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MFDS > Orthodontics > Flashcards

Orthodontics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the eruption sequence of deciduous teeth?

A

A>B>D>C>E

Lowers before uppers except lateral incisors

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2
Q

From date of eruption how long does it take for primary tooth to complete apexogenesis?

A

1.5yrs

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3
Q

When does eruption start and end for primary dentition?

A

Eruption Begins at 3months and completed at 2.5yrs

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4
Q

What is the eruption sequence for permanent dentition?

A

Uppers;
6>1>2>4>5>3>7>8
Lowers:
6>1>2>3>4>5>7>8

Lowers before uppers except 5s

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5
Q

What are the dates for permanent eruption?

A

6yrs: lower and upper 6; lower 1
7yrs: lower 2, upper 1
8yrs: upper 2
9yrs: lower 3
10yrs: lower and upper 4, upper and lower 5
11yrs: upper 3
12yrs: lower and upper 7

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6
Q

From date of eruption how long does it take for permanent root tooth to complete apexogenesis?

A

3yrs

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7
Q

What is anthropoid space?

A

Mesial to maxillary primary canines and distal to mandibular canines

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8
Q

What is leeway space?

A

Primary canines and molars are larger than succeeding canine and premolars,
Greater in lower arch 2-2.5mm than upper arch 1-1.5mm

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9
Q

Describe class II div 1

A

Lower incisor edge lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors with an increased overjet.
Upper incisors are proclined or of average inclination

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10
Q

Management of class II div 1 cases?

A

Accept

Attempt growth modification
- headgear: restrain growth of maxilla

Functional appliances:

  • twin block, medium opening activator and Herbert appliance that eliminate or guide forces to correct occlusion
  • restrain maxillary growth and encourage mandibular growth
  • must be used during growth and pubertal growth spurt 10-12yrs of age
URA:
- limited use only for mild class 2 overjet

Fixed appliances
- before, during and after surgery

Orthognathic surgery
- when growth is complete and with every skeletal A/P discrepancy or vertical direction

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11
Q

Describe class II div 2

A

Lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper central incisors.
Upper incisors are retroclined and overjet is minimal or may be increased.

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12
Q

What is the management options for class 2 div 2 cases?

A

Accept

Growth modification
- used in growing patients with moderate skeletal 2 pattern using twin blocks and upper sectional fixed appliances

Camouflage
- accept underlying and make class 1 incisor relationship

Orthognathic surgery
- only in severe cases

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13
Q

Describe class 3 malocclusion

A

Lower incisor edges occlude anterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper centrals. overjet is reduced or reversed.

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14
Q

What are the management options for class 3 cases

A

Accept

Intercept early with URA
- for incisor relationship and anterior crossbite

Growth modification
- functional appliances (reverse twin block/frankel III)l chin cup head gear with RME to reduce or redirect mandibular growth and encourage maxillary growth

Camouflage
- accept underlying skeletal and correct incisors

Combined orthognathic and orthodontic fixed appliances

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15
Q

What is the definition and prevalence of MIH?

A

Hypomineralisation of systemic origin of 1-4 permanent molars, frequently with affected incisors
Hypomineralisation is the disturbance of enamel formation resulting in reduced enamel content.

Prevalence:

  • 10-20% population affected
  • 14.5% of 7yr olds
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16
Q

When is the most suitable time to extract poor prognosis 1st permanent molars?

A

Ages 8-10yrs with radiographic evidence of early calcification of 2nd molar root formation

17
Q

What is the management options for incisors affected by MIH?

A
  • acid pumice microabrasion
  • external bleaching
  • localised composite placement
  • crowns once gingival margin is stabilised after growth
18
Q

When should you consider balancing extractions?

A

Balance primary canines to prevent centre line shift

Balance lower 1st primary molars if arch is crowded

19
Q

What is the prevalence of midline diastema?

A

98% 6yr olds\
49% 11yr olds
7% 12-18yr olds

10% are due to supernumeraries

20
Q

What causes midline diastema?

A 
Generalised space
Hypodontia
Midline supernumerary
Proclined uppers
Prominent frenulum 
Cysts
21
Q

What percentage of ectopic eruption of 6s self correct by 7yrs of age?

A

66% self correct within 6 months

22
Q

What are the most important cephalometric measurements?.

A 
SNA 81
SNB 79
ANB 3
Upper incisors to maxillary plane 108 
Lower incisors to mandibular plane 92
Inter incisal angle 133
MMPA 27
23
Q

What is the ANB values for the skeletal patterns?

A

Class 1 = 2-4
Class 2 = >4
Class 2 = <2

24
Q

What is the IOTN?

A

Occlusal index that assesses the malocclusion and categories the need for orthodontic treatment based on a dental health component using MOCDO and an aesthetic component using coloured pictures representing most and least attractive dentition.

25
Q

What malocclusion is always an IOTN 5?

A

Ectopic canines

26
Q

Following early loss of a deciduous molar, which arch has more space lost?

A

Space loss usually greater in maxilla than mandible as 1st permanent maxillary molars are often dismally inclined and top forwards readily.

27
Q

On a URA to push an upper central incisor over the bite. What baseplate modification is needed?

A

Posterior bite capping

28
Q

In the management of an increased overjet, functional appliances cause what movement?

A

Retroclination of upper incisors

Restrain maxillary growth and encourage mandibular growth

29
Q

What are the dental signs from persistent digit sucking habit?

A

AOB
Proclined upper incisors
Retroclined lower incisors

30
Q

What is the main consequence of an impacted upper 1st permanent molar?

A

May cause premature loss of upper second deciduous molar.

31
Q

At birth the crown of which permanent tooth has started to calcify?

A

Upper 1st molar

32
Q

What would be a suitable active component on a URA to push an upper central incisor over the Bite?

A

A z spring in 0.5mm HSSW

MFDS (37 decks)

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