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Medications Flashcards

1
Q

What does warfarin target?

A

Vitamin k dependent clotting factors 2, 7, 9, 10, protein s and protein c

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2
Q

What is the initial effect of warfarin?

A

Hypercoagulation

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3
Q

What does desmopressin do?

A

Releases factor VII bound to endothelial cells resulting in a temporary boost to factor VII levels

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4
Q

Why is desmopressin only effective every few weeks?

A

Factor VII needs to build up in the endothelial wall

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5
Q

How does transaeximic acid work?

A

Inhibits fibrinolysis
Decreases bleeding by stopping clot breakdown

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6
Q

What is the maximum dose of paracetamol?

A

0.5-1g every 4-6 weeks
Max 4g per day

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7
Q

What is the maximum dose of ibuprofen?

A

400mg tablet 4x per day
Max 2.4g per day

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8
Q

What is the maximum dose of aspirin?

A

300mg tablet (x2) 4x a day
Max 4g per day

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9
Q

What is the maximum dose of dihydrocodeine?

A

30mg every 4-6 hours

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10
Q

What is the maximum dose of carbamazepine?

A

200mg 3-4 times a day
Up to 1.6g

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11
Q

What is the maximum dose of diclofenac?

A

15ml rinse 2-3x day for 7 days

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12
Q

What medications can be used to treat NUG/NUP?

A

Metronidazole
6% H2O2
0.2% chlorhexidine mouthwash

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13
Q

When is chlorhexidine used?

A

Post surgery
Disabled patients
Immunocompromised
RCT irritant

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14
Q

What are the side effects of chlorhexidine?

A

Decreased GI absorption
Staining
Taste disturbance

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15
Q
A
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16
Q

What are the side effects of chemotherapy?

A

Hair loss
Fatigue
Nausea
Weakness

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17
Q

What are the side effects of radiotherapy?

A

ORN
Mucositis
Burns
Radiation caries

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18
Q

What is apixaban?

A

Direct Oral Anticoagulant

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19
Q

What is apixaban used for?

A

Deep Vein Thrombosis
Pulmonary Embolism
Stroke
Non-vascular atrial fibrillation

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20
Q

How long does warfarin take to work?

A

48-72 hours

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21
Q

What its the mode of action of dabigatran?

A

Reversible inhibitor of free thrombin, fibrin bound thrombin and thrombin-induced platelet aggregation

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22
Q

What is the mode of action of apixaban, edoxaban and rivaroxiban?

A

Factor Xa inhibitors
Prevent thrombin generation and thrombus development

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23
Q

What is simvastatin?

A

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors used to treat hypercholesteroemia

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24
Q

What is furosemide?

A

Loop diuretic

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25
Q

What is furosemide used for?

A

Controls hypertension

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26
Q

What is a risk with furosemide?

A

Risk of exacerbating diabetes

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27
Q

What is carvedilol?

A

Beta blocker

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28
Q

What is carvedilol used for?

A

Hypertension management

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29
Q

What is the effect of metformin?

A

Anti-hyperglycaemic effect

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30
Q

What is a side effect of metformin?

A

Can reduce vitamin B12 levels: leads to vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia

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31
Q

What is the mode of action of dapagliflozin?

A

Reversibly inhibits sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) in the renal proximal convoluted tubule to reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary excretion

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32
Q

What is the mode of action of sulfonulurea?

A

Augments insulin secretion
Only effective when there is residual pancreatic beta-cell activity

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33
Q

What is the triple therapy option for diabetes?

A

Metformin
Dapagliflozin
Sulfonulurea

34
Q

When is miconazole contraindicated?

A

Warfarin
Statins

35
Q

What are the original tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Amitriptyline
Nortriptyline
Dosulepin

36
Q

What are the new tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Imipramine
Doxepin

37
Q

What are the side effects of tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Dry mouth
Sedation
Weight gain

38
Q

What are the cautions with tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Glaucoma
Prostatism

39
Q

What are examples of selective serotine reuptake inhibitors?

A

Fluoxetine
Paroxetine
Fluoroxamine
Cetalopram
Setraline

40
Q

What are the side effects of selective serotine reuptake inhibitors?

A

Acute anxiety
TCA symptoms
Gastrointestinal upset

41
Q

What are examples of monoamine oxidase inhibitors?

A

Phenelzine
Isocaboxazid
Selegeline

42
Q

What interactions can monoamine oxidase reuptake inhibitors have with indirect acting sympathomimetic amines?

A

Enhanced vasoconstrictor effect
Cough and cold remedies

43
Q

Which foodstuffs can monoamine oxidase reuptake inhibitors interact with?

A

Tyramine containing
Alcohol
Bovril/oxo/marmite/cheese

44
Q

What is venlafaxine?

A

Mixed SRI/NRI

45
Q

What is mirtazapine?

A

Complex 5HT actions
Presynaptic alpha2 antagonist

46
Q

What is nefazadone

A

SSRI
5HT blockade

47
Q

What is reboxetine?

48
Q

What drugs are used to treat bipolar disorder?

A

Lithium (mood stabiliser)
Carbamazepine/Lamotrigine/Valproate (mood stabiliser)
Antipsychotic medicines- aririprazole, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone (mania treatment)

49
Q

What should be avoided when taking lithium?

A

NSAIDs
Metronidazole

50
Q

What are the dental effects of antidepressants?

A

Xerostomia
Caries
Sedation
Facial dyskinesias (twitching)

51
Q

What are examples of anti-psychotic drugs?

A

Butryrophenones
Phenothiazines
Thioxanthenes
New atypical antipsychotics

52
Q

What are examples of butryophenones?

A

Haloperidol
Droperidol

53
Q

What are examples of phenothiazines?

A

Chlorpromazine
Thioridazine

54
Q

What are examples of thioxanthenes?

A

Flupenthixol
Zuclopenthixol

55
Q

What are examples of new atypical antipsychotics?

A

Sulphide
Respiridone
Clozapine
Quetiapire

56
Q

What are the extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotics?

A

Akathisia (feeling of restlessness)
Dystonia (involuntary muscle contraction)
Parkinsonism (tremor, slowed thought/movement, rigid muscle)
Tardive dyskinesia (uncontrolled facial movement)

58
Q

What are examples of anticholinergics?

A

Procyclidine
Benzotropine
Diphenhydramine
Pramipexole

59
Q

Which medications cause gingival hyperplasia?

A

Calcium channel blockers
Phenytoin
Cyclosporin

60
Q

What is adalimumab?

A

Anti TNF mAb

61
Q

What is ustekinumab?

A

Anti IL21/23

62
Q

What is vedolizumab?

63
Q

What are GLP-1s?

A

Glucagon-like peptide
Mimics incretin (increases insulin sensitivity and decreases glucose)

64
Q

What do DDP-4 inhibitors do?

A

Inhibit DDP-4 which inactivates incretin

65
Q

What do therapeutic steroids do?

A

Increase salt and water retention
Increase BP
Immunosuppression

66
Q

What is the factor for prednisolone?

67
Q

What is the factor for becamethasone?

68
Q

What is the factor for dexamethasone?

69
Q

What is the factor for hydrocortisone?

70
Q

What do calcium channel blockers do?

A

Block calcium channels to reduce muscle excitability
Used to treat hypertension
May cause gingival hyperplasia

71
Q

What do nifedipine and amlodipine do?

A

Relaxation and vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels

72
Q

What does verapamil do?

A

Slows conduction of passing impulses in heart

73
Q

What is the triple therapy for CF?

A

2 correctors and one potentiator
Iracaftor, Tezacaftor and elaxacaftor

74
Q

What is the role of aspirin?

A

Antiplatelet drug
Inhibits platelet aggregation by altering the balance between thromboxane A2 and cyclin

75
Q

What is the role of heparin?

A

Anti-thrombin
Activates anti-thrombin III to prevent fibrin plug formation

76
Q

What is frusemide?

A

Loop diuretic

77
Q

What is bendroflumethiazide?

A

Thiazide diuretic

78
Q

What do nitrates do?

A

Dilate veins

79
Q

What are examples of nitrates?

A

Glycerol Trinitraide
Isosorbide mononitrate

80
Q

What is the triple therapy for h.pylori

A

2 antibiotics (amoxycillin and metronidazole)
Proton pump inhibitor (omeprazole)

Finals (20 decks)

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