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CRJ900 Mesa CL-65 Study - August 2019 Study Guide M > Oral Prep > Flashcards

Oral Prep Flashcards

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1
Q

Is there a speed limit for ADG deployment?

A

Yes,

  1. Vmo (335 Kts)
  2. Mmo (0.85 Mach)
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2
Q

What is on the accessory gearbox?

A

FISH Oil +

Fuel pump (engine driven high pressure)
Integrated drive generators
Starter (air turbine)
Hydraulic pumps (engine driven) - EDP’s
Oil Pump

FADEC Alternator (+)

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3
Q

When does APR automatically arm?

A

When N1 RPM of both engines are within 8% of takeoff power, (normal or reduced)

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4
Q

What type of takeoff thrust setting is automatically calculated by FADEC?

A

Normal Takeoff thrust

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5
Q

What conditions are you looking for to move the thrust lever to idle position after engine start?

A

N2 greater than 20% AND ITT is 120 degrees or less

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6
Q

What doors are NOT on the Synoptics page?

A
  1. AFT equipment bay
  2. Crew Escape Hatch
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7
Q

How much core air thrust is produced by the CF34-8C5 (CRJ 900) engine?

A

20%

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8
Q

How much bypass air thrust is produced by the CF34-8C5 (CRJ 900) engine?

A

80%

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9
Q

How much engine thrust is produced by APR?

A

14,750 lbs

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10
Q

When will FADEC automatically increase thrust to the operating engine?

A

When an engine fails and N1 mismatch of 15% or more is detected

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11
Q

When is continuous ignition required?

A
  1. Takeoffs/Landings on contaminated runways
  2. Flight through moderate or heavy rain
  3. Flight through moderate or greater turbulence
  4. Flight in vicinity of thunderstorms
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12
Q

When does the air turbine starter disengage on the starter system?

A

N2 reaches 50% OR the STOP Switch light is pressed

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13
Q

When do we want to introduce fuel on an engine start (moving the thrust lever to idle position)?

A
  1. N2 is 20% or greater
  2. ITT is less than 120 degrees C

If NOT followed (HOT START will occur and FADEC will not allow engine to start)

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14
Q

FADEC will automatically abort a start for…

A

Hot AND Hung Start

L(R) START ABORT (caution message will be displayed)

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15
Q

Where is the Oil Replenishment Tank located?

A

AFT Equipment Bay

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16
Q

What stage of compression is bleed air extracted from?

A

6th and 10th stage

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17
Q

What are the thrust lever Detents?

A
  1. Climb
  2. TOGA
  3. Max Power
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18
Q

What hydraulic system powers the left thrust reverser? Right thrust reverser?

A

Left thrust reverser powered by hydraulic system # 1

Right thrust reverser powered by hydraulic system # 2

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19
Q

Where is the APU located?

A

Located in the aircraft tail cone

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20
Q

What causes the APU to automatically shutdown on the ground?

A

HOTLOP

High Oil Temperature and Loss of Oil Pressure

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21
Q

In FLIGHT, what happens when there is a loss of oil pressure or high oil temperature in the APU?

A

Caution Message will appear on EICAS display but APU will continue to operate

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22
Q

Where does the APU receive fuel from?

A

Left collector tank via the APU fuel pump

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23
Q

What voltage on the batteries are we looking for prior to starting the APU?

A

Minimum of 22 volts on main battery and APU battery

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24
Q

Why do we need a minimum voltage on the main battery and APU battery prior to starting the APU?

A

Main battery powers the ECU, APU battery provides power to crank the starter

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25
Q

When we press PWR/FUEL switch light for the APU, what are we looking for on the EICAS display?

A

Look for “DIGS”

  1. DOOR OPEN
  2. IN BITE status message
  3. GAUGES (RPM and EGT) are displayed
  4. SOV OPEN status message
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26
Q

When can we press the START/STOP Switch light on the APU?

A

APU IN BITE status message disappears

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27
Q

When we press the START/STOP switch light on the APU what are we checking for?

A
  1. START switch light illuminates
  2. APU START status message is displayed
  3. APU Starts
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28
Q

When does the APU START status message disappear?

A

When starter cutouts, occurs between 46-60% RPM

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29
Q

When does the APU AVAIL light illuminate?

A

99% plus 2 seconds

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30
Q

What does the APU AVAIL light mean?

A

The APU is available for electrical loading

It has the correct Voltage, Frequency, and Phase

115v, 400hz, 3 Phase

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31
Q

What is the Primary Purpose of the APU?

A

Electrical, to operate the 40 KVA generator

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32
Q

What is the Secondary purpose of the APU?

A

Bleed Air For

  1. Air Conditioning
  2. Pressurization
  3. Main Engine Starting
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33
Q

How long do you have to wait after the APU AVAIL light comes on for using the APU for bleed air?

A

Pneumatic loading will be available 99% plus 2 seconds

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34
Q

What PSI does the APU LCV (load control valve) modulates to?

A

Regulates manifold pressure of 45 PSI

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35
Q

Why is gravity refueling fuel limits less than the pressure refueling limits?

A

Because of dihedral of the wing

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36
Q

Why is the NACA scoop designed in that shape?

A

To prevent ice buildup

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37
Q

How many motive flow ejector pumps are there? What are their names?

A

8 Ejectors

  • 2 Transfer Ejectors
  • 4 Scavenge Ejectors
  • 2 Main Ejectors
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38
Q

Explain the use of the Transfer Ejectors…

A

Transfer ejectors are use to empty the center tank. This is controlled by motive flow created by main ejectors Transfer ejectors sends fuel from the center tank (when in use) to the Main Tank. They automatically are activated when the main tank drops to 94% of fuel capacity (on the respective side). The FSC (Fuel System Computer) will open the respective transfer valve, then close the respective transfer valve when the tank is full This process continues until the center tank is empty

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39
Q

Explain the use of the scavenge ejectors…

A

Scavenge ejectors takes fuel from the main tanks to the collector tanks 2 per main tank (Synoptics page only shows one) Gravity line connects the main tanks to the collector tanks to act as redundancy in case the scavenge ejectors fail

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40
Q

Explain the use of main ejectors…

A

Two main ejectors are operated by motive flow created by the the engine driven fuel pumps Main ejectors takes fuel from the collector tank and delivers fuel to the engine

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41
Q

Explain what will happen if the Engine driven fuel pump (EDP) stops working…

A

The associated engine will quit due to lack of fuel.

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42
Q

What is the purpose of the Fuel Boost pumps?

A

Acts as a back up to the main ejectors, when low pressure is detected Moves fuel from the collector tanks to engines during engine start

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43
Q

How are the fuel boost pumps powered?

A

Electricity (electric boost pumps) DC powered

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44
Q

How will the Boost Pumps turn on?

A
  1. They need to be “ARMED” (pushed in)
  2. They need to sense a lower pressure from the main ejector on that side (by the Fuel System Computer)
  3. When one boost pump turns ON they BOTH TURN ON! (If the left and right boost pump are pushed in “ARMED” and the left engine is running, but the right engine is NOT running, the right boost pump is sensing a LOW PRESSURE on that side, meaning it will TURN ON, this will make the LEFT fuel boost pump turn on as well… Being able to send fuel under low pressure to start the #2 (right) engine)
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45
Q

When will the INOP light on the Fuel Boost Pump turn on?

A
  1. Any time the fuel pump switch is not “ARMED” (pushed in)
  2. When the fuel boost pump has failed
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46
Q

What temperature the Fuel/Heat exchanger heats the fuel to?

A

5 degrees C

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47
Q

What does the ENGINE FIRE PUSH or APU FIRE PUSH switch light on glareshield do to the fuel system?

A

Stops the flow of fuel to the Engine (ENG FIRE PUSH) or stops the flow of fuel to the APU (APU FIRE PUSH) - Electrically operated Fuel Shutoff Valves (SOV) will close with the push of the respective switch lights on the glareshield

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48
Q

When does the XFLOW pump automatically activates?

A

Imbalance of 200 lbs is detected

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49
Q

When does the XFLOW pump in AUTO mode automatically shutoff?

A

When the computer senses tanks are balanced plus 50 lbs on the low side

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50
Q

Regarding the fuel system, when will you use manual cross flow?

A

When directed by the QRH, and example of when we would do this is when the AUTO XFLOW FAILS

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51
Q

Regarding fuel system, when will you use gravity cross flow?

A

When the XFLOW pump has failed - Selecting the switchlight will allow the SOV to open, and gravity to balance the tanks. - Put the plane into a side slip or “turn” to help the movement of fuel

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52
Q

What does EICAS mean?

A

Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS)

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53
Q

Master warning, what will you see and hear?

A

Red message (Required IMMEDIATE corrective action) Triple Chime will be heard Cannot be boxed Possibly an associated MASTER WARNING FLASHER (on glareshield)

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54
Q

Master caution, what will you see and hear?

A

Single chime Amber messages (Requires PROMPT corrective action) Messages can be boxed Possibly an associated MASTER CAUTION FLASHER on glareshield

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55
Q

What are advisory messages?

A

Green messages Shows safe conditions Cannot be boxed

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56
Q

What are status messages?

A

White Messages Shows certain conditions exist Can be boxed

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57
Q

What conditions will allow you to get Takeoff Configuration Warnings?

A

PASS FAR Parking Brake Autopilot Spoilers Stab Trim Flaps Aileron Trim Rudder Trim

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58
Q

When will the Flight Data Recorder start record?

A

When BEACON or STROBE light switch is selected to on

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59
Q

What screen will show advisory message?

A

ED 2

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60
Q

What happens when ED1 fails?

A

Primary page is transferred to ED 2

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61
Q

What will happen if ED 2 fails?

A

It fails, there is no automatic transformation

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62
Q

What can you do if your PFD fails?

A

Use the Display Reversionary Panel (DRP) select PFD

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63
Q

What can you do if ED 1 fails? What about ED 2?

A

Use the Source Selection Panel (SSP) and switch to ED 2 (if ED 1 fails) if ED 2 fails, select ED 1.

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64
Q

How many AC generators do we have? Name the AC generators..

A

4 AC generators 2 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG) 1 APU generator (used for backup with engines running, or used on ground with engines off) 1 ADG generator used if A/C power is lost in flight

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65
Q

How many volts does the IDGs supply to how many AC buses?

A

115 volts, supplies power to 4 AC buses

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66
Q

What are the main generators rated at? And to what altitude?

And the ADG Generator?

A

40 KVA, 41,000 feet

15 KVA

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67
Q

The IDGs convert variable engine speed to constant generator speed of:

A

12,000 RPM

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68
Q

When does the FAULT light on the IDG Switch light located on the overhead panel illuminate?

A

HOT LOP High Oil Temperature, Low Oil Pressure

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69
Q

How can the IDG be disconnected? What will happen?

A

Automatically or Manually (by pressing the IDG DISC switch light)

Once it is disconnected it only can be reset on the ground by maintenance.

It will disconnect mechanically by shearing of the IDG drive shaft when an over torque or over temp condition is detected.

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70
Q

What is the purpose of the Generator Control Unit (GCU)?

A

Provides bus priority and protection during normal and non-normal operations

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71
Q

What is the output and rating of the APU? To what altitude?

A

Output is 115 Volts AC, Rated at 40 KVA To altitude of 41,000 feet

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72
Q

What conditions must be met for the green AVAIL light to illuminate on the AC Switch light?

A

Conditions of proper: - Phase - Voltage - Frequency Have been met

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73
Q

What is the exhaust danger area in feet?

A

100 feet

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74
Q

What is the radar hazard area?

A

2 feet

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75
Q

What is the limitation regarding passenger the passenger door?

A

1,000 lbs or 4 passengers

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76
Q

Name the AC buses on the CRJ 900

A

AC BUS 1 AC BUS 2 AC ESS AC SERV

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77
Q

What is the bus priority for AC BUS 1?

A

GEN 1, APU, GEN 2, EXTERNAL

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78
Q

What is the bus priority for AC BUS 2?

A

ONSIDE, INSIDE, OFFSIDE, OUTSIDE

GEN 2, APU, GEN 1, EXTERNAL

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79
Q

What bus powers the AC ESS bus?

A

AC Bus 1

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80
Q

If AC BUS 1 fails, what bus is automatically transferred? To what bus?

A

AC ESS BUS, which is automatically transferred to AC BUS 2

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81
Q

What bus powers the AC SERV bus?

A

AC BUS 2

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82
Q

When the ADG is deployed, what does it power?

A

FlASH Flaps/Slats AC ESS BUS Stab Trim CH2 Hydraulic Pump 3B

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83
Q

What can you do to prevent an “ADG STALL”?

A

Configure aircraft no later than 140 knots

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84
Q

What airspeed will the DC Essential bus load shed with the ADG deployed?

A

Between 155-160 Knots

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85
Q

Explain the use of the Power Transfer Override switch…

A

Used when one or more normal power generation systems has been recovered, with the ADG deployed. Important to re-establish normal AC power to avoid load shed of the DC ESS bus

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86
Q

Power for 28 VDC is supplied by:

A

4 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs)

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87
Q

How many Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs) do we have on the CRJ 900?

A

4

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88
Q

What are the Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs) rated at?

A

120 amps

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89
Q

What is the purpose of the Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRUs)

A

Transforms then rectifies 115 volt AC power to 28 volt DC power

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90
Q

How many and what buses do the TRUs supply power to?

A

4, BUS 1 BUS 2 ESS BUS UTIL BUS

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91
Q

What is the main battery rated at?

A

24 Volts DC, 17 Ampere-hour

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92
Q

What is the APU battery rated at?

A

24 volts DC, 43 Ampere-hour

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93
Q

What buses does the batteries supply DC power to?

A

Main batt dir bus APU batt dir bus DC EMER bus DC batt bus

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94
Q

Fault protection for each generator is incorporated in each…

A

Generator Control Unit (GCU)

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95
Q

IDG 2 normally powers…

A

AC BUS 2 AC SERV BUS

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96
Q

Which pack controls the flight deck?

A

Left pack

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97
Q

Which pack controls the cabin?

A

Right pack

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98
Q

How many smoke detectors are there in the fwd cargo bay?

A

Three

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99
Q

How many smoke detectors in the aft cargo bay?

A

Two

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100
Q

What does CPAM do with regards to oxygen masks?

A

Automatically drops oxygen masks at 14,000 feet cabin altitude

101
Q

When does the CABIN ALT caution message come on

A

Greater than or equal to 8,500 cabin altitude

102
Q

When does the CABIN ALT warning message occur?

A

Cabin altitude greater than or equal to 10,000 feet

103
Q

Which Hydraulic pumps are running prior to pushback?

104
Q

Which hydraulic pumps are running with one engine (Left is the usual running engine) running (Taxiing)?

A

Pumps 1A, 3A

105
Q

Which hydraulic pumps are running while you are taxing and second engine is running?

A

Pumps 1A, 2A, 3A

106
Q

When taking off, which hydraulic pumps are running?

A

Pumps 1A, 1B, 2A, 2B, 3A, 3B

107
Q

We are on takeoff and we lose the right engine, which pumps are running?

A

All pumps are running besides 2A

108
Q

If the APU fuel pump fails, will it shut down?

A

No, Internal bypass valve will open and high pressure gear driven pump will still be able to draw fuel in for the APU to operate

109
Q

For an unattended APU fire on the ground, what will happen?

In flight?

A

On ground, the APU will shut down automatically (sensing a fire by the dual loop protection) and 5 seconds later, the Firex bottle will be automatically discharged with Halon.

In Flight, the APU will shut down automatically, but the crew must discharge the Fire bottle manually

110
Q

What type of thrust is automatically calculated by FADEC?

A

Normal Takeoff Thrust

111
Q

Where is the oil replenishment tank located?

A

AFT equipment bay

112
Q

Where are the thrust lever Detents located?

A

Climb TOGA Max Power

113
Q

Define a Cold Soaked Airplane…

A

First Flight of the day Aircraft is left out for more than 8 hours with temperatures of -30 degrees C or below, things must be done: Engines must be motored for 60 seconds and fan rotation verified before engine start is initiated Thrust Reversers must be actuated until the deploy and stow cycles are less than 2 seconds

114
Q

How is Hydraulic System 3 cooled?

A

Relies on natural convection and radiation to dissipate heat, Components are not in close proximity to any appreciable heat sources (engines)

115
Q

What does the rudder travel limiter (RTL) do?

A

Rudder travel is limited IN FLIGHT ONLY, prevents over stressing the vertical stabilizer

116
Q

What are the limitations of the Multifunction Spoilers (MFS’s)?

A
  1. Must not be extended in flight below 300 feet AGL 2. Must not be extended in flight at airspeed below recommended approach speed plus 10 knots
117
Q

Max altitude for slats/flaps usage?

A

15,000 feet

118
Q

What’s the limitation with the use of slats/flaps while holding?

A

In-flight holding with slats/flaps is PROHIBITED during icing conditions

119
Q

How many outflow valves do we have?

120
Q

What does the detection test (DET TEST) Switch light test?

A

Tests both ICE detection and Air Data Sensor Heat Controller (ADHSC) Systems Advisory message “ADS HEAT TEST OK”

121
Q

Explain PCU runway

A

PCU runways is sensed by a bungee breakout switch that sends a signal to the SSCU. The SSCU will automatically provides the operable side with onside MFS control

122
Q

WHAT EQUIPMENT IS REQUIRED FOR RVSM?

A

1 Autopilot (must be operational) 1 Altitude Alerting System (must be operational) 2 Altitude Reporting Transponders (one must be operational) 2 Air Data Computers (ADC’s) - Two must be operational

123
Q

How many DC tie contactors

A

Main tie Cross tie ESS tie DC ESS TRU transfer contractor Service bus contactor

124
Q

The electrical direct current (DC) system has how many buses?

A

9 DC Buses: Bus 1 (Primary TRU1) Bus 2 (Primary TRU2) Serv bus (Primary TRU2) ESS bus (Primary ESS TRU1) Util bus (Primary TRU2) Main Batt Direct bus (Primary ESS TRU 1) APU Direct bus (Primary ESS TRU 1) Batt Bus (Primary ESS TRU 2) Emergency Bus (Primary ESS TRU 2)

125
Q

The AC buses are?

A

AC Bus 1 AC Bus 2 AC ESS Bus ( essential bus) AC Serv bus (service bus)

126
Q

TRU 1 normally supplies which bus

127
Q

TRU 2 normally supplies

A

DC Bus 2 and DC UTIL Bus

128
Q

ESS TRU 1 normally supplies

A

DC ESS BUS

129
Q

The priority for allowing power to AC Bus 1 would be?

A
  1. Gen 1 2. APU 3. Gen 2 4. External AC
130
Q

Which DC Bus ties have automatic operation?

A

MAIN TIE CROSS TIE ESS TIE TRU CONTACTOR CONTROL ESS TRU TRANSFER

132
Q

Left thrust reverser is controlled by which Hydraulic system?

133
Q

Right thrust reverser is controlled by which Hydraulic system?

134
Q

Outboard brakes are controlled by which Hydraulic system?

135
Q

How many PSI are the hydraulic systems?

136
Q

When will Pumps 1B, 2B, and 3B automatically start?

A

pumps will operate when their respective buses arepowered, any generator operating and flaps out of zero

137
Q

Which pump is automatically powered by the ADG bus?

138
Q

Which pump normally operates continuously with the switch on?(No auto mode)

140
Q

Which system operates Inboard brakes?

141
Q

Which system operates Nose wheel Steering?

142
Q

Where is the service door for the HYD 3 system?

A

Right side behind the wing

143
Q

What powers the Hyd 3 system?

A

AC Electric

144
Q

Which system operates the Landing Gear?

147
Q

Which pumps are considered “Full Time Pumps?”

A

“A” pumps

148
Q

Which pumps are considered “Part Time” pumps?

A

“B” pumps

149
Q

When will low pressure caution appear on the EICAS?

150
Q

When will you get a high temperature caution on the EICAS?

151
Q

What is considered high pressure?

152
Q

When will a pressure relief valve engage?

153
Q

What is the function of these HYD SOV switches?

A

Isolates hydraulic fluid to respective EDP(Engine Driven Pump)

154
Q

How many Hydraulic System Accumulators on the CRJ?

A

Total of 5 * One for each Hydraulic system (1,2,3) * One for each brake system (2)

155
Q

What is the function of the Hydraulic Accumulators?

A

Dampens pressure surges

156
Q

What are the Hydraulic Accumulators charged with?

A

Dry Nitrogen

158
Q

Which Hydraulic System(s) get serviced from the AFT Equipment Bay?

A

Systems 1 and 2

159
Q

Does Pump 3B automatically start when the ADG is deployed?

160
Q

With the switch in the AUTO position, will pump 3B be operating during normal takeoffs and landings?

161
Q

Which ACMP is directly powered by the ADG?

162
Q

Will pumps 1B and 2B automatically turn on during an engine failure?

A

No, they must have the switches placed into the ON position

163
Q

Which Hydraulic systems are cooled with an air/oil heat exchanger?

A

Systems 1 and 2

164
Q

What is the Normal percentage of Hydraulic fluid in the system?

165
Q

Where would you normally be able to read hydraulic brake pressure?

A

Hydraulic synoptic page

166
Q

Where can the hydraulic system be viewed on EICAS under normal operating conditions?

A

The EICAS ED2 Hydraulic synoptic page

167
Q

What activates the hydraulic shutoff valve at the engine firewall?

A

HYD SOV switch, and ENGINE FIRE PUSH switch

168
Q

Which Hydraulic pumps are engine driven?

169
Q

How are hydraulic systems #1 and #2 cooled?

A

Ram air / oil heat exchanger

170
Q

System 3 is powered by how many AC motor pumps?

171
Q

During normal operations, system 1 provides hydraulic pressure to?

A
  1. Rudder and Elevator
  2. Left Aileron
  3. Outboard Multifunction spoiler panels
  4. Outboard ground spoilers
  5. Left Thrust Reverser
172
Q

During normal operations, system 2 provides hydraulic pressure to?

A
  1. Rudder and Elevator
  2. Right Aileron
  3. Inboard multifunction spoiler panels
  4. Main Landing Gear Auxiliary Actuators
  5. Landing Gear Alternate Extension
  6. Right Reverser
  7. Outboard Brakes
173
Q

With normal switch positions, which electric hydraulic pump normally operates continuously?

174
Q

System 3 provides hydraulic pressure to?

A
  1. Rudder and elevators
  2. Left and right aileron
  3. Inboard ground spoilers
  4. Landing gear
  5. Nosewheel steering
  6. Inboard brakes
175
Q

How many hydraulic systems are normally used to power the rudder?

176
Q

The CRJ has how many hydraulic pumps?

177
Q

Your at the gate with only the APU running. Which hydraulic pumps CAN operatate?

A

All the electric pumps

178
Q

You are taxiing out single engine (right engine running). Which hydraulic pumps are running in normal operations(flaps up)?

179
Q

With the No.1 engine shutdown in flight, which hydraulic pumps are not available?

180
Q

The A pumps are engine-driven, and the B pumps are electric AC motor pumps?

A

False, pump 3A is an AC electric pump

181
Q

What is considered low hydraulic pressure?

182
Q

What is considered high hydraulic pressure?

183
Q

What hydraulic system(s) power the inboard Ground Spoilers?

184
Q

What Hydraulic system(s) power the Left Aileron?

185
Q

The main aircraft generators supply power to how many AC buses?

186
Q

TRU 1 normally supplies which bus?

187
Q

TRU 2 normally supplies ?

A

DC Bus 2 and DC UTIL Bus

188
Q

ESS TRU 1 normally supplies?

A

DC ESS BUS

189
Q

The Main battery is kept in a charged condition by a charger that is powered from which bus?

190
Q

The APU battery is kept in a charged condition by a charger that is powered from which bus?

A

AC Service Bus

191
Q

The IDG provides a means of converting

A

variable engine speed to a contant generator speed of 12,000 rpm

192
Q

Fault protection for each generator is provided by?

A

Generator Control Units (GCU’s)

193
Q

The priority for allowing power to AC Bus 1 would be?

A
  1. Gen 1
  2. APU
  3. Gen 2
  4. External AC
194
Q

IDG 2(GEN 2) normally powers:

A

AC Bus 2

Service Bus

195
Q

Which DC Bus ties have automatic operation?

A

MAIN TIE
CROSS TIE
ESS TIE
TRU CONTACTOR CONTROL
ESS TRU TRANSFER

196
Q

An Amber IDG fault light / caution light indicates?

A
  • Low IDG oil pressure and / or high IDG oil temp
197
Q

An AUTO XFER fail light(amber) on the Electrical panel indicates:

A

Generator over current or a bus fault

199
Q

What happens when you switch on the DC SERVICE switch?

A
  1. With no AC power, the SERV BUS is powered directly from the APU BATT DIR BUS via the service bus contactor
  2. SERVICE CONFIGURATION message appears on DC synoptic page
  3. Service bus contactor not represented on the DC synoptic page
200
Q

What happens when you turn on the Battery Master switch?

A
  1. Connects the main battery to the battery bus through the main battery direct bus
  2. Connects the APU battery to the battery bus throught the APU battery direct bus
202
Q

How many DC buses does the CRJ have?

A
  1. 9 buses in total
  2. DC EMER BUS not shown
203
Q

What happens when TRU 1 fails?

A
  1. Main Tie contactor automatically closes
  2. TRU 2 powers DC BUS 1
  3. DC UTIL BUS is load shed(turned off)
  4. Status Messages saying TRU 1 has failed and Main Tie has closed
204
Q

What happens when TRU 1 and TRU 2 fail?

A
  1. DC MAIN TIE and CROSS TIE automatically close
  2. ESS TRU 2 powers DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 and DC SERV BUS
  3. DC UTIL BUS is unpowered
  4. Status messages saying MAIN and Cross TIE’s have closed and TRU 1, 2 failed
205
Q

What happens when ESS TRU 1 fails?

A
  1. DC ESS TIE automatically closes allowing ESS TRU 2 to power the DC ESS BUS
  2. DC ESS TIE CLSD status message displayed
208
Q

An AC ESS XFER light(white) on the Electrical panel indicates:

A

AC Bus 1 is no longer powering the AC ESSENTIAL Bus

211
Q

With the Battery Master switch left on, is there anything you should be concerned about?

A
  1. Yes, the CRT displays have a 5 minute limitation of being left on without the AC system providing power to the cooling fans
  2. You can run down the Main and APU batteries if left on too long
216
Q

Which DC Bus Tie does not have automatic operation?

A

Service Bus Contactor

It gets activated by the DC SERVICE switch on the Overhead when there is no AC power on the airplane

217
Q

What are the nine DC buses?

A
  1. DC Bus 1
  2. DC Bus 2
  3. DC ESS Bus
  4. DC SERV Bus
  5. DC UTIL Bus
  6. DC BATT Bus
  7. MAIN BATT DIR Bus
  8. APU BATT DIR Bus
  9. DC EMER Bus
218
Q

What type of hinge is on the passenger door?

A

Piano Hinge

219
Q

What type of door is the passenger door?

A

Non-Plug Type door 1 (only non plug type door)

220
Q

Explain the pins and latches for Passenger door?

A
  • Four Locking pins - Two upper Cam latches Alignment markings are inside the door (green markings) showing locking pins are secure
221
Q

What is the max weight of the passenger door?

A

1,000 lbs/4 people

222
Q

Why is there different paint on the door?

A

For emergency exit, so rescue crew can recognize it

223
Q

What kind of door is the crew escape hatch?

A

Plug type 3

224
Q

Can the crew escape hatch be opened from the outside?

225
Q

What is the line called to escape from crew hatch?

A

Escape rope

226
Q

What is the angle of attack vane used for?

A

Stall Protection

227
Q

What probes are heated on ground? And flight?

A

Ground - TAT and pitot bases - OFF - Static and AOA - ON - Pitot heads - half heat In-Flight/any switch position - All probes heated (w/ at least one generator online)

228
Q

What is the pressure for the Oxygen Blowout Disc?

229
Q

Why is there a white circle around the static port?

A

To make sure there’s no dings or dents - will affect the readings

230
Q

Explain the Ice Detector?

A

The probe vibrates at 28-30 thousand hertz frequency and when ice accumulates the frequency slows down as ice accumulates on the probe to a value. This triggers ICE caution message and ICE DET switchlight on the overhead panel. Probe will deice electrically automatically for 5 seconds during each 60 second period

231
Q

Why are the tires chine?

A

Helps spread water away from tire (reduce hydroplaning)

232
Q

What is the max tire speed?

A

195 knots ground speed

233
Q

What is the max speed for ADG?

234
Q

What are the electrical output of the ADG?

A

15 KVA, 115 Volts (AC), 400 HZ

235
Q

When does the ADG Auto deploy?

A

When AC BUS 1 and 2 lose power

236
Q

What does the ADG power?

A
  • AC Essential Bus - Hydraulic 3B pump - Flaps/Slats - STAB trim Channel 2
237
Q

What speed do you need to be configured by to prevent a ADG stall?

238
Q

What speed will the ADG load shed? What will it load shed?

A

Between 155-160 knots The DC ESS bus will load shed the ESS TRU 1 and 2 XFLOW pump Left Probe Heaters Window Heat

239
Q

What are the sources for DC power?

A

Main battery - 24 volts, 17 amps APU battery - 24 volts, 43 amps

240
Q

Warning Messages

A

Red Conditions that require immediate corrective action. Warning messages cannot be paged

241
Q

Caution Messages

A

Amber Conditions that require prompt corrective action. Caution messages can be paged

242
Q

Advisory Messages

A

Green System response or acknowledgement messages (new condition). Advisory messages cannot be paged.

243
Q

Status Messages

A

White Conditions that require time available corrective action. Status messages can be paged.

244
Q

If you get a caution messages… Aileron Trim LWD/RWD/ND/NU what do you do

A

Disengage AP Manually trim the aircraft Re-engage AP

245
Q

Is there Asymmetrical flap protection

A

Yes If flap segments differ by 5 degrees brakes are applied and flaps remain at current postion

246
Q

Gear horn cannot be muted when

A

< 185kts and thrust levers idle < 163kts and flaps > 30 degrees

247
Q

How many 115V AC Power Sources are there

A

5 Primary engine generators 1 and 2 APU 3 ADG 4 A/C Ground Power 5

248
Q

Main and APU batteries are maintained at full charge by chargers powered from

A

Main - AC Bus 1 APU - AC Service Bus

249
Q

All fire protection is powered by the ____ bus

A

DC Emergency Bus

250
Q

All fire detection is on the ____ bus

A

DC Battery Bus (Or at least battery master switch on)

251
Q

Pushing the APU FIRE PUSH switch light will

A

Close Fuel feed SOB Close APU LCV Shut down APU Shut down APU Generators Arms the Squib

252
Q

What happens in the MLG Bat overheat Test

A

Master warning flashers tripple chime Gear Bay Overheat aural MLG BAY OVHT EICAS warning

253
Q

When is wing anti-ice required to be on during flight

A

With TAT 10c or less In visible moisture with airspeed < 230kias Except when SAT is <= -40c or when ICE is annunciated

254
Q

A good ICE detector test indication is

A

ICE caution MSG ICE Switch light illuminated ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory messages

255
Q

What are the engine danger zones forward of aircraft engine and aft of engine

A

Forward Idle 7.7ft and Max Thrust 12ft After idle 100ft and Max Thrust 290ft

256
Q

Central Warning System (CWS) Warnings Cautions Advisory Status

A

Warnings - Require IMMEDIATE corrective action Cautions - Require PROMPT corrective action Advisory - Show a SAFE condition STATUS - Indicate that an ABNORMAL condition exists or that a low-priority failure has occurred.

257
Q

High Altitude Climb and Cruise (above FL330) Consult “Climb Ceiling” Charts Ensure assigned alt can be reached @ a minimum of ____ FPM climb. Sacrifice Vertical Climb to maintain ____ Mach Descend if ____ Mach can’t be maintained @ Altitude

A

Climb 500 FPM Maintain at least .74 Mach Min cruise speed .77 Mach

258
Q

Mesa Standard Operating Procedure Plan descent to arrive at ____ FT ____ Miles from Airport ____ Kias

A

10,000FT 30 Miles from Airport 250 Kias

259
Q

CANPA Rules Calculate DDA by adding ____ ft to published MDA For Missed Approach Climb @ DDA, but do not turn until ____

A

DDA = MDH + 50ft Do not turn on Missed Approach until crossing the MAP

260
Q

On all straight in approached before 1000ft above field elevation. The airplane SHALL be

A

In landing configuration Before Landing Checklist Complete On glide path w/ Proper sink rate Trimmed for Zero control forces

261
Q

IRS Initialization (if installed) time

A

7-16 minutes depending on OAT (Outside air temperature)

262
Q

Mach readout appears and disappears when and where

A

When accelerating through .45 Mach When decelerating though .4 Mach In white just above airspeed tape

263
Q

Green line on the airspeed tape indicates…

A

1.27 Vs (Stall speed) for current configuration (not accurate at high alt)

CRJ900 Mesa CL-65 Study - August 2019 Study Guide M (34 decks)

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