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Surgery > Ophtha > Flashcards

Ophtha Flashcards

1
Q

Approx attachment of levator aponeurosus to orbicularis and skin near or at superior border of upper lid tarsus

A

Upper eyelid crease

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2
Q

Loose preseptal skin and subcu above confluence of LA and septum

A

Upper eye lid foldt

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3
Q

Excess preseptal skin

A

Dermatochalasis

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4
Q

Main protractor of eyelid

A

Orbicularis oculi

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5
Q

Pretarsal orbicularis oculi action and in

A

Involuntary blink

CN VII

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6
Q

Weakness or inability to close eyelids (lagopthalmos)

Complication:

A

Facial nerve palsy
Underactive muscle

Exposure keratopathy

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7
Q

Lower lid laxity

Outward

Inward

A

ectropion and entropion

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8
Q

Anatomic barrier bet preseptal and orbital structure

Infection on retroorbital area if breached

A

Orbital septum

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9
Q

Infection of eyelid and periorbital soft tissue

No breach of orbital septum

A

Preseptal cellulitis

Oral antibiotics

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10
Q 
Involvement posterior to septum
RAPID (optic nerve)
proptosis
Limited EOM
Chemosis
A

Orbital cellulitis

IV antibiotics, surgical drainage

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11
Q

Protective cushion

A

orbital fat

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12
Q

Ms of retraction upper lid

A

Levator palpebrae superioris
Levator aponeurosis
Superior tarsal muscle muller’s

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13
Q

Lower lid retractor

A

Capsulopalpebral fascia

Inferior tarsal muscle

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14
Q

Eye opening innervation

A

CN III

Sympathetic for superior tarsal and inferior tarsal ms

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15
Q

Dense plate of connective tissue giving structure and fibrous skeleton to eyelid

Contains Meibomian gland

A

Tarsus

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16
Q

Mucin secreting goblet cell and acessory gland of Krausse and Wolfring
Non keratizing squamous epithelium
Basal tear secretion

A

Conjunctiva

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17
Q

Eyelid margin

Ant

Post

A

Skin orbicularis

Tarsus and conjunctiva

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18
Q

Small abscess by staph au infection of lash follicle and assoc gland of Zeis or Moll

A

External hordeolum/sty

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19
Q

Chronic non infective lipo granulomatous inflamm by blockage if meibomian gland orifice and stagnation of sebaceous secretion

A

Chalazion Meibomian cyst

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20
Q

Small abscess by acute staph infection of Meibomian gland

A

Internum hordeolum

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21
Q

Arterial supply of eye

A 
opthalmic artery (supraorbital, lactimal) ICA
ECA
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22
Q

Lymph drainage of eye

A

Submandibular
Superficial preauricular
Deep cervical nodes

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23
Q

Roof of orbit

A

Frontal

Lesser wing of sphenoid

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24
Q

Lateral wall of orbit

Thickest and strongest

A

Sphenoid greater wing

Zygoma

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25
Q

Medial

A

Sphenoid
Lacrimal
Ethmoid

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26
Q

Floor of orbit

A

Maxillary
Palatine
Zygomatic

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27
Q

Suspende levator aponeurosis and part SO

A

Whitnal’s ligament

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28
Q

Orbitotomy procedure is done in

A

Lateral wall, most accesible

Frontozygomatic suture

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29
Q

Thinnest wall of the orbit

A

Medial wall

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30
Q

Thinnest bone of orbit

A

Lamina papiracea of ethmoid bone

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31
Q

Children with ethmoid sinus infection extend to orbit causing cellulitis

A

Supported by ethmoid bullae

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32
Q

Most common area of fracture in orbit

A

Posterior medial floor

No bullae unsupported roof of maxillary sinus

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33
Q

Where vessels pass medially to groove

A

Inferior orbital groove

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34
Q

Diplopia
Unable to look up
Loss of sensation of skin and cheek and gum
Trauma to eye

A

Blowout fracture

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35
Q

Where tears drain

Communicates with inferior meatus

A

Nasolacrimal canal

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36
Q

Transmits optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

Located in lesser wing of sphenoid

A

Optic canal

37
Q

Convergence of all eye rectus muscles forming ring

A

Annulus of Zinn

38
Q

Opthalmic artery gives branch to the

A

Central retinal artery

39
Q

Connection between artery and dilation of superior ophthalmic vein
AVM

A

Carotid cavernous fistula

40
Q 
Infection in nose, sinus, ears or teeth from orbital cellulitis (S. aureus and Strep)
Loss of vision
Chemosis
Exopthalmos
Headache
Paralysis of cranial nerve
Fatal
A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

41
Q

All ms originate from orbital apex except

A

Inferior oblique

42
Q

Exocrine gland secreting tears
Orbital and palpebral lobe
Inn

A

Lacrimal gland

Ophthalmic nerve V1

43
Q

Complication after bell’s
Damage to facial nerve
Efferent fibers of superior salivary nucleus become improperly connected to nerve axons of lacrimal gland
Crying with salivation

A

Crocodile tears

44
Q

2/3 of refractive media
Transmits light rays
Employs deturgescence (clearing)

A

Cornea

45
Q

Controls amount of light entering eye

Pupillary reflex

A

Iris

46
Q

Image in the retina is with respect to object,

But the mind perceives it

A

Inverted and
reversed

Upright

47
Q

Total refractive power of eye

A

59

2/3 cornea
1/3 lens

48
Q

Parasympathetic response CN III
Lens inc in curvature and dioptic power

In children: 20-34 diopters
Adult: 4-8
Elderly: 2

A

Accomodation

49
Q

Near triad

A

Accomodation
Miosis
Convergence

50
Q

Helmhotz theory of accomodation

A

Ciliary body contracts
Zonular fibers relax
Lens become spherical

51
Q

Loss of accomodation due to dec elasticity of lens

A

Presbyopia

52
Q

Near sightedness
Image in front of retina

Tx

A

Myopia

Diverging/Concave/Minus lens

53
Q

Far sighted
Image formed at back of retina

Tx

A

Hyperopia

Converging/convex/plus lens

54
Q

When cornea or lens has irregular curvature

Tx

A

Astigmatism

Tx: Cylindrical/toric

55
Q

Depth of perception determined by

A

Size of image on retina
Moving parallax
Stereopsis (3D vision/binocular vision)

56
Q

Intraocular pressure is normally

Gold standard for measurement

A

10-20 mmHg

Goldmann applanation tonometer

57
Q

Leaves the eye at a point 3mm medial to and slightly above posterior pole of the globe

Seen in direct ophtha as optic disc

A

Optic nerve

58
Q

No visual receptor over disk
Does not respond to light
15 deg lateral from optic disc

A

Blind spot

59
Q

Posterior pole

Yellowish pigmented spot

A

Macula

60
Q

Center of macula
Free of rod
Point where visual acuity is greatest

A

fovea

61
Q

In perception of light, there is dec cGMP and closure of Na channels leading to

A

Hyperpolarization

Dec release of synaptic transmitter
Response in bipolar cell and neural element

62
Q

Key to initiation of visual cycle is availability of

A

11-cis-retinaldehyde (vitamin A)

From cis to trans

63
Q

Autonomic control of pupil

Symlathetic

A

Origin: intermediolateral horn cell of T1

64
Q

Visualized the back of eye
Erect image
Magnified view

A

Direct ophthalmoscopy

65
Q

Creates optical section of retina to view layers for any pathology

A

Optical coherence tomography

66
Q

Fluorescence dye injected into bloodstream

Highlights blood vessels in back of eye so they can be photographed

A

Fluorescein angiography

67
Q

Quantitative measurement of visual field

A

Visual field perimetry

68
Q

Invasive bacteria that penetrate intact corneal epithelium

A

Corynebacterium
Haemophilus
Neisseria
Listeria

69
Q

Pie on the floor

A

Parietal

70
Q

Pie on the sky

A

Temporal

71
Q

Antiglaucoma drug that increases outflow (drain canal)

A

Latanoprost

Pilocarpine

72
Q

Dec aqueous production

A

Timolol

Acetazolamide

73
Q

Both decrease production and increase outflow

A

Brimonidine

74
Q

Decreases vitreous volume

A

Mannitol

Glycerol

75
Q

Drugs used for diabetic macular edema and age related mac degeneration

A 
Anti VEGFs intravitreal injection 
Ranibizumab (FDA) monoclonal antibody 
Bevacizumab 
Aflibercept
Pegaptanib
76
Q

Drugs that dilate eyes prior examination

A

Tropicamide eyedrop
Atropine eyedrop (children)
Cyclopentolate (children)

77
Q

Full thickness

For corneal pathology

A

Penetrating keratoplasty

78
Q

Selective, anterior stroma to epithelium

For keratoconus, stromal dystrophy, anterior scar/opacity

A

Deep anterior lamellar keratoplasty DALK

79
Q

Selective, only descemet and endothelium no stroma

For endothelial pathology

A

Descemet membrane endothelial keratoplasty

80
Q

Large incision cataract surgery in which opacified lens is removed completely with its capsule

A

Intracapsular cataract extraction

81
Q

Manual delivery of whole cataract leaving the capsule partially intact

A

Extracapsular cataract extraction

82
Q

Same as ECCE but uses ultrasound to emulsify cataract

A

Phacoemulsification

83
Q

Filtering procedure to divert aqueous drainage

A

Trabeculectomy

84
Q

Uses external device to facilitate drainage

A

Glaucoma drainage device

85
Q

Intraocular procedure with removal of vitreous

Gas or oil injected to tamponade detachment

A

Pars plana vitrectomy

86
Q

Uses silicone band to tamponade the globe

A

Scleral buckling

87
Q

Removal of eye content leaving scleral shell snd EOM intact

A

evisceration

88
Q

Employs laser to flatten or steepen cornea altering its curvature resulting in desired refraction or grade

A

Refractive surgery

Surgery (17 decks)

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