opportunistic fungal infections Flashcards

1
Q

where is candida albicans found ?

A

found in the normal oral , gut, vaginal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the most common contaminant of sputum culture ?

A

candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when candida dissementes what can it cause ?

A

endocardiditis
candidiemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 2 unique shapes associated with candida ?

A

pseudo hyphae
and budding yeast at 20 C
germ tubes at 37 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what type of patients are more likely to suffer from disseminated candidiasis ?

A

neutropenic patients who are undergoing chemo
ICU patients
central line patients
TPN
IV drug users

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the germ tube test ?

A

to identify candida , the yeast that grows hyphae will grow out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

both hyphae and yeast on one slide ?

A

most likely looking at candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the causes of oral thrush ?

A

inhaled steroid in an asthma patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

patient that is sexually active and now has thrush ?

A

should probably think of HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the causes of candidal over growth in the eosphagus ?

A

eosphagitis usually happens in HIV patients
showing a white pseudomembrane on EGD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the presentation of vulvovaginitis ?

A

itching
discharge
cottage cheese like discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the classic patient associated with vulvovaginitis ?

A

a patient that has just taken an antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the presentation of diaper rash caused by candidia ?

A

beefy red plaques with satellite papules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when can candida cause endocarditis ?

A

an immunocompromised patient who is an IV drug user

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the treatment for each of the following :
vaginal disease / diaper rash
oral thrush
esophagitis
candidemia/endocaritis

A

vaginal disease / diaper rash : topical azole
oral thrush : nystatin swish and swallow, fluconazole
esophagitis : flucanozole
candidemia/endocaritis : capsofungin or amophecetrin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the treatment for resistant cases of esophagitis ?

A

voriconazole
capsofungin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis and what is the probelm ?

A

mutation in the AIRE gene
T cells fail to react to the candida antigen
presents as a baby with recurrent candida infection - diaper rash , recurrent thrush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the main immune defense for mucosal defense ?

A

T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the most important cells for systemic defense ?

A

neutrophils , thats why cancer patients are at a higher risk for candidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

do CMC patients get candidemia ?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the most common patient associated with aspergillus ?

A

must be immunocompromised
high dose chemo pts
stem cell trasnplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what type of infections are people with chronic granulomatous disease at a higher risk for ?

A

catalase positive organsisms

23
Q

what fungus is cigar shaped ?

A

the one that causes rose gardeners disease
sporothrix schenckii

24
Q

what are the catalase positive organisms ?

A

notoriously big bubbles HASSLE
nocardia
burkh
bordatella
h pylori
aspergillus
serratia
staph
listeria
e coli

25
Q

what are the lab and morphological features of aspergillus ?

A

catalase psoitive
monomorphic fungi
forms branching septate hyphae v shaped branches with visible septae
the tips grow spores

26
Q

what are the diseases associated with aspergillus ?

A

aspergillosis
allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
aspergilloma
hepatocellular carcinoma

27
Q

what is the classic case associated with aspergillosis ?

A

severe lung disease
neutropenic patient
fever cough \pleuritic chest pain
hemoptysis
can dissement to any organ

28
Q

what are the treatments for aspergillosis ?

A

caspofungin
amphotericin B
voriconazole

29
Q

what ABPA, and who does it affect ?

A

hypersensitivty reaction to aspergillus
happens in asthma or CF patients

30
Q

what are the findings associated with lymph tissue in patients who have ABPA ?

A

increase in Th2 CD4 cells
which then stimulated the formation of IL 4 and IL 5
which allow for the recruitment of eosinophilia
allows for IgE antibody production

31
Q

what is the classic case of ABPA ?

A

asthma of CF patients
recurrent cough
brownish mucus plugs hemoptysis
peripheral blood eosinophilia
high IgE levels

32
Q

hos is the diagnosis of ABPA made and what is the treatment ?

A

skin testing
treatment is steroids

33
Q

what is an aspergilloma and where does it grow ?

A

fungus ball
grows in pre formed cavities especially after TB infections

34
Q

what is the toxin cause by aspergillus and where is it found ?

A

aflatoxin caused by peanuts and soybeans
locally grown food

35
Q

what is the main disease associated with cryptococcus neoformans ?

A

meningitis in immunocompromised patients

36
Q

where is cryptococcus neoformans usually found ?

A

found in the soil and in pigeon droppings

37
Q

what is the structure of cryptococcus neoformans ?

A

never see hyphae
only a yeast
very thick capsule

38
Q

how is cryptococcus neoformans cultured and what is the staining used for it?

A

cultured on sabourauds agar
india ink is used and shows halos

39
Q

what test is used for the identification of cryptococus neoformans ?

A

latex agglutination test

40
Q

what is the appearance of cryptococcus neoformans once it reaches the brain ?

A

soap bubbles appearance

41
Q

what is the risk associated with LP in cryptococcal meningitis ?

A

higher risk f brain herniation due to high ICP

42
Q

what is the difference in presentation between bacterial meningitis and cryptococcal meningitis ?

A

bacterial meningitis shows symptoms almost immediatley whilst cryptococcal is indolent and happens over weeks

43
Q

what is the treatment for cryptococcal meningitis ?

A

intra thecal therapy is used and amphocetrin b along with flucytoseine

44
Q

what is the cause of mucormycosis ?

A

rhixopus sp
mucor sp

45
Q

what type of patients are at a higher risk of mucormycosis and why ?

A

DKA patients , who have a medium that is high in glucose and ketoacidosis
which is idel for the enzyme ketone reductase

46
Q

what is specific about the septae hyphae of aspergillus ?

A

acute angle branching of hyphae at 45 degrees

47
Q

DKA with severe sinusitis, fever headache and eye pain ?

A

think of mucromycosis

48
Q

how is a diagnosis of mucormycosis made ?

A

mucosal biopsy

49
Q

how do ypu differentiate between aspergillus and mucromycosis ?

A

mucromycosis - broad hyphae , with irregular branching , no septations
aspergillus - narrow hyphae , v shaped branching , many septations

50
Q

what is the classic scenario associated with PCP ?

A

diffuse interstitial ppneumonia that happens with immunocompromised ptients especially HIV patients

51
Q

what does the chest x ray show in PCP ?

A

bilateral interstitial infiltrates

52
Q

how is PCP diagnosed ?

A

sputum sample , BAL biopsy
cannot be cultured
sent for staining
silver stain used

53
Q

first line treatment for PCP ?

A

TMP SMX
dapsone
pentamidine

54
Q

what is the prophylaxis of PCP ?

A

TMP-SMX when CD4 cells are below 200 cells