Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine > Dermatology > Flashcards

Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first line agent for acute urticaria?

A

Loratidine (non-sedating antihistamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 3 non-sedating antihistamines

A

Loratidine
Fexofenadine
Cetirizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which 2 agents are used in the management of malignant melanoma?

A

Nivolumab
Ipilimumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the MOA of Nivolumab?

A

anti-PD-1 mAb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the MOA of Ipilimumab?

A

anti-CTLA-4 mAb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Imiquimod used to treat?

A

Genital warts
BCC
Molluscum Contagiosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is 5-fluorouracil used for?

A

Genital warts
Bowen’s disease (SCC)
Actinic keratoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name 4 steroids used to treat eczema in order of increasing potency

A

Hydrocortisone, Eumovate, Betnovate, Dermovate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Brimonidine used for?

A

Reduces flushing in Acne Rosacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Ivermectin used for?

A

Scabies
Moderate/severe Acne Rosacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What 2 agents are used in the management of non-bullous impetigo?

A

1st line - hydroge peroxide
2nd line - fusidic acid

If widespread then consider oral flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What two agents are used to treat lice?

A

Malathion
Dimeticone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How would you manage TEN?

A

Stop precipitating factor
IV Ig
Co-Amoxiclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is eczema herpeticum managed?

A

aciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How would you manage bullous pemphigoid?

A

Oral corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How would you manage dermatitis herpeticum?

A

gluten-free diet
Dapsone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What risk is there with Dapsone?

A

May cause methaemoglobinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How would you manage acute flares of hydradenitis suppurativa?

A

Steroids
oral Abx (lymecycline or clindamycin and rifampicin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is lichen planus managed?

A

potent topical steroids
Oral benzydamine mouthwash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How would you manage lichen sclerosus?

A

Topical steroids and emolients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How would you manage periorofacial dermatitis?

A

DO NOT OFFER STEROIDS (may worsen symptoms)

Offer topical / oral Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How would you manage pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How would you manage psoriasis?

A

Calcipotriol + daily corticosteroid

may be combined in Dovobet or Enstilar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why is a vitamin D analogue given with corticosteroids?

A

It counters epidermal dysregulation, inhibiting epidermal hyperprolieration and inducing keratinocyte differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How long of a break should you give psoriasis patients on topical corticosteroids

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How would you manage pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

Oral steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How would you manage infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

baby oil / veg oil / olive oil

if not then white petroleum jelly

if not then topical anti-fungal for 4 weeks (clotrimaole, miconazole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How would you manage hirsutism?

A

COCP
Don’t use Co-cyprindiol in the long term because of VTE risk

Facial? -> topical eflornithine (contraindicated in pregnancy and breast-feeding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Name 3 drugs causes hypertrichosis

A

minoxidil
ciclosporin
diazoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the first line agent for chickenpox?

A

Aciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How might you treat itching symptoms in chickenpox?

A

Calamine lotion
Chlorphenamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How would you manage Erythasma?

A

Topical miconazole or antibacterial

If extensive then oral erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do you treat fungal nail infections?

A

Asymptomatic -> no treatment

Limited - topical amorolfine
More + dermatophyte - oral terbinafine
More + candida - oral itraconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is headlice managed?

A

Dimeticone lotion, leave on for 8 hours

repeat 7 days later to kill any lice which have hatched since treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How is Mycosis fungoides managed?

A

Psoralen and UV A (PUVA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How would you managed Pityriasis versicolor?

A

Ketoconazole shampoo

If that fails then oral itraconazole

37
Q

What are the 2 first line antivirals for shingles?

A

oral famciclovir or valacyclovir

38
Q

How is Acne Vulgaris managed?

A

MIld/moderate - Benzoyl Peroxidase, Clindamycin

Moderate/severe - Benzoyl Peroxidase, Adapalene/Doxycycline/Lyemecycline

39
Q

What is the first line agent for managing mild/ moderate Acne Rosacea?

A

Topical metronidazole

40
Q

How is erythema multiforme managed?

A

None required, althuogh if it is secondary to an infective cause then treat that

Herpes simplex - aciclovir

Mycoplasma - doxycycline

41
Q

How do you manage Hyperhidrosis?

A

Topical aluminium chloride

42
Q

How would you manage keloid scars?

A

Intra-lesional steroids e.g. triamcinolone

43
Q

How would you managed Pellagra?

A

Niacin (vitamin B3) supplements

44
Q

How would you manage polymorphic eruption of pregnancy?

A

emolients

45
Q

How would you manage pemphigoid gestationis

A

Oral corticosteroids

46
Q

How would you managed venous ulcers?

A

Compression bandaging
Oral pentoxifylline (peripheral vasodilator)

47
Q

How would you manage a verruca?

A

Topical salicylic acid daily for up to 12 weeks

48
Q

Describe the 4 causes of erythroderma

A

Psoriasis
Eczema
Drug reactions
Cutaneous lymphoma

49
Q

How do you treat both cellulitis and erysipelas?

A

PO flucloxacillin

50
Q

Give another name for Bullous Impetigo

A

SSSS
Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome

51
Q

Name 2 conditions which present with a + Nikolsky sign

How would you differentiate them?

A

SSSS - infants (<5) and occaisionally immunocompromised adults

TEN is the other one

52
Q

How would you investigate Erythema Nodosum?

A

Serum ACE (sarcoidosis), sputum cultures, CXR

53
Q

What feature is pathognomonic of pityriasis rosea?

A

herald patch

54
Q

What do you offer a patient with athlete’s foot if initial topical treatment fails?

A

Oral antifungal treatment

e.g. PO terbinafine

55
Q

What is the 1st line option for Keratoacanthoma?

A

Surgical excision

56
Q

What causes lacy white lines?

A

lichen planus

57
Q

What auto Ab is associated with dermatomyositis?

A

Anti-Jo1 Abs

58
Q

What are the SEs of ciclosporin?

A

5H’s

Hypertrophy of gums
Hypertrichosis
HTN
Hyperkalaemia
Hyperglycaemia (DM)

59
Q

What should be monitored before and during terbinaine treatment for dermatophyte nail infection?

Why?

A

Liver function

Oral antifungals can cause jaundice, cholestasis, and hepatitis

60
Q

Whic skin condition is most associated with TB?

A

Erythema nodosum

61
Q

Which part of the skin is affected by pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid?

A

PemphiguS - superficial (epidermis)

PemphigoiD - deep (BM)

62
Q

What kind of drugs are common causes of lichenoid eruption?

A

antiHTN

63
Q

Which area of the body is typically affected by lichen sclerosus?

A

Genitalia

64
Q

What would you give someone to manage their pruritis on a background of PBC or PSC?

A

Cholestyramine

65
Q

What is the typical presentation of measles?

A

Prodromal illness
Maculopapular rash coavering the whole body which eventually becomes blotchy

66
Q

How would you differentiate erysipelas and cellulitis?

A

Erysipelas lesions are more well demarcated and often occur on the face

67
Q

Which classification system is used to describe cellulitis?

A

Eron classification

1 - no systemic toxicity

2 - systemic toxicity

3 - significant upset

4 - sepsis / life threatening infection like nec fasc

68
Q

How does class of cellulitis impact treatment?

A

1 - oral flucloxacillin

2 - choose between 1 and 3/4

3-4 - IV Abx + Admit

69
Q

What GI disorder is associated with dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Coeliac disease

You might want to perform an endoscopy and small bowel biopsy to see if they have coeliac if they aren’t already diagnosed

70
Q

How might you differentiate erythema nodosum and multiforme?

A

Nodosum - diffuse, painful bruise like lesions

Multiforme - targetoid, burning / pain, oral lesions

71
Q

Which infection is most closely associated with lichen planus?

A

Hep C

72
Q

What sort of WBC is involved in allergic contact dermatitis?

A

T lymphocytes

73
Q

What is Leser-Trélat sign?

A

Sudden eruption of many seborrhoeic keratoses

Paraneoplastic process, most commonly associated with gastric or colorectal adenocarcinoma

74
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of the rash seen in scarlet fever?

A

sandpaper

75
Q

When would you perform a sentinel node biopsy in malignant melanoma?

A

Breslow thickness >2mm

76
Q

Name 2 dermatological findings in dermatomyositis

A

Gottron’s papules
Heliotrope rash

77
Q

What is the causative pathogen in pityriasis versicolor?

A

Malassezia furfur

78
Q

What neoplasm are patients with NF1 at risk of?

A

Optic glioma

79
Q

How long does molluscum contagiosum take to resolve?

A

18 months

80
Q

How might you manage acne vulgaris in pregnancy?

A

Try topical benzoyl peroxidase

2nd line - oral erythromycin

81
Q

Why is doxycyline contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

Tetracyclines affect skeletal development and cause tooth discolouration

82
Q

Name 2 common complications of seborrhoeic dermatitis

A

Otitis externa
Blepharitis

83
Q

When should you commence fluid resuscitation in burns patients?

A

Adults - 2nd / 3rd degree >15% body

Kids - any burn >10%

84
Q

What type of cancer is most likely to develop over an old scar?

A

SCC

(Marjolin’s ulcer)

85
Q

Describe two methods of assessing burns spread

A

Lund and Broder chart

Rule of 9s

86
Q

What might cause haematemesis after burns?

A

Curling ulcer

87
Q

Which cancers are most associated with acanthosis nigricans?

A

GI cancers

88
Q

What is the Parkland formula for?

A

Calculatig the IV fluid required for resuscitation over the 1st 24 hours after a burn

Medicine (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions