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Medicine > Paediatrics > Flashcards

Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What mutation is associated with Achondroplasia?

How is it inherited?

A

FGFR-2 gene mutation

AD

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2
Q

What is the main RF for developing Achondroplasia?

A

Advancing parental age

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3
Q

How might you manage stature in achondroplasia?

A

Limb lengthening with Illizarov frames

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?

A

RSV - respiratory syncytial virus

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5
Q

Which children tend to be affected by bronchiolitis?

A

<6 months
Ex-premature babies with chronic lung disease

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6
Q

What is wheezing?

A

Whistling sound caused by narrowed airways, typically heard during expiration

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7
Q

What is grunting?

A

Caused by exhaling with the glottis partially closed to increase positive end-expiratory pressure

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8
Q

What is stridor?

A

High pitched inspiratory noise caused by obstruction of the upper airway, for example in croup

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9
Q

What is the typical course of an RSV infection

A

URTI, 50% get better

50% get chest symptoms in 1-2 days, worst day 3-4

Recover in 2-3 weeks

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10
Q

Which patients with bronchiolitis should be admitted?

A

<3 months
prematurity
T21
CF

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11
Q

How is ventilatory support stepped up in children with bronchiolitis?

A

1) High-flow humidified O2 (PEEP)

2) CPAP

3) Intubation + ventilation

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12
Q

What is Palivizumab?

Who gets it?

A

mAb targeting RSV

Monthly injection as prevention against bronchiolitis

Given to high risk babies (e.g. ex-premature, congenital heart disease…)

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13
Q
A
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14
Q

How might you manage the following in cerebral palsy?

Drooling
Constipation
Nutrition

A

Drooling - anti-cholinergic agents (e.g. hyoscine hydrobromide)

Constipation - laxatives

Nutrition - PEG

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15
Q

How is cerebral palsy classified?

A

Spastic (70%) - ^tone from damaged UMN

Dyskinetic - damaged basal ganglia + substantia nigra

Ataxic - damaged cerebellum

Mixed

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16
Q

What is the most common variant of cleft lip and palate?

A

Combined cleft lip and palate

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17
Q

Name 1 key RF for cleft lip and palate

A

Maternal antiepileptic use

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18
Q

What ENT pathology are those with cleft palate at risk of?

A

Otitis media

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19
Q

When is cleft lip repaired?

A

1 week - 3 months

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20
Q

When is cleft palate repaired?

A

6-12 months

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21
Q

What aged children are affected by croup normally?

A

6 months - 2 years

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of Croup?

A

Parainfluenza

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23
Q

What used to be the most common cause of Croup?

A

Diphtheria

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24
Q

What is the most effective treatment for Croup?

A

Dexamethasone single dose 150 mcg/kg

Repeat if required after 12 hours

2nd line Prednisolone

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25
Q

What are some other options for severe croup?

A

Oral Dexamethasone
O2
Budesonide nebs
Adrenaline nebs

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26
Q

What causes Hirschprung’s disease?

A

Hirschprung’s disease is caused by an aganglionic segment of bowel due to a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses

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27
Q

Who is at a higher risk of developing Hirschprung’s diease?

A

Men
T21

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28
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for Hirschprung’s disease?

A

rectal biopsy

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29
Q

At what age is it more common to develop intussusception?

A

6 months to 2 years

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30
Q

Which sex is more likely to develop intussusception?

A

Males

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31
Q

What is the typical stool finding in intussusception?

A

Redcurrant jelly stool

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32
Q

What sign on abdominal USS is indicative of Intussusception?

A

Target sign

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33
Q

What conservative management may be attempted in Intussusception?

A

Therapeutic enemas

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34
Q

What sized vessels are affected by Kawasaki disease?

A

Medium sized vessels

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35
Q

What aged children are typically affected by Kawasaki disease?

A

<5 years

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36
Q

Name 1 common key complication associated with Kawasaki disease

A

Coronary artery aneurysm

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37
Q

What are the 2 main features of Kawasaki disease?

A

Persistent high fever >5 days

Widespread erythematous maculopapular rash and desquamatisation

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38
Q

What oral sign is indicative of Kawasaki disease?

A

Strawberry tongue

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39
Q

Where might you observe lymphadenopathy in Kawasaki disease?

A

cervical area

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40
Q

What are the 3 phases of Kawasaki disease?

A

Acute phase (1-2 weeks)
Subacute phase (2-4 weeks)
Convalescent phase (2-4 weeks)

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41
Q

How is Kawasaki disease managed?

A

High dose aspirin
IV Ig (reduce risk of coronary artery aneurysms)

Follow up echocardiograms for aneurysms

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42
Q

What genetic abnormality is associated with Noonan syndrome?

A

Mutation on chromosome 12

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43
Q

What cardiac anomaly is associated with Noonan syndrome?

A

Pulmonary stenosis

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44
Q

What coagulopathy is associated with Noonan syndrome?

A

Factor XI deficiency

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45
Q

At what age would you expect pes planus to resolve?

A

4-8 years

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46
Q

At what age would you expect in toeing to present?

A

1 year

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47
Q

At what age would you expect out toeing to resolve?

A

2 years

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48
Q

At what age would you expect genu varum to present and resolve?

A

Present - 1-2 years
Resolve - 4-5 years

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49
Q

At what age would you expect genu valgum to present?

A

years 2-4

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50
Q

What is the way to diagnose VUR?

A

micturating cystourethrogram

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51
Q

What scan may reveal renal scarring in VUR?

A

DMSA

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52
Q

What genetic abnormality causes Turner syndrome?

A

45 XO

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53
Q

What elbow anomaly is seen in Turner syndrome?

A

Cubitus valgus

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54
Q

How might you manage the following in Turner syndrome?

Short stature
Establishing female sex characteristics
Infertility

A

Short - GH therapy
Sex characteristics - Oestrogen and progesterone
Fertility treatment

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55
Q

What pathogen causes Whooping cough?

What is its’ gram stain?

A

Bordetella pertussis

Gram -

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56
Q

How is Whooping cough diagnosed?

A

2-3 weeks onset: swab then PCR or culture

> 2 weeks - Anti-pertussis toxin IgG (oral fluid)

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57
Q

How would you manage Whooping cough?

A

Notifiable disease
Supportive care
Macrolides (erythromycin…, within 21 days)

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58
Q

What is a key complication of Whooping cough?

A

Bronchiectasis

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59
Q

What is caput succedaneum?

A

Oedema of the scalp at the presenting part of the head (usually vertex)

Caused by prolonged delivery or ventouse

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60
Q

What is cephalohaematoma?

A

Swelling on the newborn’s head, several house after delivery between the periosteum and the skull

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61
Q

What complication may be observed in cephalohaematoma?

A

Jaundice

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62
Q

How might you differentiate caput succedaneum and cephalohaematoma?

A

Caput succedaneum - crosses suture lines

Cephalohematoma - doesn’t

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63
Q

When should you assess APGAR scores?

A

1 and 5 minutes of age

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64
Q

Name the 4 main causes of stridor in paediatrics

A

Croup
Acute epiglottitis
Inhaled foreign body
Laryngomalacia

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65
Q

What pathogen causes acute epiglottitis?

A

Haemophilus influenza type B

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66
Q

What is laryngomalacia?

When does it present?

A

Congenital abnormality of the larynx

Typically presents at 4 weeks of age

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67
Q

How is CMPA / CMPI diagnosed?

A

Often clinically

Could do the following tests
- skin prick / patch testing
- Total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein

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68
Q

How might you manage CMPA / CMPI?

A

Severe - refer

Formula
1 - eHF milk
2 - AAF

Breastfed
- no cow’s milk for mum, offer calcium supplements
- Use eHF milk when breastfeeding stops, until 12 months of age and at least for 6 months

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69
Q

What is eHF milk?

A

Extensive hydrolysed formula milk

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70
Q

What is AAF?

A

amino acid-based formula

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71
Q

From what age does Duchenne MD present?

A

5+

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72
Q

From what age does Becker MD present?

A

10+

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73
Q

Name 3 MSK signs observed in DMD

A

Progressive proximal muscle weakness
Calf pseudohypertrophy
Gower’s sign

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74
Q

What percentage of patients with DMD also have intellectual impairment?

A

30%

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75
Q

What is the gold standard diagnosis for DMD?

A

Genetic testing

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76
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of DMD?

A

XLR

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77
Q

What cardiac anomaly is associated with DMD?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

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78
Q

What is the prognosis of DMD?

A

No walking by 12 years
Life expectancy 25-30 years

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79
Q

Which 3 congenital heart defects tend to present in adulthood?

A

ASD
VSD
CoA

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80
Q

Name 6 acyanotic congenital heart defects

A

ASD
VSD
AVSD
CoA
PDA
PS

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81
Q

Name 6 cyanotic congenital heart defects

A

ToF
TGA
Truncus arteriosus
TAPVD
IAA
Univentricular heart

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82
Q

A shunt in which direction is associated with cyanotic congenital heart disease?

A

R -> L

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83
Q

What are the 3 types of ASD from most to least common?

A

PFO
Ostium secundum
Ostium primium

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84
Q

How might an ASD become cyanotic?

A

RH strain -> pulmonary HTN -> Eisenmenger syndrome -> shunt reverses to R-L -> cyanosis

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85
Q
A
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86
Q

Which patients may develop a stroke with ASD?

A

DVT

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87
Q

What murmur is associated with ASD?

A

Mid-systolic, crescendo-descrendo murmur loudest at the upper L sternal border, with a fixed split second heart sound

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88
Q
A
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89
Q

Name 2 genetic conditions associated with VSD

A

T21
Turner’s syndrome

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90
Q

Name 3 causes of a pan-systolic murmur

A

VSD
MR
TR

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91
Q
A
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92
Q

If uncorrected, how might physiology in PDA change?

A

acyanotic -> differential cyanosis

This causes a late cyanosis in the lower extremities

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93
Q

How might you manage an isolated PDA?

A

Indomethacin

or

Ibuprofen

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94
Q

How might you manage a PDA associated with other defects

A

Surgery

then

Prostaglandin E1

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95
Q

What is immediate survival of a baby with TGA dependent on?

A

Shunting across a PDA, ASD, or VSD

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96
Q

Which 4 anomalies are observed in ToF?

A

PS
RV hypertrophy
Overriding aorta
VSD

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97
Q

What is the disease severity in ToF dependent on?

How does this manifest?

A

Degree of PS

mild - more pulmonary flow -> ^sats

sats may be used as a surrogate for pulmonary flow

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98
Q

Name 4 RF associated with ToF

A

Rubella infection
Increased maternal age (particularly >40)
Alcohol consumption
Diabetic mother

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99
Q

How may ToF present on CXR?

Why?

A

Boot shaped heart

RV thickening

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100
Q

What might the nature of the PS indicate about the severity of ToF?

A

Shorter the murmur, the worse the outflow obstruction

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101
Q

What is the emergency management of a Hypercyanotic spell?

A

O2
Knee to chest position
BBs (propranolol)
Morphine

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102
Q

Patients with which congenital heart disease are at risk of Hypercyanotic spells?

A

ToF

103
Q

Where does CoA tend to occur?

A

Aortic isthmus, where the ductus arteriosus inserts

104
Q

What is the first sign of CoA in adulthood?

A

HTN
Systolic murmur (below L clavicle and scapula)

105
Q

What are some longer term signs of CoA?

A

LV heave
Underdeveloped L arm
underdeveloped lungs

106
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in children?

A

AI thyroiditis

107
Q

What cream is given to children with chickenpox?

A

Calamine lotion

108
Q

What should immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure with chickenpox be offered?

A

Varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)

109
Q

What ratio is used for paediatric BLS?

A

15:2

110
Q

What is the most likely causative agent of bacterial pneumonia in children?

A

Strep pneumoniae

111
Q

What is first line for children with pneumonia?

A

Amoxicillin

112
Q

By what age should seborrhoeic dermatitis in children resolve?

A

8 months of age

113
Q

What pathogen is associated with hand foot and mouth disease?

A

Coxsackie virus

114
Q

For acute asthma exacerbations, how can you differentiate a severe an life-threatening attack?

A

Severe - can’t speak
Life-threatening - silent chest, altered consciousness

115
Q

Which genetic conditions are associated with Rocker-bottom feet?

A

T18
Edward’s syndrome

116
Q

What dietary modifications should be made in patients with Cystic Fibrosis?

A

High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal

117
Q

Which pathogen causes roseola infantum?

A

HHV6

118
Q

What are the dermatological signs of roseola infantum?

A

Maculopapular rash

Nagayama spots: papular enanthem on the uvula and soft palate

119
Q

How long should kids take off school for Whooping cough?

A

2 days after commencing antibiotics (or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics)

120
Q

What is the most common cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK?

A

Group B strep

121
Q

Which ENT sign is sometimes observed in Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Nasal polyps

122
Q

Which of AR and AD conditions tend to be metabolic and structural?

What are the exceptions to this rule?

A

Autosomal recessive conditions are ‘metabolic’ - exceptions: inherited ataxias

Autosomal dominant conditions are ‘structural’ - exceptions: Gilbert’s, hyperlipidaemia type II

123
Q

What is the imaging of choice for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Ultrasound

124
Q
A
125
Q
A
126
Q

Which organisms are most commonly responsible for ophthalmia neonatorum?

A

Chlamydia
Gonorrhoea

126
Q

How should ophthalmia neonatorum be managed?

A

Same day ophthalmology / paediatric referral

127
Q

In newborn resuscitation, what should be the ratio of compressions to ventilations?

A

3:1

128
Q

What should all children with an asthma exacerbation be offered regardless of severity?

A

Steroid therapy

129
Q

What is the key presenting feature of Roseola infantum?

A

Fever followed later by a rash

130
Q

What are the 2 main management options for Noctural enuresis?

A

Enuresis alarm
Desmopressin

131
Q

What is the most common complication of measles?

A

Otitis media

132
Q

Hand preference before 12 months may be an indication of what pathology?

A

Cerebral palsy

133
Q

What EEG finding is indicative of West’s syndrome?

A

Hypsarrhythmia

134
Q

What would you offer a baby symptomatic of neonatal hypoglycaemia?

A

IV 10% dextrose

135
Q

What abdominal sign is indicative of CDH?

A

scaphoid abdomen

136
Q

How are mitochondrial diseases inherited?

A

Only via the maternal line as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote

None of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease

All of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease

137
Q

What is Meckel’s diverticulum made of?

A

It is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct (also called the vitellointestinal duct) and contains ectopic ileal, gastric or pancreatic mucosa

138
Q

What is the most common cause of painless massive GI bleeding requiring transfusion in children between the ages of 1 and 2?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

139
Q

What is the investigation of choice for Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Meckel’s scan: uses 99m technetium pertechnetate, which has an affinity for gastric mucosa

140
Q

What vaccination is recommended to all new students by the NHS?

A

Meningitis ACWY

141
Q

What genetic mutation is associated with Patau syndrome?

A

T13

142
Q

What genetic mutation is associated with Edward’s syndrome?

A

T18

143
Q

What genetic mutation is associated with Cri du chat syndrome?

A

Chromosome 5p deletion

144
Q

What is the difference between Treacher-Collins syndrome and Pierre-Robin syndrome?

A

TC - AD so usually a FHx

145
Q

A baby is born with microcephaly, small eyes, low-set ears, cleft lip, and polydactyly.

Which childhood syndrome do you think they have?

A

Patau syndrome

146
Q

What is the most appropriate investigation for Slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

A

AP and frog leg view x-ray

147
Q

How should SUFE be managed?

A

internal fixation: typically a single cannulated screw placed in the centre of the epiphysis

148
Q

What would failure or delay to pass meconium suggest?

A

Hirschprung’s disease

149
Q

What is the only vaccination that might be given at birth?

A

BCG (only if RFs present)

150
Q

What vaccinations are offered at 2 months?

A

6-1
Oral rotavirus
Men B

151
Q

Which vaccines are included in the ‘6-1 vaccine’?

A

Diphtheria
Tetanus
Whooping cough
Polio
Hib
Hepatitis B

152
Q

What vaccinations are offered at 3 months?

A

6-1
Oral rotavirus
PCV

153
Q

What vaccines are offered at 4 months?

A

6-1
Men B

154
Q

What vaccines are offered at 1 year?

A

Hib/Men C
MMR
PCV
Men B

155
Q

What vaccines are offered at 3-4 years?

A

4-in-1 pre-school booster (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, and polio

MMR

156
Q

What vaccine is offered at 12-13 years?

A

HPV

157
Q

What vaccines are offered in teenage years?

A

3-in-1 teenage booster (tetanus, diphtheria, polio)
Men ACWY

158
Q

What kind of vaccine is the rotavirus vaccine?

A

Oral, live attenuated vaccine

159
Q

What is the genetic basis of Fragile X syndrome?

A

X-linked dominant trinucleotide repeat disorder

160
Q

What is the most common cardiac complication of Fragile X-syndrome?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

161
Q

How are females affected by Fragile X syndrome?

A

Features in females (who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome) range from normal to mild

162
Q

When is transient hypoglycaemia common?

A

First hours after birth

163
Q

What do small testes in precocious puberty suggest?

A

Adrenal pathology

164
Q

What oral sign is associated with Measles?

A

Koplik spots

165
Q

Which babies are screened for DDH?

How is this done?

A

All breech babies at or after 36 weeks gestation (regardless of delivery)

6 weeks

166
Q

How might a female develop an XLR condition?

A

They only have 1 X chromosome, as in Turner’s syndrome

167
Q

What complication of Kawasaki disease should be screened for?

How?

A

Coronary artery aneurysms

Echocardiogram

168
Q

What is the most common cause of worsening neurological function in a premature infant?

A

Intraventricular haemorrhage

169
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

minimal change disease

170
Q

In severe cases of eczema in children, what treatment option should you consider?

A

PO ciclosporin

171
Q

What are the 2 contraindications to LP in meningitis?

A

^ICP
Meningococcal septicaemia

172
Q

What is the Abx regime in meningitis?

A

<3 - IV Cefotaxime + Amoxicillin

> 3 - IV Cefotaxime

173
Q

What is the most common congenital infection in the UK?

A

CMV

174
Q

Name two named signs of NEC on AXR

A

Rigler sign - air both inside and outside of the bowel wall

Football sign - air outlining the falciform ligament

175
Q

Why should you never preform a throat examination on a patient with croup?

A

There is a risk of airway obstruction

176
Q

What would you use to treat threadworms?

A

PO Mebendazole

177
Q

Where might a 10 month old develop atopic eczema?

A

Face and trunk

178
Q

How long should a child with Scarlet fever take off school?

A

24 hours after commencing Abx

179
Q

How long should a child with Whooping cough take off school?

A

2 days after commencing Abx (or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no Abx)

180
Q

How long should a child with Measles take off school?

A

4 days from onset of rash

181
Q

How long should a child with Rubella take off school?

A

5 days from onset of rash

182
Q

How long should a child with Chickenpox take off school?

A

Until all lesions have crusted over

183
Q

How long should a child with Mumps take off school?

A

5 days from onset of swollen glands

184
Q

How long should a child with D+V take off school?

A

Until symptoms have settled for 48 hours

185
Q

How long should a child with Impetigo take off school?

A

Until lesions are crusted and healed, or 48 hours after commencing Abx

186
Q

How long should a child with Scabies take off school?

A

Until treated

187
Q

How long should a child with Influenza take off school?

A

until recovered

188
Q

How long does it take for a neonatal umbilical hernia to resolve spontaneously?

A

1-3 years

189
Q

What is the most common cause of omphalitis

A

Staph aureus

190
Q

What are the 2 main complications of omphalitis?

A

Portal pyaemia
Portal vein thrombosis

191
Q

How might you manage umbilical granuloma?

A

Chemical cautery
Topical silver nitrate

192
Q

How does biliary atresia present?

A

Cholestasis in the first few weeks of life

193
Q

How is biliary atresia managed?

A

Surgery
Abx coverage
Bile acid enhancers postoperatively

194
Q

What might occur 5-10 years after a measles infection?

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

195
Q

How should a child on methylphenidate be monitored?

A

Weight and height every 6 months

196
Q

What is the definition of neonatal death?

A

Babies dying between 0-28 days of birth

197
Q

What is the most common ocular malignancy found in children?

A

Retinoblastoma

198
Q

How is retinoblastoma inherited?

A

AD

199
Q

What is the most common presenting symptoms of retinoblastoma?

A

Leukocoria

200
Q

What would a CXR show in TTN?

A

Hyperinflation
Fluid in the horizontal fissure

201
Q

What is TTN?

A

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn

202
Q

What is the most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in newborns?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

203
Q

What is the most common complication of roseola infantum?

A

Febrile convulsions

204
Q

Name 2 causes of pulmonary hypoplasia

A

Oligohydramnios
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

205
Q

William’s syndrome is associated with what cardiovascular anomaly?

A

Supravalvular aortic stenosis

206
Q

How might you differentiate meconium ileus and Hirschprung’s disease on AXR?

A

MI - no fluid level

207
Q

What other disease may someone with meconium ileus have?

A

Cystic fibrosis

208
Q
A
209
Q

What are the management options for Meconium Ileus?

A

PR contrast
NG N-acetyl cysteine

Surgery

210
Q

What changes are observed in Ebstein’s anomaly?

What 3 other things is it associated with?

A

Low insertion of the tricuspid valve resulting in a large atrium and small ventricle (atrialisation)

Associated with PFO, ASD, and WPW syndrome

211
Q

What other congenital defect occurs in 10% of those with hypospadias?

A

Cryptorchidism

212
Q

Which haematological disorder is associated with hydrops fetalis?

A

Alpha thalassaemia

213
Q

What is the triad of shaken baby syndrome?

A

Retinal haemorrhages
Subdural haematoma
Encephalopathy

214
Q
A
215
Q
A
216
Q
A
217
Q
A
218
Q

What is another name for surfactant deficient lung disease?

A

Respiratory distress syndrome

218
Q
A
218
Q

Which chronic infections are associated with increased morbidity and mortality in CF?

A

Pseudomonas
Bulkholderia

218
Q

What might you see on CXR in surfactant deficient lung disease?

A

Ground glass appearance
Indistinct heart border

219
Q

What type of murmur might you hear in Turner’s syndrome?

Why?

A

Ejection systolic murmur

Bicuspid aortic valve

220
Q

What endocrine condition is associated with T21?

A

Hypothyroidism

221
Q

What is the most appropriate assessment tool for septic arthritis in children?

A

Kocher score

222
Q

What does the Barlow manoeuvre aim to do?

A

Attempts to dislocate an articulated femoral head

223
Q

What does the Ortolani maneouvre aim to do?

A

Attempts to relocate a dislocated femoral head

224
Q

What is the consequence of anticipation in trinucleotide repeat disorders?

A

Earlier onset in successive generations

225
Q

Why should patients with chicken pox avoid using NSAIDs?

A

risk of Necrotising Fasciitis

226
Q

Name 2 innocent murmurs heard in children

A

Venous hum
Still’s murmur

227
Q

What causes venous hum and how is it heard?

A

Due to the turbulent flow in the great veins returning to the heart

Heard as a continuous blowing noise heard just below the clavicles

228
Q

What does Still’s murmur sound like?

A

Low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge

229
Q

How long should be left between MMR vaccines to maximise response rate?

A

3 months

230
Q

Which childhood syndrome is associated with upper airway obstruction? Why?

A

Pierre-Robin syndrome

Posterior displacement of the tongue

231
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Tay Sachs disease?

A

AR

232
Q

What test is used to screen new-borns for hearing problems?

A

Otoacoustic emission test

233
Q

What is the investigation of choice in pyloric stenosis

A

US Abdomen

234
Q

What is the management of pyloric stenosis?

A

Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

235
Q

What is the functional effect of slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A

Loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion

236
Q

What is the immediate management in cases of neonatal hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy?

A

Therapeutic cooling

237
Q

How is acute epiglottitis diagnosed?

A

Direct visualisation of inflamed tissue by a senior anaesthetist

238
Q

Are innocent murmurs typically systolic or diastolic?

A

Systolic

239
Q
A
240
Q

How do you treat household contacts of head lice?

A

You don’t providing they’re asymptomatic

241
Q

How should umbilical hernia be managed in infants?

A

They usually self-resolve, but if large or symptomatic perform elective repair at 2-3 years of age. If small and asymptomatic perform elective repair at 4-5 years of age

242
Q
A
243
Q

Which genetic condition is associated with neonatal hypotonia?

A

Prader-Willi syndrome

244
Q
A
245
Q

Name 4 baby causes of neonatal hypotonia

A

Neonatal sepsis
Werdnig-Hoffman disease
Hypothyroidism
Prader-Willi syndrome

246
Q

Name 2 maternal causes of neonatal hypotonia

A

Drugs e.g. benzodiazepines
Myasthenia gravis

247
Q

What is Werdnig Hoffman disease?

A

Spinal muscular atrophy type 1

248
Q

Where might you find Epstein’s pearls?

A

Hard palate

249
Q

What is the most important treatment for prevention of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Maternal dexamethasone administration

250
Q

What are the 2 main features of Still’s disease?

A

Systemic onset juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Salmon pink rash

Medicine (21 decks)

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