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Oral Pathology > Oral Pathology Chapter 10 > Flashcards

Oral Pathology Chapter 10 Flashcards

1
Q

Human Papilloma Virus types 6 and 11 result in what sort of benign oral manifestation?

A

Squamous Papilloma

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2
Q

What term describes the ability of a virus to break down the human defenses and cause disease in an individual?

A

Virulence

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3
Q

What term describes the ability of a virus to horizontally transfer from individual to individual?

A

Infectivity

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4
Q

What is the name given to a wart on the tongue?

A

Verruca Vulgaris

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5
Q

What types of HPV cause warts on the tongue?

A

2, 4, 6, and 40

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6
Q

If there is a single papule or nodule that has a “cobblestone” appearance, what is the first thing you should think it might be?

A

Verruca Vulgaris

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7
Q

What is the scientific name for venereal wart?

A

Condyloma Acuminatum

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8
Q

What eight forms of HPV can cause venereal warts?

A

2, 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 53, and 54

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9
Q

What three forms of HPV that cause venereal warts are considered “high risk”?

A

16, 18 and 31

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10
Q

Which two forms of HPV risk forming into squamous cell carcinoma?

A

16 and 18 in genitourinal area

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11
Q

Should a whole score of cobblestone growths appear in the mouth, what is the most likely culprit?

A

Multifocal Epithelial Hyperplasia (Heck’s disease)

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12
Q

What is it called when a growth occurs in the nose?

A

Sinonasal Papilloma

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13
Q

What are the three forms of sinonasal papillomas that exist?

A
  1. Fungiform, 2. Inverted and 3. Cylindrical cell
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14
Q

What form of sinonasal papilloma is the most dangerous (has the greatest odds of malignancy)?

A

Inverted

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15
Q

What is the name of painless, skin-colored lesions that are typically seen in children, are sessile papules with smooth surfaces?

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

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16
Q

What type of virus causes Molluscum Contagiosum?

A

DNA poxvirus

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17
Q

What histological feature is present in Molluscum Contagiosum?

A

Henderson-Paterson bodies

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18
Q

Is Molluscum Contagiosum ever malignant?

A

No

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19
Q

What disease appears as painless, sessile lesions with roughened surfaces with lipid-laden histiocytes in the epithelium?

A

Verruciform Xanthoma

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20
Q

What is the skin condition that causes moles to appear all over the skin?

A

Seborrheic Keratosis

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21
Q

What is the name of the skin condition that Morgan Freeman has?

A

Dermatosis papulosa nigra

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22
Q

Should a sudden onset of Seborrheic keratoses occur, what is the primary concern?

A

That the patient has developed Leser-Trelat sign (sign of internal malignant cancer)

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23
Q

What is it called when the sebaceous cells in the face grow out of control?

A

Sebaceous Hyperplasia

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24
Q

What is the primary concern with sebaceous hyperplasis?

A

That it’s not a more serious facial tumor

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25
Q

What is the distinct form of sebaceous hyperplasia?

A

Umbilicated appearance

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26
Q

What is the scientific name for freckles?

A

Ephelis

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27
Q

What are the brown age spots on the hands of old people called?

A

Actinic lentigo

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28
Q

Should a group of benign cutaneous melanocytes cluster together in a child to form a mass, what is that called?

A

Lentigo Simplex

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29
Q

What is the name of the acquired, hormonally-driven hyperpigmentation of the skin of the face?

A

Melasma

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30
Q

What is the best treatment for Melasma?

A

Avoiding the sun/sunscreen

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31
Q

What is the oral counterpart to the freckle?

A

Oral melanotic macule

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32
Q

A freckle that is large and on the lips/vermilion border is known as what?

A

Labial Melanotic macule

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33
Q

Should a freckle on the lip be biopsied?

A

Probably - they look a lot like melanomas

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34
Q

What is the name of the brown bruising that occurs on the inner cheeks of African-American women and that can be caused by birth control?

A

Oral melanoacanthoma

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35
Q

What is the scientific name of the common mole?

A

Acquired melanocytic nevus

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36
Q

What are superficial, round aggregates of nevi called?

A

Theques

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37
Q

What is the name of the huge, ugly moles that sometimes cover portions of newborns?

A

Congenital Melanocytic Nevus

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38
Q

What is a common companion symptom to Congenital Melanocytic nevi?

A

Hypertrichosis (excess hair)

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39
Q

What should be done with Congenital melanocytic nevi?

A

They should be removed if at all possible (15% cancerous)

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40
Q

Should a mole be surrounded by a white ring, what is that called?

A

Halo nevus

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41
Q

What is a red mole called?

A

Spitz Nevus

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42
Q

What is a blue mole called?

A

Blue nevus

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43
Q

Where are the blue moles in the mouth found?

A

Almost always on the palate

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44
Q

What causes the blue pigmentation?

A

Tyndall effect

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45
Q

What are we worried about if we see white on the borders of the tongue?

A

Leukoplakia

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46
Q

What is a leukoplakia?

A

An intraoral white plaque that does not rub off and cannot be identified as any other well-known entity

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47
Q

What is the 2nd most common melanocytic nevus encountered in the oral cavity?

A

Blue nevi

48
Q

What are five white lesions that CAN be scraped off?

A
  1. Materia alba, 2. White-coated tongue (plaque), 3. Burn, 4. Pseudomembranous candidiasis and 5. Sloughing from toothpaste
49
Q

What percentage of precancer is comprised by a leukoplakia?

A

85%

50
Q

What is SCCA also known as?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

51
Q

What is the lesion called from smokeless tobacco?

A

Tobacco pouch keratosis

52
Q

What is the name of the herbal extract found in toothpastes and mouth rinses that can cause leukoplakia?

A

Sanguinaria

53
Q

Which two microorganisms can cause leukoplakia?

A
  1. Treponema pallidum and 2. Candida albicans
54
Q

Which virus two strains have been identified in some leukoplakias?

A

HPV 16 and 18

55
Q

What three areas are most concerning to find a leukoplakia?

A
  1. Vermilion border, 2. Lateral/ventral tongue and 3. Floor of the mouth
56
Q

What is the name of patches of red in leukoplakia where epithelial cells are so immature that they can no longer produce keratin?

A

Erythroplakia

57
Q

What is it termed when leukoplakia are white and red?

A

Erythroleukoplakia

58
Q

What type of leukoplakia has the greatest risk for cancer?

A

Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia

59
Q

Name and place the four types of leukoplakia in order of cancer risk and association from least worrisome to most worrisome:

A
  1. Leukoplakia, 2. Erythroleukoplakia, 3. Erythroplakia and 4. Proliferous leukoplakia
60
Q

What is it called when cellular alterations are limited to the lower 1/3?

A

Mild dysplasia

61
Q

What is it called when alternations are limited to the lower 1/2?

A

Moderate dysplasia

62
Q

What is it called when you have alterations above the lower 1/2?

A

Severe dysplasia

63
Q

What is it called when you have alterations throughout the entire epithelium?

A

Carcinoma in situ

64
Q

At what level should a leukoplakia be completely removed?

A

Moderate epithelial dysplasia or worse

65
Q

What is the name of a red patch that cannot be diagnosed as any other condition?

A

Erythroplakia

66
Q

When is a lesion most likely to occur in smokeless tobacco use?

A

When heavy use begins

67
Q

Betel quid or paan cause what disease?

A

Oral Submucous Fibrosis

68
Q

What is a common first time complaint from using Betel quid or paan?

A

Trismus and mucosal pain (association with spicy food)

69
Q

What oral change can occur due to smoking (largely from the heat)?

A

Nicotine Stomatitis

70
Q

What is the name of a common cutaneous premalignant lesion caused by UV radiation with scaly, irregular plaques?

A

Actinic keratosis

71
Q

What is it called when sun damage causes “farmer’s lip” in older individuals?

A

Actinic cheilosis

72
Q

What is the name of a redish mole with a scabby appearance on top?

A

Keratoacanthoma

73
Q

What disease predisposes individuals to keratoacanthomas?

A

Muir-Torre syndrome

74
Q

What is the recommended treatment for keratoacanthomas?

A

Surgical excision

75
Q

What cancer is the most dangerous in the oral cavity?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

76
Q

What four behavioral traits can lead to increased risk for SCC?

A
  1. Alcohol, 2. tobacco, 3. Phenolic agent exposure and 4. Radiation
77
Q

What two nutritional deficiencies can increase risk for SCC?

A
  1. Iron deficiency and 2. Vitamin A deficiency
78
Q

What three diseases increase risk for SCC?

A
  1. Syphilis, 2. Oncogenic viruses and 3. Immunosuppression
79
Q

What two genetic factors predispose an individual for SCC?

A

Oncogenes and Tumor suppressor gene mutations

80
Q

What five physical forms can a SCC take?

A
  1. Exophytic, 2. Endophytic, 3. Leukoplakia, 4. Erythroplakia and 5. Erythroleukoplakia
81
Q

What are the first thru fourth most common locations for SCC?

A
  1. Tongue, 2. Floor of the mouth, 3. Soft palate and 4. Gingiva
82
Q

Where are floor of the mouth SCCs most likely to be located?

A

Near the frenum, near the midline

83
Q

Should an SCC develop on the soft palate or tonsillar area, what does this likely mean for the patient?

A

That the disease has metastisized from a different location

84
Q

Where does SCC spread most commonly?

A

Ipsilateral cervical lymph nodes

85
Q

What is the system that determines a patient’s prognosis for SCC?

A

TNM system

86
Q

What does the T stand for in TNM?

A

Tumor (size)

87
Q

What does the M stand for in TNM?

A

Distant metastasis

88
Q

What does the N stand for in TNM?

A

Nodes (local lymph nodes)

89
Q

Should a value of x be given to one of the letters in TNM, what does that indicate?

A

That there was no available information about that specific thing

90
Q

Tis signifies what in the TNM system?

A

That the carcinoma is in situ

91
Q

What sizes do T1, T2 and T3 correspond to?

A

T1 = 2cm or less, T2 = 2-4 cm and T3 = more 4 cm

92
Q

What does T4a mean?

A

Tumor is resectable and does not involve major anatomy

93
Q

What does T4b mean?

A

Tumor is unresectable

94
Q

What does N1 mean?

A

Single ipsilateral node, 3cm or less

95
Q

What does N2 mean?

A

Ipsilateral or contralateral node or nodes; 6 cm or less

96
Q

What does N3 mean?

A

Any metastasis in a nod more than 6 cm

97
Q

What does M0 mean?

A

No metastasis

98
Q

What does M1 mean?

A

Metastasis

99
Q

What does a stage I TNM classification respond to?

A

T1, N0, M0

100
Q

What does a stage II TNM classification respond to?

A

T2, N0, M0

101
Q

What does a stage III TNM classification respond to?

A

T3, N0, M0 or an T, N1, M0

102
Q

What does a stage IV TNM classification represent?

A

Any M; any T4; any N3

103
Q

What does the staging of histological features indicate in SCC?

A

How similar the tumor is to its parent cells - lower grades are better.

104
Q

Which is better for diagnosing prognosis; histological features or clinical features?

A

Clinical

105
Q

What is it called when you have two separate occurrences of the same disease?

A

Synchronous

106
Q

What is it called when you get the same disease that you already had years down the road?

A

Metachronous

107
Q

Once you’ve had SCC, you have a tendency to develop multiple mucosal cancers. What is this known as?

A

Field Cancerization

108
Q

What cancer are smokeless tobacco users at particular risk for developing?

A

Verrucous carcinoma

109
Q

What cancer is particularly common in Chinese men and can cause a lump in the lateral neck?

A

Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma

110
Q

What is the most common of all cancers?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

111
Q

What term refers to superficial capillaries sometimes seen in Basal cell carcinomas?

A

Telangiectatic

112
Q

What disease is described as a malignant neoplasm of melanocytic origin?

A

Melanoma

113
Q

What is it called when Melanoma spreads horizontally?

A

Radical growth

114
Q

What is it called when Melanoma spreads deeper?

A

Vertical growth

115
Q

What do the ABCDEs of Melanoma stand for?

A

A = Asymmetry, B = Border irregularity, C = Color variation, D = Diameter greater than 6 mm and E = Evolving

116
Q

What is the acronym for the worst areas to have melanoma and what does it stand for?

A

BANS = Back, Arms, Neck and Scalp

Oral Pathology (14 decks)

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