks)

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