Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Oral Pathology > Oral Pathology Test 1 > Flashcards

Oral Pathology Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What forms the primary palate?

A

Merger of the medial nasal processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What forms the secondary palate?

A

Maxillary processes of the first branchial arches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the rule of 10’s?

A

10 weeks, 10 pounds, 10 g % HM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What form of cleft lip/palate is most common non-syndromically?

A

Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What form of cleft lip/palate is most common syndromically?

A

Cleft palate only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What three symptoms are typically present in Pierre Robin Syndrome?

A
  1. CP, 2. Mandibular micrognathia and 3. Glossoptosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What causes a lateral facial cleft?

A

Failure of the maxillary and mandibular processes to fuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What causes an oblique facial cleft?

A

Failure of fusion of the maxillary process with the lateral nasal process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes a median cleft of the upper lip?

A

Failure of the fusion of the medial nasal processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the prevalence of facial clefting in Native Americans?

A

1:250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the prevalence of facial clefting in Asians?

A

1:300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the prevalence of facial clefting in Whites?

A

1:700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the prevalence of facial clefting in African Americans?

A

1:1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What form of clefting is most common in males?

A

Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What form of clefting is most common in females?

A

Cleft palate only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is it called when the palate has a small area that fails to fuse that is covered with gingival tissue?

A

Submucous palatal cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is it called when you have “dimples” in the corners of your mouth?

A

Commissural lip pits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is it called when you have “dimples” in the middle of your lower lip?

A

Paramedian lip pits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What syndrome is associated with “dimples” in the middle of your lower lip?

A

Van der Woude syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What three things are important to remember about the syndrome that causes “dimples” in the lower lip?

A
  1. Autosomal dominant, 2. CL + CP and 3. Most common form of syndromic clefting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the three symptoms indicative of Ascher syndrome?

A
  1. Double lip, 2. Blepharochalasis and 3. Nontoxic thyroid enlargement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are sebaceous glands on the lips known as?

A

Fordyce granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What would the diagnosis be if the patient exhibits white lesions found bilaterally on the buccal mucosa that do not rub off, but disappear when the cheek is stretched?

A

Leukoedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What group is especially likely to have white lesions on the buccal mucosa that do not rub off, but disappear when the cheek is stretched?

A

African Americans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What two things are the main cause of macroglossia?

A
  1. Vascular malformations and 2. Muscular hypertrophy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What group experiences macroglossia more than any other?

A

Children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What syndrome is associated with macroglossia?

A

Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Should a bulge be present on the patient’s tongue between the middle 2/3 and the back 1/3, what is it likely?

A

Lingual Thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the two names of cracks covering the tongue?

A
  1. Fissure tongue and 2. Scrotal tongue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What two names are associated with the syndrome that is characterized by inflammation that spreads around the tongue frequently?

A
  1. Geographic tongue and 2. Erythema migrans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Coronoid hyperplasia causes the jaw to deviate which way?

A

Towards the affected side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Condylar hyperplasia causes the jaw to deviate which way?

A

Towards the unaffected side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is it called when a salivary gland gets “stuck” in the mandible?

A

Stafne defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a cyst?

A

A pathologic cavity lined by epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In the very rare case that you have a radiolucency in the maxilla, what are the two most likely culprits?

A
  1. Radicular cysts and 2. periapical granulomas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Between which two teeth would one likely find a globulomaxillary radiolucency?

A

Maxillary lateral incisor and canine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most common non-odontogenic cyst of the oral cavity?

A

Nasopalatine duct cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the well-circumscribed radiolucency measurement that marks a cyst from a normal incisive canal?

A

6 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the name given to the benign, cystic form of teratoma that is lined by epidermis-like epithelium and contains adnexal structures?

A

Dermoid cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where do dermoid cysts occur?

A

At the midline with swelling in the floor of the mouth (FOM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What presents as a white or yellow, asymptomatic, submucosal mass less than a cm in diameter?

A

Lymphoepithelial cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is Waldeyer’s ring?

A

The area from the palatine tonsils to the lingual tonsils to the pharyngeal adenoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the progressive atrophy of one side of the face called?

A

Progressive hemifacial atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What bacteria is associated with atrophy of one side of the face?

A

Borelia sp. (Lyme disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the syndrome associated with syndactyly of 2nd, 3rd, and 4th digits, mental retardation and trapezoid shape lips?

A

Apert syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the term that is synonymous with treacher-collins syndrome?

A

Mandibulofacial dysostosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What goes wrong in treacher-collins syndrome during development?

A

The first and second branchial arches have defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the term given to enamel defects formed in permanent teeth due to the periapical inflammatory disease of the overlying deciduous tooth?

A

Turner’s hypoplasia/tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What permanent tooth is particularly in danger in the case of periapical inflammatory disease present in the overlying deciduous tooth?

A

Permanent bicuspids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the two affects of congenital syphilis on teeth?

A
  1. Hutchinson’s incisors (screwdriver shaped) and 2. Mulberry molars
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What three symptoms make up Hutchinson’s Triad?

A
  1. Hutchinson’s teeth, 2. Interstital keratitis (corneal scarring) and 3. 8th nerve deafness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a prominent feature of congenital syphilis often exhibited by patients?

A

Saddle nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the term for tooth wear from tooth-tooth contact (bruxism)?

A

Attrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the term for tooth wear from aggressive tooth brushing?

A

Abrasion

55
Q

What is the term for tooth wear from dental exposure to chemicals?

A

Erosion

56
Q

What is the term for tooth wear from GERD?

A

Perimolysis

57
Q

What is the term for tooth wear from occlusal stresses that created repeated tooth flexure?

A

Abfraction

58
Q

What is it called when an individual is missing 1 or more teeth?

A

Hypodontia

59
Q

What is it called when an individual is missing 6 or more teeth?

A

Oligodontia

60
Q

What is it called when an individual has supernumerary teeth?

A

Hyperdontia

61
Q

Where is the most common site to have supernumerary teeth and what are they called?

A

Maxillary incisor region - mesiodens

62
Q

What is it called when an enlarged tooth is counted and the count is normal?

A

Gemination

63
Q

What is it called when an enlarged tooth is counted and the count is one below what it should be?

A

Fusion

64
Q

What is a bend in the root called?

A

Dilaceration

65
Q

What is the fusion of two adjacent teeth by cementum alone called?

A

Concrescence

66
Q

What is it called when a tooth tries to form inside another tooth?

A

Dens-in-dente (dens invaginatus)

67
Q

Where is the most common place to find a tooth growing within a tooth?

A

Permanent lateral incisors

68
Q

What is the name of the disease where the body and pulp chamber of the tooth is enlarged with a significant apical displacement of the pulpal floor?

A

Taurodontism

69
Q

What three syndromes are associated with apical enlargement of the pulpal floor in teeth?

A
  1. Kleinfelters Syndrome (XXY), 2. Amelogenesis imperfecta, and 3. Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome
70
Q

What are the three forms of Amelogenesis imperfecta?

A
  1. Hypoplastic, 2. Hypomaturation and 3. hypocalcified
71
Q

What is pitting and the total lack of enamel formation known as?

A

Hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta

72
Q

What is a snow-capped appearance with mottled, opaque white-brown-yellow discoloration of enamel known as?

A

Hypomaturation amelogenesis imperfecta

73
Q

What is a brown/black enamel appearance where enamel is soft and easily lost called?

A

Hypocalcified amelogenesis imperfecta

74
Q

What gene is disrupted to cause dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

DSPP gene

75
Q

How does dentinogenesis imperfecta appear on an X-ray?

A

Bulbous crowns, cervical constrictions, thin roots, early obliteration of root canals/pulp chambers and shell teeth (dramatically enlarged pulps)

76
Q

What autosomal dominant disease causes “rootless teeth”?

A

Dentin dysplasia, type I

77
Q

What autosomal dominant disease causes blue teeth with bulbous crowns, cervical constriction, thin roots and thistle tube-shaped pulp anatomy?

A

Dentin dysplasia, type II

78
Q

What is the disease that is non-hereditary, causes areas of unerupted teeth, and shows “ghost teeth” on x-rays?

A

Regional Odontodysplasia

79
Q

What four outcomes are the sequelae of periapical pathology?

A
  1. Sinus tracts, 2. Osteomyelitis, 3. Cellulitis and 4. Condensing Osteitis
80
Q

What are the four types of lesions that can be found periapically?

A
  1. Periapical granuloma, 2. Apical periodontal cyst, 3. Periapical abscess and 4. Periapical scar
81
Q

What is the most common periapical pathosis?

A

Periapical granuloma

82
Q

What tooth is the most frequently affected by the most common periapical pathosis?

A

Maxillary lateral incisor

83
Q

What causes a periapical granuloma?

A

Chronic inflammation

84
Q

What is the name of a secondary acute inflammatory change within the most common periapical pathosis?

A

Phoenix abscess

85
Q

What lesions appears periapically with variable size, punched-out border and causes an area of radiolucency around the root tips?

A

Periapical granuloma

86
Q

What is the second most common periapical lesion?

A

Apical periodontal cyst

87
Q

What becomes inflamed in a periapical cyst?

A

Rests of Malassez

88
Q

What term describes acute or chronic inflammation in bone?

A

Osteomyelitis

89
Q

When infection of mandibular teeth spreads through the sublingual, submandibular and submental spaces, what term describes the appearance of the cellulitis that occurs?

A

Ludwig’s Angina

90
Q

What disease causes “woody tongue”?

A

Sublingual Ludwig’s angina

91
Q

What disease causes “bull neck”?

A

Submandibular Ludwig’s angina

92
Q

What causes a swelling of the periorbital region and typically results from the abscess of a maxillary anterior or premolar tooth?

A

Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis

93
Q

What is the name of the hypersensitivity reaction that occurs to cinnamon oil on the gums?

A

Plasma cell gingivitis

94
Q

What is the full name that “Wright’s lesion” shortens?

A

Localized Juvenile Spongiotic Gingivitis

95
Q

What term is given to describe gingival epithelium that spontaneously sloughs or can be removed with minor manipulation?

A

Desquamative Gingivitis

96
Q

What five possibilities exist when desquamative gingivitis is present?

A
  1. Lichen Planus, 2. Mucous membrane pemphigoid, 3. Pemphigus vulgaris, 4. Systemic lupus erythematosis and 5. Hypersensitivity
97
Q

When drugs cause gingival overgrowth to occur what is this known as?

A

Drug-related gingival hyperplasia

98
Q

What three drugs cause gingival overgrowth?

A
  1. Cyclosporine, 2. Phenytoin and 3. Nifedipine
99
Q

What is the name of the inflammatory process that can occur when the crown of a third molar is partially erupted?

A

Pericornitis

100
Q

What is the syndrome that is autosomal recessive, causes accelerated periodontitis and has teeth that are “floating in air” on radiographs?

A

Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome

101
Q

What two bacteria can cause Impetigo?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes and S. aureus

102
Q

What two forms of Impetigo exist?

A
  1. Bullous and 2. Nonbullous
103
Q

Which form of Impetigo is most prevalent?

A

Nonbullous

104
Q

What causes Scarlet Fever?

A

Group A beta hemolytic Strep

105
Q

What is the causal agent of Diphtheria?

A

Cornebacterium diphtheriae

106
Q

What causes Syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

107
Q

What is seen in primary syphilis?

A

Chancre at site of inoculation

108
Q

What is strange about the ulceration for syphilis?

A

Its painless

109
Q

What is seen in secondary syphilis?

A

Diffuse, painless, widespread rash

110
Q

What is seen in tertiary syphilis?

A

Gumma

111
Q

What is the causal agent of Gonnorhoeae?

A

Neisseria gonnorhoeae

112
Q

What is the most common reportable infectious disease in the U.S.?

A

Gonnorhoeae

113
Q

What is the name of TB of the skin?

A

Lupus vulgaris

114
Q

What is the name given to a mycobacterial infection caused by drinking contaminated milk that causes enlarged cervical lymph nodes?

A

Scrofula

115
Q

What is the name of the disease where bacteria colonize the mouth and work their way to the dermis and discharge yellow, sulfur material?

A

Actinomycosis

116
Q

What bacteria causes sulfur granulation?

A

Actinomyces israelii

117
Q

What bacteria is responsible for causing cat-scratch disease?

A

Bartonella henselae

118
Q

What two forms of Candidiasis exist?

A
  1. Yeast form - innoculous and 2. Hyphal form - pathologic form
119
Q

What four types of Candidiasis are seen in patients?

A
  1. Pseudomembranous, 2. Erythematous, 3. Chronic Hyperplastic and 4. Mucocutaneous
120
Q

What form of Candidiasis is best recognized and is known as thrush?

A

Pseudomembranous

121
Q

What form of Candidiasis appears white, but cannot be removed and is the least common form of candidiasis?

A

Chronic hyperplastic

122
Q

What form of Candidiasis is linked to a rare group of immunologic disorders and has white plaques that do not rub off?

A

Mucocutaneous

123
Q

What disease is the most common systemic fungal infection in the U.S., comes from bird or bat excrement and is endemic to the Ohio and Mississippi river valleys?

A

Histoplasmosis

124
Q

What is the organism that causes Histoplasmosis?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

125
Q

What is the organism that causes Blastomycosis?

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

126
Q

What disease has symptoms similar to TB, comes from the Eastern U.S. and Canada and looks like cancer in the mouth?

A

Blastomycosis

127
Q

What is the causative agent of the disease that comes from the armadillo, is from South America and typically infects farm workers?

A

Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

128
Q

Which disease has symptoms that appears like “mickey mouse” or a “mariner’s wheel”?

A

Paracoccidioidmycosis

129
Q

What is the name of the disease that is caused by a fungal infection likely acquired in the Southwest U.S.?

A

Coccidioidomycosis (San Joaquin Valley Fever)

130
Q

Which fungus appears like a “bag of marbles”?

A

Coccidioides immitis

131
Q

What fungal disease comes from pigeon poop, mostly affects immune-compromised, and tends to target the meninges when it spreads?

A

Cryptococcosis

132
Q

What is the causative fungal agent that lives in pigeon poop?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

133
Q

What is the name of the fungal disease that comes from organisms found on decaying organic material, has enhanced growth from iron, and targets diabetics and immunocompromised patients?

A

Zygomycosis

134
Q

What fungal disease causes a mass to form, can cause allergic reactions in the sinuses, and is second most frequent in the world?

A

Aspergillosis

Oral Pathology (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions