Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Head and Neck > Opthalmology > Flashcards

Opthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

blepharoptosis (ptosis)

A

drooping or abnormal relaxation of upper eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

hypopyon

A

inflammatory cells in the anterior chamber. It is an exudate rich in WBC that settles due to gravity. It can be sterile (in case of bacterial corneal ulcer) or not sterile (in case of fungal corneal ulcer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

endopthalmitis

A

inflammation of anterior eye. Is a common complication of cataract surgery. Infectious causes are most common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

epiphora

A

overflow of tears onto face not due to crying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cycloplegia

A

paralysis of ciliary muscle resulting in loss of accomodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

accomodative exotropy

A

crossed eyes when trying to focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

keratitis sicca

A

inadequate tear production leading to corneal or conjunctival inflammation. is due to secondary sjogren syndrome and VA deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

atonic pupil

A

no damage to ciliary ganglion or short ciliary nerves. Is a responsive pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

exotropia

A

is a form of strabismus where the eyes are deviated outward. (lack of tone of medial rectus seen in neurogenic ptosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

eyelid xanthelasma

A

yellow spots due to lipid (cholesterol) deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

blepharitis

A

inflammation of eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

quinsy

A

peritonsillar abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

xeropthalmia

A

dry eye- eye doesn’t produce enough tears. Due to severe VA deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

order of operation for red eye diagnosis

A
  • inspection
  • Pain/pressure test (if pain is gone with eye drops its conjunctivitis/keratitis, if not then glaucoma/uveitis/scleritis)
  • pupil reflex
  • corneal appearance (window reflex/infiltrates)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what pathology makes the eye red and rock hard

A

glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
WIDE UNREACTIVE PUPIL (MYDRIATIC )AND RED EYE MEANS ?
NARROW PUPIL (MIOTIC)+PHOTOPHOBIA MEANS?
A

acute glaucoma attack/

UVeitis (pain goes away when you dilate the pupil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

would you give miosis inducing drops in acute glaucoma attack

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

symptoms of conjunctivitis

A 
pain
burning
itching
eyelids stuck together
redness/secretion/follicles (nodular hyperplasia in allergies)/membranes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

identify secretion types in conjunctivitis

A
  • serous/foamy means viral

- catarrhal/yellow means bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

follicles appear in what conjunctivitis

A

acute viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

list the tests and their purposes for the eye

A
  • fluorescein dye:
  • shirmer: tear production in ml (should be > 20ml)
  • break up time:see dry patches on conjunctiva. Should be >20s
  • bengala: to see conjunctival erosion
  • water into nasolacrimal duct to check patency of passage
  • GAG test
  • dacryocystography
  • lysozyme test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

dacriocystitis

A

acute inflammation of lacrimal sac due to blockage of lacrimal duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

pachymetry measures

A

measures the thickness of the cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

define refractive errors

A

when shape of eye prevents light from focusing directly on the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

in hyperopia you want to make the lens more/less steep

A

more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

LASIK is not recommened for

A

severe hyperopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

in phakic IOL the eye’s natural lens is

A

kept in the eye, we only add another lens infront/behind the iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what color is a nuclear cataract

A

yellow/brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

cataract that appears as spoke like opacities towards the centre is called

A

cortical cataract, Later becomes a white cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

morgagnian cataract

A

total liquifaction of the cortex allows nucleus to sink inferiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

intumescent cataract

A

During the immature phase of the cataract, it starts to absorb aqueous humor and becomes swollen. It can result in secondary glaucoma. NOTE THAT IT EXPLODES WHEN CUTTING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

operative complications of cataract

A

vitreous loss, posterior loss of lens fragment, suprachroidal hemorrhage (expulsive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

early post op complications of cataract

A

iris prolapse (sutures dont hold up), striate keratopathy, acute bacterial endophalmitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

late post op complications of cataract

A

capsule opacifications (secondary cataract), implant displacement, retinal detachemtns, chronic bacterial endopthalmitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

are artifical lenses flexible

A

no so they cant accomodate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

list ocular anomalies that lead to congenital cataract

A

aniridia, coloboma
micropthalmos
buphthalmos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is a round central shell like opacity surrounding a clear nucleus called

A

a lamellar cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

where is a sutural cataract

A

it is a congenital cataract where the opacity follows the shape of the Y sutur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

phimosis

A

anterior capsular phimosis is the centripetal fibrosis and contraction of the capsulorhexis after cataract extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

striate keratopathy is

A

corneal edema and folds in descemets membrane due to damage to endothelium during surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

diabetic retinopathy progression to vision loss

A

(1) retinal capillary leakage leading to macular edema
(2) retinal capillary occlusion leading to proliferative DR leading to vitreous hemorrhage/retinal detachment/neovascular glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

hard exudates are present in

A

diabetic retinopathy they are waxy yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

cotton wool spots are found in

A

diabetic retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

why is there retinal vessel occlusion in DR

A

Thickening of capillary basement membranes
Abnormal proliferation of capillary endothelium
Increased platelet adhesion
Increased blood viscosity
Defective fibrinolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what causes blindness in DR

A

diabetic macular edema

46
Q

treatment of DR causing vision loss

A

if controlling glycemia doesnt work, then use laser to stop vessel leakage, and anti-VEGF antibodies

47
Q

differentiate AMD early and late

A

early has focal drusens in between bruchs membrane and RPE.

late has drusens in subretinal space, and RPE atrophy, If even later then vessels grow in bruchs membrane

48
Q

drusen vs exudates

A

Drusen occur beneath the retina and are usually, but not always, a sign of age-related macular degeneration (breakdown of tissues in the back of the eye). Exudates typically are within, or immediately under, the retina and typically associated with problems in the retinal blood vessels. Both are fatty deposits

49
Q

metamorphopsia

A

objects appear distorted

50
Q

amsler test

A

the Amsler grid is used to check whether lines look wavy or distorted, or whether areas of the visual field are missing

51
Q

treatment of AMD

A

antioxidant tablets, or anti VEGF tablets (-mab) (NOTE YOU CANNOT REVERSE THIS CONDITION)

52
Q

which vessels does indocyanin green dye show? which does FAG show?

A

IGD: choroidal vessels
FAG: retinal vessels

53
Q

FA has hyperfluorescence characterised by leakage/pooling/staining what do these words mean

A

Leakage: Hyperfluorescence progressively enlarges with fuzzy borders. The dye permeates out of leaky, incompetent blood vessels in the setting of neovascularization, retinal vasculitis, vascular malformations, tumors, or disc edema (dye leaks from prepapillary capillaries).
Pooling: Hyperfluorescence progressively enlarges to fill the fluid cavity and then becomes fixed in size. Usually the dye fills a cavity like the subretinal space or sub-RPE space (in a PED).
Staining: Late hyperfluorescence due to accumulation of fluorescein dye. The hyperfluorescence gradually gets brighter, but the size stays the same. Usually a mild amount of fluorescence is seen, but it is never very bright. The optic disc always stains. Additionally, drusen and fibrosis will stain.

54
Q

FA hypofluorescence is

A

blocking (due to preretinal or vitreous hemorrhage) or filling defect (retinal artery occlusion)

55
Q

RF for AMD

A

mainly age >50.

white race and low antioxidant levels

56
Q

HTN retinopathy signs:

  • siegrist streaks
  • elsching sign
  • exudative detachment
A
  • linear pigmented streaks
  • focal ischemia
  • damage to RPE pump
57
Q

arterial/venous retinal vessel occlusion has worse prognosis?

A

arterial. It is comparable to stroke, somehow an embolus has entered the eye instead of going to the brain

58
Q

a cilio retinal artery is beneficial in what scenarios

A

for arterial vessel occlusion

59
Q

amblyopia

A

lazy eye

60
Q

blepharochalsis

A

loss of elasticity of the skin of the upper eyelid

61
Q

mullers muscle is

A

the inferior tarsal muscle

62
Q

proptosis

A

buldging eye

63
Q

most common ocular tumor

A

Is basal cell carcinoma

64
Q

meibomian glands produce

A

oil for tears

65
Q

ziess glands produce

A

oil for eyelashes

66
Q

moll glands

A

sweat glands

67
Q

a chalazion is a

A

meibomian gland cyst

68
Q

whats a hordeolum

A

A hordeolum (ie, stye) is a localized infection or inflammation of the eyelid margin involving hair follicles of the eyelashes (ie, external hordeolum) or meibomian glands (ie, internal hordeolum).. A hordeolum usually is painful, erythematous, and localized

69
Q

chemosis

A

swelling/edema of the conjunctiva

70
Q

sjogren syndrome is associated with

A

dry eye and chronic darcyoadenitis

71
Q

what do you need for retinal detachment?

A
  • liquid vitreous
  • tractional forces
  • retinal break
72
Q

what retinal detahment is for diabetes?

A

tractional RD, is a non rhegmatogenous RD

73
Q

treatment for RD is

A
  • scleral buckle
  • retinopexy
  • intra vitreal gas insertion
  • vitrectomy
74
Q

types of retinal tears

A 
flap/horseshoe
giant
operculated hole
dialysis
macular hole
atrophic retinal hole
75
Q

retinoschisis is

A

separation of the layers of the layer of the retina but still attached to RPE

76
Q

RF for retinal detachment

A
  • cataract surgery
  • lattice degeneration
  • pseudophakia/aphakia
77
Q

types of retinal detachment

A

rhegmatogenous
tractional
exudative

78
Q

explain anatomy of vitreous

A

the vitreous humor is encapsulated by an anterior hyaloid membrane (separating humor from lens) and a posterior hyaloid membrane (separating humor from retina). This attachement is strongest anteriorly at the ora serrata

79
Q

OCT is based on

A

interferometry which is superimposing 2 or more waves to detect the differences

80
Q

FAG dye is

A

Sodium fluorescein which is 80% bound to proteins

81
Q

list dye characteristics in FAG

A
  • autofluorescence
  • hypofluorescence (due to blockage/filling defect)
  • hyperfluorescence (staining/pooling/filling)
82
Q

name the accessory lacrimal glands

A

krause and wolfring

83
Q

discharges in corneal/conjunctival infections

A
  • watery: acute virl or acute allergic
  • mucoid: chronic allergic C or dry eye
  • mucopurulent: chlamydia/acute bacterial
  • severly purlent: Gonococcal
  • moderately purulent: acute Bacterial
84
Q

multiple small hemorrhages mean

A

viral conjunctivitis

85
Q

large diffuse hemorrhages mean

A

bacterial conjunctitivits

86
Q

signs of acute bacterial conjunctivitis

A

mucopurulent discharge, superficial corneal puncta epithelial erosions, redness, grittiness, burning

87
Q

define corneal dystrophy

A

is when material deposits in the layers of the cornea and reduces transparency and presents irregular astigmatism (high order aberration)

88
Q

deposits in corneal dystrophy can be in the periphery or in the center, what are the repercussions on corneal shape with these new depositions

A

at periphery: corneal flattening

at center: corneal steepening

89
Q

reiss bucklers CD affects what layer

A

bowmans layer

90
Q

fuch corneal dystrophy affects what layer

A

descements/endothelial membrane

91
Q

keratoconus is

A

progressive thinning of the cornea

92
Q

penetrating keratoplasty has less risk of x than lasik because y

A

x: ectasia (the expansion of a hollow or tubular organ)
Y: it doesnt involve the endothelium like lasik does

93
Q

types of corneal dystrophy

A

granular and macular CD

94
Q

therapy for ocular migraines

A
  • triptans/NSAID

- preventative: BB/triptans/antidepressants/antiepileptics

95
Q

explain the morphological classification of uveitis

A
  • anterior: of the iris. Is most common (also with sarcoidosis)
  • intermediate: of the vitreous and ciliary body
  • posterior: of the retina and choroid
  • panuveitis: of the entire uvea
96
Q

anterior vs posterior synechiae

A

anterior: iris adheres to cornea
posterior: iris adheres to lens

97
Q

aniskoria is

A

unequal pupil size

98
Q

symptoms of acute anterior uveitis?

Of chronic anterior uveitis?

A
  • photophobia/pain/watery discharge/blurry vision
  • if none of the acute symptoms are present then the first sign of uveitis you’ll see are complications like cataracts, glaucoma, and keratopathy
99
Q

signs of anterior UVeitis slit lamp

A 
Koeppe nodules (inflammatory cell precipitates which lie at the pupillary margin and could be found in non-granulomaous as well as granulomatous uveitis) Bussaca nodules (lie on the iris surface) which are pathognomonic for granulomatous uveitis. 
Keratitic percipitates (mutton)
100
Q

treatment of anterior uveitis

A

corticosteroids, cyclopleigics, mydriatics, anti rheumatoids for long term

101
Q

juvenile idiopathic artritis can cause

A

anterior uveitis in children. treat with steroids, methotrexate, adalimumab

102
Q

components of the trabecular meshwork are

A
  • uveal (innermost)
  • corneoscleral (thickest)
  • juxtacanalicular
103
Q

where does the trabecular network drain

A

schlemm canal

104
Q

aqueous humor is made by

A

the ciliary body pars plicata

105
Q

why is there optic nerve damage in glaucoma

A

1) due to pressure at lamina cribosa

2) ischemic atrophy

106
Q

congential glaucoma is due to

A

misformed angle

  • iris touching cornea
  • mesoderm is still present
  • no canal of schlemm
107
Q

acquired open angle glaucoma is due to

A

sclerosis of meshwork and lining of schlemm (THIS IS THE MOST COMMON TYPE OF GLAUCOMA)

108
Q

types of secondary glaucoma are

A
  • pigmentary
  • pseudoexfoliative sydrome
    BOTH ARE OPEN ANGLE
109
Q

Drugs given to treat glaucoma

A
  • diuretics
  • alpha 2 agonists to decrease aqueous humor production
  • BB
110
Q

phempigoid

A

autoimmune disease causing blisters on skin and mucous membranes that may be present in dye eye

Head and Neck (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions