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Surgical Tech 200 > Otorhinolaryngic surgery test on 9/30 > Flashcards

Otorhinolaryngic surgery test on 9/30 Flashcards

1
Q

Acous/p

A

hearing

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2
Q

audi/o

A

hearing

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3
Q

aur/o

A

ear

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4
Q

auricle/o

A

auricle

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5
Q

cochle/o

A

cochlea

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6
Q

mastoid/o

A

mastoid

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7
Q

myring/o

A

tympanic membrane
eardrum

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8
Q

ossicul/o

A

ossicle

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9
Q

ot/o

A

ear

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10
Q

staped/o

A

stapes

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11
Q

tympan/o

A

tympanic membrane

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12
Q

-cusis

A

hearing

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13
Q

-otia

A

ear condition

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14
Q

laryng/o

A

larynx

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15
Q

nas/o

A

nasal

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16
Q

ot/o

A

ear

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17
Q

parathyroid/o

A

parathyroid

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18
Q

pharyng/o

A

pharnyx

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19
Q

phren/o

A

mind
brain
phrenic nerve

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20
Q

rhin/o

A

nose

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21
Q

thyr/o

A

thyroid

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22
Q

Thyroid/o

A

thyroid

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23
Q

What structures are in the outer ear? where does it stop?

A

tragus
auricle
stops at tympanic membrane

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24
Q

What structures are in the middle ear?

A

eustachian tube
mastoid sinus
ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes)
oval window
round window

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25
Q

What structures are in the internal ear?

A

semicircular canals
cochlea- organ of corti
labryinth

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26
Q

What is the vestibulocochlear nerve? and what # nerve?

A

balance and hearing
# 8

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27
Q

What are the ways of physiology of hearing?

A

bone conduction
fluid conduction
nerve conduction
sound wave reception

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28
Q

What is the physiology of balance/equilibrium?

A

semicircular canals and vestibule (endolymph-fluid)
vestibular nerve

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29
Q

What structures are in the nose?

A

nares
nasal cavity (choanae)
nasal conchae (turbinate’s)

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30
Q

What is the purpose of sinuses?

A

make the head lighter?

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31
Q

What 3 areas make up the pharynx?

A

nose to esophagus
nasopharynx
oropharynx
laryngopharynx

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32
Q

What is the primary function of a thyroid gland?

A

iodine metabolism
normal growth and metabolism

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33
Q

How many lobes does the thyroid gland have?

A

2 connected by the isthmus near base of neck (anterior only)

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34
Q

Where are the parathyroid glands located? How many are there?

A

on posterior side of the thyroid gland
4 glands

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35
Q

What is the function of the parathyroid glands? What does it release?

A

regulation and maintenance of blood calcium concentration
releases parathormone for metabolism of calcium

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36
Q

Where does the blood supply to the thyroid/parathyroid glands come from?

A

inferior and superior thyroid arteries

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37
Q

When removing thyroid/ parathyroid, what should you never do?

A

through anything away
can be reattached

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38
Q

What is otitis externa?

A

“Swimmers ear”
infection or abscess to ear canal

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39
Q

What is otitis media?

A

inflammation/infection of the middle ear
caused by blockage or accumulation of fluid in eustachian tube- drain into nasopharynx

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40
Q

What is otosclerosis?

A

bony overgrowth on stapes

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41
Q

What is mastoiditis?

A

complication of acute otitis media (pain and purulent discharge)

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42
Q

If mastoiditis is untreated what can occur?

A

meningitis or encephalitis

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43
Q

What is deafness?

A

reduction in hearing

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44
Q

What are 7 types of deafness??

A

conduction deafness
central deafness
mixed-type deafness
functional deafness
congenital deafness
neonatal deafness
sensorineural deafness

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45
Q

Explain what conduction deafness is. Caused by? Is it permanent?

A

interference in soundwaves from external ear to middle ear
disease, infection, or trauma
possibly restored

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46
Q

Explain what central deafness is.

A

involves the cerebral cortex- brain

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47
Q

Explain what mixed-type deafness is.

A

involves conduction and the nervous system

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48
Q

Explain what functional deafness is.

A

psychogenic in nature

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49
Q

Explain what congenital deafness is.

A

present at time of birth
hereditary

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50
Q

Explain what neonatal deafness is.

A

occurs at birth
prematurity, trauma, Rh incompatibility

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51
Q

Explain what sensorineural deafness is.

A

“nerve deafness”
defect in cochlear or cochlear division of the nerve

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52
Q

What is Meniere’s disease?

A

disorder of the membranous labyrinth
dilation of the endolymphatic space

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53
Q

What structures can Meniere’s disease affect?

A

cochlea and/or vestibule

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54
Q

What can Meniere’s disease cause?

A

progressive deafness
vertigo

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55
Q

What is tinnitus?

A

“ringing of the ear”
possibly from damage to inner ear

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56
Q

What can cause tinnitus?

A

noise exposure
hearing loss
medications
earwax
ear infection
head and neck injuries

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57
Q

What can cause a ruptured tympanic membrane?

A

external trauma (q-tip)
pressure from middle ear

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58
Q

What are signs and symptoms of a ruptured tympanic mambrane?

A

pain
hearing loss
drainage
dizziness/ vertigo

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59
Q

What are signs and symptoms of vertigo?

A

sensation of spinning room
loss of balance

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60
Q

What are two types of vertigo?

A

peripheral
central

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61
Q

What is peripheral vertigo?

A

issue with inner ear that controls balance

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62
Q

What is central vertigo?

A

issue in the brain

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63
Q

What is cholesteatoma?

A

benign cyst or tumor
erodes mastoid cells
can damage ossicles
nerve 7 possibly damaged

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64
Q

What is epistaxis?

A

nosebleed

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65
Q

What are common causes of epistaxis?

A

trauma
drying of nasal mucosa
over blowing
hypertension
chronic inflammation

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66
Q

What are nose polyps? When are they common?

A

mass originating in mucous membrane
allergic rhinitis

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67
Q

What is sinusitis?

A

inflammation of mucosal lining of paranasal sinuses
serious if chronic or forming pus

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68
Q

What is choanal atresia?

A

congenital failure of nasopharyngeal septum to rupture during development
(blocked because baby doesn’t need to breathe but should rupture after birth so can breathe.)

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69
Q

What are the 3 salivary glands?

A

parotid
submandibular
sublingual

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70
Q

Explain where the parotid salivary gland is. What is another name for it?

A

largest near cheek area
Stensens duct

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71
Q

Explain where the submandibular salivary glandis. What is another name for it?

A

second largest by back jaw
Wharton’s duct

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72
Q

Explain where the sublingual salivary gland is. What is another name for it?

A

below the tongue
ducts of rivinus

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73
Q

What is tonsillitis? which tonsils are they?

A

inflammation of the tonsils
palatine tonsils visible at back of mouth

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74
Q

What is adenoiditis? which tonsils are they?

A

inflammation of the adenoids
pharyngeal tonsils
visible with mirror- upwards

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75
Q

What are two types of sleep apnea?

A

obstructive
central sleep

76
Q

What is obstructive sleep apnea?

A

problem in upper respiratory tract preventing movement of air through nose and mouth

77
Q

What is central sleep apnea?

A

brain fails to signal muscles controlling respiration

78
Q

What is subglottic stenosis?

A

narrowing of airway below vocal cords above the trachea
congenital diseases

79
Q

What is laryngitis?

A

inflamed larynx
acute or chronic

80
Q

What are some issues that can occur with the thyroid gland?

A

cancer
tumor/ growth
excessive secretion of hormones

81
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of issues with the thyroid gland?

A

can feel a mass
difficulty breathing
loss of voice
swollen lymph nodes
tiredness, loss of appetite, weight loss

82
Q

What is a goiter?

A

enlargement of the thyroid
irregular cellular growth

83
Q

What is hyperthyroidism?

A

the thyroid speeds up the bodys metabolism

84
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A

weight loss
hand tremors
rapid/ irregular heartbeat
protrusion of eyeballs

85
Q

What causes hyperthyroidism?

A

graves disease-autoimmune disorder
thyroid nodules
thyroiditis
too much iodine

86
Q

What is hypothyroidism??

A

underactive thyroid
lead to high cholesterol and heart problems

87
Q

What are signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A

tiredness
dry skin
weight gain
muscle pain

88
Q

What causes hypothyroidism?

A

Hashimoto’s disease- autoimmune
thyroid surgery
radiation therapy
thyroiditis

89
Q

What is hyperparathyroidism?

A

PTH increases levels of calcium in the bloodstream
affects nerve and muscle function and bone health

90
Q

What are signs and symptoms of hyperparathyroidism? What can it lead to?

A

tiredness/ weakness
weak bones
kidney stones
convulsions or death

91
Q

What is hypoparathyroidism? What can it lead to?

A

low calcium in the blood stream
increased phosphorous levels
can lead to tetany

92
Q

What are 6 diagnostic studies for the ear?

A

initial assessment
audiometry
otoscope
ct scan
tympanogram
electronystagmogram (ENG)

93
Q

What is used in the initial assessment for an ear appointment?

A

tuning fork
called weber/ rhine

94
Q

What is an audiometry test?

A

machine emits tones at different tones
determines damage to conduction system
determines hearing aid

95
Q

What is an otoscope test?

A

instrument to view outer ear

96
Q

What is a tympanogram test?

A

probe placed against tympanic membrane to measure vibrations of the ear drum

97
Q

What is an electronystagmogram test? What is needed to perform this test?

A

(ENG)
tests balance of inner ear
cool then warm H2O in ear canal
stimulates eye movement

98
Q

What are the 4 diagnostic studies for the nose?

A

direct visualization
indirect visualization
radiography
angiography

99
Q

What is done in a direct study of the nose?

A

directly look at
headlight used
nasal speculum

100
Q

What is used in an indirect visualization study of the nose? What can be seen?

A

mirror
nasopharynx and posterior cavity

101
Q

What can be seen in an indirect visualization study of the nose?

A

posterior nares
turbinates
posterior vomer bone
outlet of maxillary sinus

102
Q

What radiography tests are done for the nose? and why?

A

x-ray for fractures and occlusions
Walters, Caldwell, lateral, and submental- sinus cavities
ct scan for bony and soft tissues

103
Q

What direction is the head when taking the Walters, caldwell, lateral, and submental xrays of the nose?

A

walters- head up 45 degrees
caldwell- head down 15-20 degrees
lateral- straight ahead
submento- xray taken from uner the chin

104
Q

What 8 diagnostic studies are done on the throat?

A

direct visualization
indirect visualization
laboratory tests
radiological tests
MRI
videostroboscopy
polysomnography
multiple sleep latency test (MSLT)

105
Q

What can be seen in an indirect visualization of the throat?

A

nasopharynx and laryngopharynx with a mirror

106
Q

What laboratory tests are done on the throat studies?

A

culture and sensitivity
blood count

107
Q

What radiological exams are done for throat studies? Why?

A

xrays- pathology of larynx and trachea
ct scan- comparison of structures

108
Q

Why is an MRI test done for a throat study?

A

view of soft tissue structures

109
Q

Why is a videostroboscopy done for a throat study?

A

analysis of Endo laryngeal tissue during speech
movement of vocal cords

110
Q

Why is a polysomnography study done for a throat test?

A

diagnose and determine severity of sleep apnea

111
Q

Why is a multiple sleep latency test done for a throat study?

A

MSLT
measure time to fall asleep
avg time 10-20 min
less then 5 equals a disorder

112
Q

What 3 positions are used in otorhinolaryngic surgeries?

A

supine-recumbent
might use a shoulder roll
semi-fowlers

113
Q

What kind or surgical prep is used on the face?

A

Betadine
5% above the neck (blue bottle)
10% on the neck
or 50/50 saline and betadine

114
Q

Are these surgeries considered sterile or clean procedures?

A

clean so not always draped
dr preference

115
Q

What incisions are used?

A

median/ horizontal
post auricular
recurrent laryngeal nerve

116
Q

What is a Caldwell-luc incision?

A

in oral mucouse membrane (in the gums)

117
Q

What is an acoustic neurectomy? What kind of incision?

A

removal of tumor from schwann cells
near cochlear or vestibular nerve
post auricle incision through mastoid bone

118
Q

What is a bone anchored hearing aid?

A

BaHa
implant behind ear directly into mastoid bone

119
Q

What is a BaHa used to treat?

A

conductive or mixed hearing loss
single sided deafness
hearing loss from ear infections, Meniere’s disease, or neuroma

120
Q

What is a cochlear implant? treatment of what?

A

prosthetic to replace cochlear portion of ear
sensorineural deafness

121
Q

What structure of the ear must work in order to have a cochlear implant?

A

Organ of corti

122
Q

What is a mastoidectomy?

A

removal of diseased mastoid bone

123
Q

What is a mastoidectomy a treatment for?

A

mastoiditis
cholesteatoma

124
Q

What nerve must be protected when doing a mastoidectomy?

A

cranial nerve 7 (facial nerve)

125
Q

What are 3 types of mastoidectomies?

A

simple
modified radical
radical

126
Q

What is a simple mastoidectomy? what incision is used?

A

removal of mastoid process air cells
postauricular incision

127
Q

What is a modified radical mastoidectomy procedure?

A

removal of:
mastoid air cells
posterior & superior walls of external ear canal
will provide drainage from mastoid to canal

128
Q

What is a radical mastoidectomy procedure?

A

removal of:
mastoid air cells
tympanic membrane
malleus
incus

129
Q

What is usually preserved in a radical mastoidectomy? what is it covered with?

A

the stapes and facial nerve
temporalis fascia graft

130
Q

What is an ossicular chain reconstruction?

A

placement of a prosthesis of one of the ossicles

131
Q

What is a stapedectomy?

A

prosthesis of the stapes
total or partial

132
Q

What can be used for a prosthesis for a stapedectomy?

A

vein graft
polyethylene tubing

133
Q

What is a myringotomy?

A

incision into tympanic membrane to release fluid in middle ear

134
Q

What does a myringotomy treat?

A

otitis media

135
Q

How many types of procedures are there for myringoplasty/ tympanoplasty?

A

5
called type 1 to 5

136
Q

What is damaged in a type 1 myringoplasty/ tympanoplasty? What is used as the graft?

A

damage limited to tympanic membrane
middle ear intact
soft tissue (auricle fascia) graft

137
Q

What is damaged in a type 2 myringoplasty/ tympanoplasty? What is used as the graft?

A

damage includes malleus
remove part or all of malleus
tympanic graft directly against malleus or incus

138
Q

What is damaged in a type 3 myringoplasty/ tympanoplasty? What is used as the graft?

A

malleus and incus damaged
replacement tympanum against stapes

139
Q

What is damaged in a type 4 myringoplasty/ tympanoplasty? What is used as the graft?

A

all ossicle affected
graft sets on stapes footplate
reconstruct ossicle chain

140
Q

What is damaged in a type 5 myringoplasty/ tympanoplasty? What is used as the graft?

A

all ossicles affected
stapes footplate fixed
tympanic graft seals middle ear and protects oval window

141
Q

What is a FESS?

A

functional endoscopic sinus surgery
direct visualization of paranasal sinuses and walls
intranasal or external incisional approach
balloon sinuplasty

142
Q

What is a FESS for?

A

polyps
remove diseased mucosa
remove tissue obstruction
restore drainage

143
Q

What is a submucosa resection?

A

incision of mucosa membrane
perichondrium or periosteum lifted
structures under mucosa removed to help breathe normal

144
Q

What is a polypectomy?

A

removal of nasal polyp
common in allergic rhinitis

145
Q

What is the Caldwell-Luc incision? Why?

A

type of antrostomy
incision above teeth line
removed disease portions, evacuate sinus contents, drainage through nose

146
Q

What is a septoplasty?

A

repair of septum abormality

147
Q

What are two types of septoplasties?

A

septal perforation
deviated septum

148
Q

Explain what a septal perforation is.

A

caused by:
cancer, chemical exposure, drug use
whistling noise

149
Q

Explain what a deviated nasal septum is?

A

septum is to one side
aging or trauma

150
Q

What is a turbinectomy?

A

removal of turbinate’s
(usually inferior turbinate)

151
Q

What does a turbinectomy treat?

A

chronic nasal congestion
deviated septum
snoring
chronic rhinitis

152
Q

What is a valve reconstruction?

A

reshape and strengthens structural support of the nostrils

153
Q

What does a valve reconstruction treat?

A

nasal valve collapse

154
Q

What are the three types of valve reconstruction.

A

batten graft
spreader graft
rim graft

155
Q

What is an internal maxillary artery ligation?

A

performed to control persistent nasal hemorrhage
reduces blood to the posterior portion of nose

156
Q

What is an esophagoscopy?

A

examination of the esophagus with an EGD

157
Q

What is a laryngoscopy?

A

visual of larynx
by esophagoscopy or bronchoscopy
obtain specimen for dx purpose

158
Q

What is a laryngectomy? What does the procedure treat?

A

removal of larynx
cancer and severe damage

159
Q

What are the 3 types of laryngectomies?

A

supraglottic
hemi
total

160
Q

What is the supraglottic laryngectomy? What type of incision is used? What will the patients voice be like after?

A

removal of:
epiglottis
false vocal cords
hyoid bone
horizontal incision
normal voice

161
Q

What is the hemi laryngectomy? What type of incision is used? What will the patients voice be like after?

A

removal of:
1 true vocal cord
1 false vocal cord
arytenoid
half thyroid cartilage
vertical incision
hoarse voice

162
Q

What is the total laryngectomy? What will the patients voice be like after?

A

removal of:
entire larynx
epiglottis
true and false vocal cords
hyoid bone
cricoid cartilage
upper tracheal rings
loses voice- uses a stoma for breath

163
Q

What is a glossectomy procedure?

A

partial or total removal of the tongue
possibly floor of the mouth

164
Q

What does a glossectomy procedure treat?

A

oral cancer

165
Q

What is a mandibulectomy procedure?

A

partial or total removal of lower jaw
possibly floor of mouth and tongue

166
Q

What does a mandibulectomy procedure treat?

A

oral cancer extending into mandible

167
Q

What is used for the reconstruction of a mandibulectomy?

A

composite graft
fibula

168
Q

What is a parathyroidectomy procedure?

A

excision of the parathyroid glands

169
Q

How many parathyroid glands can be removed/excised? Why?

A

3.5
avoid hypoparathyroidism and tetany

170
Q

What is a parotidectomy procedure?

A

subtotal or total removal of parotid glands & tumors/lesions
majority of benign tumors

171
Q

What is a complication of a parotidectomy procedure?

A

facial nerve paralysis
use nerve stimulator

172
Q

What happens in a radical neck dissection procedure?

A

removal of
cervical lymph nodes
jugular vein
SCM sternocleidomastoid

173
Q

What is a thyroidectomy procedure? What does it treat?

A

removal of thyroid
malignancy

174
Q

What is a substernal or intrathoracic thyroidectomy procedure?

A

excision of enlarged goiter
may cause esophageal or tracheal compression

175
Q

What are tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy procedures? What retractor is used?

A

removal of tonsils and adenoids
hurd retractor

176
Q

Why are the tonsils and adenoids removed?

A

treat chronic tonsillitis or sleep apnea

177
Q

What are tracheotomy and tracheostomy procedures?

A

insertion of device to provide patent airway

178
Q

What is a uvulopalatopharyngoplasty procedure? What does it treat?

A

UPPP
resection of redundant tissue, tonsils, soft palate, and/or adenoids
corrects obstructive sleep apnea and snoring

179
Q

What type of vasoconstrictors are used in ENT cases?

A

afrin
cocaine
epinephrine

180
Q

When is nitrous oxide NOT used?

A

middle ear surgery- causes pressure

181
Q

What is a coblator?

A

controlled ablation
low temp radiofrequency and electrically conductive saline to remove tissue

182
Q

What laser is used in middle ear procedures?

A

argon
vaporizes/ cuts tissue
welds tissue
used in middle ear surgery

183
Q

On what structure is a bur used? What is it for?

A

ear
remove small amounts of bone
spins

184
Q

What blade is most often used in oropharyngeal surgery?

A

12 blade

185
Q

Are ENT cases clean or sterile procedures?

A

mostly clean

Surgical Tech 200 (11 decks)

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