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CRJ900 Mesa CL-65 Study - August 2019 Study Guide M > Oral Prep - gouge > Flashcards

Oral Prep - gouge Flashcards

1
Q

Weight and Balance with weigh shift

A

Be able to do weight and balance with
fuel, weights off release for a specified date (summer/winter)
Round Up to nearest 100# for baggage weight
Remember to take off 250lbs for taxi weight

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2
Q

Required Landing Distance Calculation

A 
Be able to do a landing distance calculation with 
Both reservers
1 reverser (1 = none)
0 reversers
Low visibility (3/4sm / 4000 RVR)
Different runway conditions
Flaps in different positions
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3
Q

Main Passenger Door limits

A

4 people
1000 lbs
non-plug type door

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4
Q

How many pitot-static inputs are there to the airplane?

A

3 Pitot inputs and 3 Static inputs:
Captain’s side: P1/S1 and S2
FO side: P2/S1 and S2
Stand-bys: P3 / S3

(S1 and S2 are interconnected)

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5
Q

Where do the pitot static inputs go to?

A

P1 and S1: ADC 1
P2 and S2: ADC 2
P3 / S3: Direct to Integrated Standby Instrument (Raw Data) and cabin pressurization system

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6
Q

Which probes are ALWAYS heated on the ground?

A

L/R Pitot Probe tip (Only heated at 1/2 power)
Stby Pitot Probe
AOA

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7
Q

Which probes are heated in flight if the probe switches are off?

A

All the probes are automatically heated in flight regardless of switch position

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8
Q

Which probes are NEVER heated on the ground?

A
  • L/R pitot probe base

- TAT probe

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9
Q

Which probes are heated on the ground only with the probes switches selected on?

A

L/R AOA vane
STBY static ports
pitot probes are heated halfway, bases are not

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10
Q

What does TRU stand for

A

Transformer Rectifier Unit

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11
Q

What does a TRU do

A

Converts AC Power to DC power 115v AC -> 28v DC (120 amps)

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12
Q

What are the main and APU battery rated at

A

Main 24v 17Amps

APU 24v 43Amps

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13
Q

Can the Crew escape hatch be opened from the outside

A

Yes

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14
Q

What are you looking for to make sure the crew escape hatch is closed properly

A

2 green alignment pins

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15
Q

Nose wheel, what are things to look for on the walk around

A

Looking to make sure 2 pins are removed. Those are the nose wheel pin and the ADG pin.
Chalks do they need to be there or not?
Condition of the nose wheel components

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16
Q

What are the nose wheel steering limits with the rudder and tiller

A

8 degrees with the rudder and 80 degrees with the tiller

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17
Q

What is the maximum tire speed for the crj 900

A

195 kts ground speed

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18
Q

What is the nose wheel accumulator used for

A

Nose wheel steering and it acts like a shimmy damper

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19
Q

VHF antenna locations.

A

1 Top front, #2 Bottom, #3 Top further aft than the #1

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20
Q

Maximum pressure fuel for CRJ 900

A

Max Total 19,594 lbs
Wings Max Each 7,492 lbs
Center Max 4,610 lbs

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21
Q

What are the fuel quantities for gravity refueling

A

Gravity Total Max 14,810 lbs

Wings Gravity Max Each 7,405 lbs

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22
Q

If the center tank has more than 500 lbs of fuel

A

Each main tank must have more than 4400 lbs

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23
Q

Thrust with APR

A

14,750 lbs

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24
Q

Thrust without APR

A

13,560 lbs

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25
Q

What are the slats and flaps positioned at when the flaps are set to 1 degree

A

Slats 20 Flaps 0

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26
Q

What are the slats and flaps positioned at when the flaps are set to 8 degrees

A

Slats 20 Flaps 8

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27
Q

What are the slats and flaps positioned at when the flaps are set to 20 degrees

A

Slats 25 Flaps 20

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28
Q

What are the slats and flaps positioned at when the flaps are set to 30 degrees

A

Slats 25 Flaps 30

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29
Q

What are the slats and flaps positioned at when the flaps are set to 45 degrees

A

Slats 25 Flaps 45

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30
Q

What is located in the HYD 3 compartment other than HYD 3

A

2 Cargo Fire Bottles. One fast discharge and one slow discharge (60 minutes)

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31
Q

What uses information from the T2 probe

A

FADEC

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32
Q

Overhead panel: Available light, what’s that mean?

A

Correct Voltage, Phase, and Frequency. 115 VAC, 3 Phase, 400Hz, 40 Kva

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33
Q

What does 3 Phase mean

A

Common method of alternating current (AC) generation, transmission, and distribution. 3x alternating currents of same frequency. The delay between frequencies has effect of giving constant power transfer. High demand aircraft system use all three phases for more power than single phase can provide.

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34
Q

AC ESS XFER Light

A

AC ESS bus is not being powered by AC bus 1

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35
Q

What powers AC bus 2 normally

A

Generator 2

36
Q

What is the IDG

A

Integrated Drive Generator - Converts variable engine speed (n2) into a constant 12,000 RPM. (115VVAC, 3 Phase, 400Hz, 40Kva)

37
Q

What causes an IDG fault light

A

High oil temp and or low oil pressure

38
Q

Why would the GCU take a generator offline

A

It’s not producing the correct voltage or frequency. The associated bus may have a fault on it causing an over current. When the GCU takes a generator offline it will inhibit the auto transfer functionality to that bus to protect the other generator.

39
Q

What happens when you push the Fire Eng switch light

A

FUEL, HYD, and BLEED SOV’s shut. Disconnects the Generator, and arms the Squibs (FHBGS)

40
Q

What happens when you push HYD SOV guarded switch

A

Isolates the engine driven pump from the reservoir system.

41
Q

Does the CRJ transfer fuel automatically

A

Yes, it starts when there is a 200 lbs difference, and then evens out the tanks plus 50 lbs

42
Q

Max fuel imbalance in flight and takeoff

A

Inflight 800 lbs

Takeoff 300 lbs

43
Q

What are the different ways to transfer fuel

A

Automatic, Manual, and Gravity

44
Q

Starter Limits for Engine Start

A

1st and 2nd attempt
90 sec ON – 10 sec. OFF

3rd thru 5th attempt
90 sec ON – 5 min. OFF

45
Q

Starter Limits for APU Start

A

3 Attempts in 1 hour with 2 minutes between each attempt.
Max altitude for start is 37,000ft
99% plus 2 seconds AVAIL light comes on.
Max EGT 806 and
106% RPM max

46
Q

What do you do if you have engine damage or a fire inflight?

A

Fly the airplane
Refer to EPC
Then do the QRH procedure

47
Q

Flying in icing conditions what would you do

A

Turn on Wing and Cowl Anti-ice. If there was an issue I’d refer to the icing tab of the QRH

48
Q

If Hydraulics system #3 fails and you pull the emergency gear handle what hydraulic systems assists with it

A

Hydraulic system number 2

49
Q

Are Thrust Reversers Hydraulic

A

Yes

50
Q

What happens if you get an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment in flight?

A

FADEC controls and automatically closes thrust reverser and brings the RPM to idle. The FADEC does not stow that reverser for you.

51
Q

What happens when you press EMG Depress

A

It depressurizes the airplane down to 14,500ft +/- 500ft or aircraft altitude whichever is lower, Oxygen mask deploy at cabin altitude at or above 14,000ft

52
Q

When does the pack fault come on

A

When the PACK overheats or over pressurizes.

The Pack can be turned off automatically or manually

53
Q

When do Passenger O2 masks deploy

A

Push Pass Oxy button, or cabin pressure over 14,000ft

54
Q

Where is Radio Tuning Unit (RTU) #2

A

Co-pilots side

55
Q

How many Radio Tuning Unit’s (RTU’s) do you have

A

3 Captain, First Officer, and backup

56
Q

What is the primary Radio Tuning Unit (RTU)

A

Captains

57
Q

Where do you turn on the transponder

A

Center Pedestal, next to backup Radio Tuning Unit (RTU)

58
Q

What happens if you lose AC Bus 1 and 2

A

ADG Deploys. ADG is capable of providing 15Kva of power at 115VAC 400Hz

59
Q

What does the ADG power

A

ADG BUS and AC ESS BUS

FlASH (Memory aid) 
Flaps/Slats 
ADG and AC Essential BUS 
STAB trim Channel 2 (Ch2) 
Hydraulic Pump 3B
60
Q

What is the Stab Trim Range

A

15 Degrees total from +2 degrees to -13 degrees

61
Q

Length of CRJ 900

A

118’ 11” (I remember 11811)

62
Q

Oxygen blowout pressure

A

2800 PSi

63
Q

When do we need a Take Off Alternate

A

A takeoff alternate is required and must be specified if the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums for that airport (FAR 121.617, 121.625)
You cannot use a CAT II approach for minimums

64
Q

When is a destination alternate required

A

Under FAR 121 domestic rules, a destination alternate must be specified in the dispatch release for one hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that the ceiling will be less than 2,000 feet above the airport or the visibility is less than three miles. (FAR 121.619, 121.197)

1-2-3 Rule
1 hr before/after
2000 ft or less
3 miles visibility or less

65
Q

How is the emergency lighting system powered

A

It has 5 batteries that are 6v rated at 10 minutes of power

66
Q

What is the normal position for the GEN switches

A

Auto

67
Q

What do you do when you first arrive at the aircraft

A

External Safety Inspection and Cockpit safety instpection

68
Q

Jammed Aileron, what do you do, and what lights come on

A

If you experience a jammed aileron, you should pull the ROLL Disconnect handle. On the side is able to operate the aileron you should push the ROLL SEL switch light, if not pressed within 20 seconds both the ROLL SEL lights will illuminate.

69
Q

Fire Warning Test, what is a good test

A

11 lights, Fire SYS ok message

70
Q

What are the two ways to close the HYD SOV

A

press the HYD SOV Switch light and Fire Push switch light

71
Q

What lights must be on when we cross a runway

A

All of them

72
Q

What does the RAM Air switch do and when do we use it

A

It opens the RAM AIR SOV (Shut Off Valve)
Provides ram air to the right side of mixing manifold
Mixing manifold supplied ram air to cabin and cokcpit
Ram Air Valve is only used for an unpressurized flight
Maximum of 15,000ft
We only use it when directed by the QHR

73
Q

What supplies air for pneumatics

A

6th and 10th stage bleed air

74
Q

When would you use CONT IGN before takeoff

A

Contaminated runway

75
Q

When is that Cowl anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations

A

OAT ≤ 10°C in visible moisture (fog with visibility 1 sm or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals)OAT ≤ 10°C on contaminated ramps, taxiways or runways

76
Q

When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during flight

A

TAT ≤ 10°C in visible moisture (such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals)(except when SAT is ≤ -40°C),or when ICE is annunciated

77
Q

When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations

A

OAT ≤ 5°C in visible moisture (fog with visibility 1sm or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals),OAT ≤ 5°C on contaminated runways.If Type II, Type III or Type IV deicing fluid has been applied, select wing anti-ice ON just prior to thrust increase for takeoff.

78
Q

When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during flight operations

A

TAT ≤ 10° C in visible moisture(such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals)with airspeed < 230 KIAS except when SAT is ≤ -40° C, or when ICE is annunciated

79
Q

Are there any lighting limitations during taxi

A

Yes, the Taxi light should be turned off if there is no movement for more than 10 minutes

80
Q

When do you turn on windshield heat

A

Always when under 30c. If above 30c we turn it on just prior to take off

81
Q

When do you use COND AIR in the AFT cargo bay

A

Can be used always, but REQUIRED when LIVE Cargo is in the aft cargo bay.

82
Q

What is the minimum oxygen for dispatch

A

CFM, Chapter 4 (Cockpit Safety Inspection)

83
Q

What makes pressure vary

A

air density and/or temperature

84
Q

When will you get a low oxy message, and can we take off with a low oxy message

A

1410 lbs, yes if oxygen meets requirements in CFM Chapter 4

85
Q

What is the crosswind limit

A

OLD 22 knots for takeoff and landing (Rev 16)
15 knots on a slippery runway

CFM Rev 18
35 Takeoff
32 Landing
15 for wet runway 
non-limiting
86
Q

What are the fuel temperature limits and where do we read those limits from?

A

Bulk > -40c Right Wing for flight
Bulk > -30c Right Wing for Takeoff
Engine > 5c

87
Q

What conditions would cause a takeoff configuration warning?

A

PASSFAR

Parking brake ON
Autopilot ON
Spoilers Extended
Stab Trim out of green range
Flaps not 8 or 20
Aileron Trim out of green range
Rudder Trim out of green range

CRJ900 Mesa CL-65 Study - August 2019 Study Guide M (34 decks)

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