Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Most common posterior fossa mass

A

medulloblastoma (typically age 5-7)

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2
Q

Ewing Sarcoma

A

onion-skin appearance/laminated periosteal reaction

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3
Q

Acanthosis Nigricans association with cancer

A

gastric cancer

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4
Q

Gastric Cancer Associations

A
  • acanthosis nigricans
  • Trousseau syndrome
  • Leser-Trelat (diffuse SKs)
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5
Q

Treatment for Metastatic Prostate Disease

A

mainstay if ADT including orchiectomy, GnRH agonist or GnRH antagonist
also docetaxel

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6
Q

Gleascon Scores that are typically low risk

A

less than or equal to 6

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7
Q

Types of Non Small Cell Lung Cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
large cell carcinoma

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8
Q

Adenocarcinoma Lung Cancer

A

ususally peripheral located

non-smokers as well

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9
Q

Squamous Cell Carcinoma / Lung Cancer

A

Usually central airway

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10
Q

Large Cell Carcinoma / Lung Cancer

A

usually with necrosis

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11
Q

TNM staging

A

T - primary
N - nodes
M - metastasis

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12
Q

Canditates for Breast Cancer Chemoprophylaxis

A
  • lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

- atypical hyperplasia

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13
Q

Breast Cancer Screening in BRCA1/2 patients

A

MRI age 25
mammogram age 30
yearly MRI + mammogram

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14
Q

Breast Cancer - SERMs

A

Tamoxifen + Raloxifene

pre or postmenopausal

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15
Q

Breast Cancer - Aromatase Inhibitors

A

Anastrozole + Exemestane

postmenopausal

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16
Q

Breast Cancer - DCIS treatment

A

lumpectomy, can be followed by masectomy + radiation

ER+: tamoxifen or AIs

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17
Q

Breast Cancer - When is Lumpectomy + RT preferred

A

tumors less than 5 cm +w/o high risk

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18
Q

Breast Cancer - Duration of SERMS + AIs

A

at least 5 years, preferably 10

19
Q

Transtuzamb AE

A

cardiomyopathy, fever, chills

20
Q

Breast Cancer Triple Negative Adjuvant Chemo

A

doxorubicin + cyclophos + taxane

21
Q

BRCA 1/2 Cancers: Agent if multiple failed regiments

A

poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibitor: olapurib

22
Q

Metastatic Breast Cancer/Reoccurrence First Line Agents

A

Fulvestrant (inhibit estrogen receptor function)

CDk4/6 Inhibitor: Palbociclib

23
Q

Ovarian Cancer Risk Factors

A

age, nulliparity
PCOS, endometriosis
IUD, cigarette smoking
BRCA 1/2, Lynch Syndrome (HNPCC)

24
Q

Ovarian Cancer Treatment

A

surgery (sometimes alone)

platinum-taxane chemo (IP & IV)

25
Drug for Metastatic Cervical Cancer
Bevacizumab (anti-VEGF)
26
Cervical Cancer Treatment
surgery +/- chemo (platinum based) +/- radiation
27
Rectal Cancer Treatment
RADIATION + chemo +/- surgery
28
Colorectal Cancer Treatment - Stage I & II
Surgery
29
Colorectal Cancer Treatment - Stage III
LN involvement | surg + chemo (FOLFOX or CAPOX)
30
Colorectal Cancer Treatment - Stage IV
LNs + organs Chemo (FOLFOX or CAPOX) bevacizumab/VEGF
31
Colorectal Cancer - Associated Mutations
KRAS, NRAS, BRAF
32
Adjuvant Chemotherapy for Pancreatic Cancer
gemcitabine + capecitabine
33
Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors
- types of sarcomas - associated with KIT gene, DOG-1 - Treat with imatinib
34
NSCLC Treatment
early stage: surgical resection +/- chemo (cisplatin) | advanced - chemo + surg or chemo + RT
35
NSCLC Metastatic Disease Treatment and Targeted Therapy
EGFR (ALK or ROS), crizotinib | PD-LI such as pembrolizumab
36
Small Cell Lung Cancer required imaging for diagnosis/staging
whole body bone scintigraphy + MRI of the brain (60% with mets to brain at diagnosis)
37
Small Cell Lung Cancer Treatment
cisplatin + etopiside + radiation | prophylatic cranial irriadiation
38
Head and Neck Cancer Treatment
surgery sometimes radiation for larynx metastatic = chemo (cisplatin)
39
Seminoma treatment
Radiation + Surgery +/- Chemo (cisplatin)
40
Nonseminoma treatment
Surgery + Chemo (cisplatin) + RPLND (retroperitoneal LN dissection)
41
Renal Cell Carcinoma Neoparaplastic Syndromes
hypercalcemia anemia or erythrocytosis AA amyloidosis polymyalgia rheumatic
42
Stauffer Syndrome
hepatic dysfunction w/o liver mets in RCC
43
RCC Treatment
radical/partical nephrectomy Sunitinib PD-L1 nivolumab VEGF inhibitiors levatinib
44
Oligometastatic colon cancer
less than three lesions in liver --> resect