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Drews Command Attempt > OMB > Flashcards

OMB Flashcards

1
Q

What paper manuals and forms should be in the cockpit?

A 
2 QRH
2 Cchecklists
Certificates folder
Documents folder
Tech log
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2
Q

What should bank angle be limited to during manual flight?

A

30 degrees

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3
Q

When is OETD prohibited?

A 
LVPs
Slippery surface
APU or APU GEN not available
Technical defects affecting hydraulics
Electrical redundancy
Bleed air
Steering or brakes
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4
Q

What are the first officer handling limits?

A 
Max 20kts crosswind
No contaminated surface
400m RVR for takeoff
CAT 1 approaches
45m runway
No windshear
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5
Q

What are the additional handling limit for 3* FOs?

A

No flap 3

No planned tailwaind

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6
Q

What should you check when arriving to the aircraft?

A

Wheel chocks in place.
APU inlet and outlet clear

If wheel chocks not in place check parking brake set with sufficient accumulator pressure

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7
Q

On the preliminary cockpit preparation checklist. When should you use the * marked items?

A

On a transit stop with no crew change

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8
Q

When should a battery check be completed?

A

When the aircraft has not been supplied electrically for 6h or more.

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9
Q

What voltage should be batteries be on the preliminary cockpit setup and what does it mean?

A

25.5V

Ensures charge above 50%

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10
Q

During cockpit setup if the batteries are below 25.5V how long should they be charged for?

A

20mins

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11
Q

How soon after selecting the batteries to auto should the APU be started?

A

Within 30mins

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12
Q

When does the half frame appear on the oxygen section of the ECAM door page?

A

When PSI is lower than 1500

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13
Q

When should a full ADIRS alignment be completed?

A

Before first flight
Crew change
GPS not available and flight time > 3hrs

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14
Q

When should the air conditioning pack flow be selected to LO?

A

A319/320: 130 or less

A321: 160 or less

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15
Q

Which VHF radio is available in the emergency electrical config?

A

VHF 1

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16
Q

What should the IDLE factor be set to in the aircraft status MCDU page?

A

-3.5

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17
Q

When should navaids be deselected?

A

If no GPS primary and NOTAMS warn of unreliable navaids

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18
Q

What is the maximum altitude difference between the 2 PFDs during cockpit preparation?

A

20ft

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19
Q

What is the maximum difference between the PFD and ISIS altitude during cockpit prep?

A

60ft

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20
Q

If the captain is performing the takeoff and intending to hand over to the FO. When should this be done?

A

When clean config and above the transition altitude

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21
Q

Describe the acceptable discrepancies after refuelling.

A

Up to 6 tons - 400kg
6 - 12 tons - 500kg
Above 12 tons - 600kg

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22
Q

At what percentage MAC for a 320 should the EFB be changed to FORWARD?

A

27%

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23
Q

When is a new LFC required due to LMCs?

A

Plus 10 or minus 20 passengers

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24
Q

When should the nose gear be inspected in the event of a shear pin failure during pushback?

A

If the aircraft overruns the towbar

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25
Q

What are the rules for leaks from the engine drain mast during engine start?

A

Run the engine at idle for 5 mins. If the leak goes then you can dispatch. If it remains then shutdown the engine and have it investigated.

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26
Q

When do the pack valves open again after engine start?

A

30s after second engine N2 reaches 50%

27
Q

What is the minimum oil temp in a NEO for takeoff?

A

19 degrees

28
Q

When should ice shedding be considered?

A

When I’m icing conditions and the temp is +3 or less for more than 30 mins

29
Q

What is the CEO ice shedding procedure?

A

Accelerate engines to 70% N1 for 30s at intervals no greater than 30mins.

30
Q

What is the NEO ice shedding procedure?

A

Accelerate engines to 50% N1 for 5 s at intervals not greater than 60 mins

31
Q

What is the required equipment for RVSM?

A 
2 ADRs and 2 DMCs
1 transponder
1 autopilot
1 FCU channel
2 PFDs
1 FWC
32
Q

What speed will expedite descent give?

A

M 0.8 or 340kts whichever is lower

33
Q

What are the stable approach criteria?

A

Aircraft in landing config
On correct lateral and vertical flight path
Target final approach speed +10/-5
Bank angle max 15 degrees

34
Q

When do you apply the discontinued approach procedure?

A

When at or above the FCU altitude

35
Q

When does the PM call parameters on the approach?

A

Speed +10/-5
Pitch -2.5/10
Bank angle >7 degrees
Descent rate >1000

36
Q

During an ILS what parameters should the PM call out?

A

LOC 1/2 dot

GLIDE 1/2 dot

37
Q

If above 1000 and a landing capability degradation occurs what needs to be completed?

A 
ECAM/QRH
Required equipment check
Approach and capability check
RVR check
DH adjust
Briefing
38
Q

What RNP value is required for RNAV GNSS?

A

0.3

39
Q

What deviations should the PM call for an RNAV approach?

A

XTK >0.1
V/DEV > 1/2 dot

1 dot = 100ft

40
Q

What degraded navigation capabilities would result in a go around for an RNAV approach?

A

GPS PRIMARY lost on both NDs
XTK > 0.3
NAV FM/GPS POS DISAGREE
NAV ACCUR DOWNGRADE on both FMGS

41
Q

What config should a circling approach be flown?

A

Config 3 gear down at the descent point of the instrument approach

42
Q

Equipment required for RNAV visual?

A

1 FMS

1 GPS or 2 DME

43
Q

During an autoland what is the maximum difference between the ILS course pointer and the runway track?

A

5 degrees

44
Q

When should the seatbelt sign be turned off during parking?

A

When the doors are all disarmed

45
Q

When should the beacon be turned off?

A

When N1 is below 10%

46
Q

Why are the centre tank pumps turned off prior to refuelling?

A

To avoid pump low pressure cautions or fuel spillage

47
Q

What angle approaches are defined as steeper?

A

3.5 to 4.5 degrees

48
Q

What approach angle should a stabilised approach be used?

A

3.5 or more

49
Q

What should be done after an overweight landing?

A

Contact MOC

50
Q

What are the calls for an emergency landing?

A

Passing 2000 ft planned - cabin crew take up landing positions
Passing 500 ft planned - Brace Brace
Unplanned emergency landing - attention crew brace brace

51
Q

What are the climb gradients required for takeoff?

A

Second segment: 2.4%

Final segment: 1.2%

52
Q

How much fuel does the APU burn?

A

2kg/min

53
Q

How much fuel does engine anti ice use during holding?

A

2kg/min

54
Q

What distance should adequate aerodromes be during flight?

A

A319 380nm

A320/321 400nm

55
Q

What is the maximum distance for a takeoff alternate?

A

320nm all types

56
Q

Standard loading for A319

A

150bags in rear hold

Utilise cpt 4 first

57
Q

A320 standard loading?

A

Compartment 1 85 bags
Remainder in compartment 4 (use of 3 aswell for high loads)

Compartment 5 should not normally be used

58
Q

A321 standard loading

A

100 bags cpt 3
Next 50 cpt 4
Remainder in cpt 2

59
Q

Which hold should be loaded and unloaded first?

A

Forward holds loaded first and unloaded last

60
Q

How much fuel do the engines use during holding?

A

40kg/min

61
Q

Where is a thin hoarfrost acceptable?

A

Fuselage
Radome
Engine cowl
Surfaces lines and features must be distinguishable

62
Q

How thick can frost be on the underside of the wing?

A

Coating up to 3mm thick in the area cold soaked by fuel

63
Q

What are the uninhibited master cautions that will appear on takeoff?

A 
Engine failure
Side stick fault 
reverser fault
reverser unlocked
Thrust lever fault
64
Q

What equipment is needed to carry out an RNAV/GNSS approach?

A 
1 FMGC
1 GPS
1 MCDU
1 FD on PF side
1 PFD on PF side
2 IRS
2 NDs
2 FCU channels

Drews Command Attempt (35 decks)

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