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Drews Command Attempt > OMA > Flashcards

OMA Flashcards

1
Q

When shall aircraft be flown below MFAs?

A

Never. Apart from takeoff and landing.

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2
Q

What does MFAs stand for?

A

Minimum Flight Altitudes

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3
Q

What does MSA stand for

A

Minimum Sector Alititude

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4
Q

How big is the MSA area and what clearance does it provide?

A

25nm and obstacle clearance of 1000ft

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5
Q

What clearance does MORA provide?

A

1000ft clearance up to 5000ft
2000ft clearance above 5000ft
Within 20nm of segment centreline

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6
Q

When are temperature corrections performed?

A

Below -10 degrees. Unless otherwise specified

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7
Q

What is the standard pressure correction?

A

30ft per mb

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8
Q

What are the Rescue and Fire Fighting Services required (RFFS)

A

A320/319: 6

A321: 7

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9
Q

When can RFFS be downgraded to 5?

A

For Departure or Destination which have low volumes of traffic.

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10
Q

When can you go 2 categories below RFFS?

A

Tempo downgrade not exceeding 72 hours. Must be notified by NOTAM/ATC/ATIS

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11
Q

When can be downgraded to RFFS 4?

A

Takeoff Alternate, Destination Alternate and Enroute Alternate for NON UK AERODROMES.

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12
Q

When is an aerodrome suitable?

A

When it is adequate for the operation. When the met conditions satisfy the planning minima and meet the approach runway and aircraft capabilities.

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13
Q

Maximum distance from Adequate Aerodrome for two engine aeroplanes without ETOPS?

A

60 mins at 1 engine inop cruise speed.

A319: 380nm
A320/321: 400nn

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14
Q

Takeoff alternate distance

A

320nm for all types

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15
Q

How long are weather reports considered?

A

1hr before and 1hr after ETA

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16
Q

Can conversion of met visibility to RVR be done at the planning stage?

A

No

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17
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When performance or met condition preclude a return

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18
Q

When are 2 alternates required?

A

When the forecast is below the planning minima.

When no met info available

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19
Q

What is a Category A aerodrome?

A

Not complex and routine

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20
Q

What is a Category B aerodrome?

A

Requires specific briefing

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21
Q

What is a Category B Restricted Aerodrome?

A

Complexity and threat levels that have specific restrictions but do not require aerodrome visit

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22
Q

What is a Category C aerodrome?

A

Special Crew qualification required

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23
Q

What are Easyjet aeroplanes categorised as?

A

Cat C (Vat 121 to 140kts)

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24
Q

What are the requirements for a visual approach?

A

2500ft cloud ceiling

5000m viz

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25
Q

What approaches use a DA (Decision Altitude)

A

Cat 1/LTS Cat 1
LNAV/VNAV
RNAV/RNP
NPAs

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26
Q

Is LPV Approved for Easyjet?

Localiser Performance with Vertical Guidance

A

No

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27
Q

What is DH (decision height) used for?

A

Cat 2/ Cat 3

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28
Q

What is MDA (Minimum Descent Altitude) used for?

A

Circling approach

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29
Q

What is the Cat 3A company DH?

A

50ft

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30
Q

What is the age you are classified as an adult?

A

12 years and above

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31
Q

What age classifies children?

A

2yrs up to 12yrs

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32
Q

What age are infants?

A

Less than 2 years of age

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33
Q

How much do pilots weigh?

A

85kg

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34
Q

How much do Cabin crew weigh?

A

75kg

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35
Q

How much do male passengers weigh?

A

93kg

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36
Q

How much do Female passengers weigh?

A

75kg

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37
Q

How much do children weigh?

A

35kg

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38
Q

How much do domestic bags weigh?

A

11kg

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39
Q

How much do European bags weigh?

A

13kg

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40
Q

How much do guide dogs weigh?

A

35kg

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41
Q

How much do cellos weigh?

A

10kg

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42
Q

When should cabin defects be presented to the commander?

A

At the end of each flight

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43
Q

Which paper certificates should be carried on board?

A

Certificate of Airworthiness
Airworthiness Review Certificate
Certificate of Registration

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44
Q

What indicates to the cabin crew that fuelling is occurring on the ground?

A

Seatbelt signs off and refuelling in progress sign showing

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45
Q

Is refuelling permitted with reduced cabin crew?

A

No

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46
Q

What is the regulatory requirement when refuelling with pax on board?

A

Two way communication with the refueller

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47
Q

Is De-fuelling permitted with pax on board?

A

No

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48
Q

Up to how many weeks can a pregnant woman travel?

A

35 weeks

32 for twins

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49
Q

What is the age of an unaccompanied minor?

A

16 years or below

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50
Q

Where should prisoners be seated?

A

At the back of the aircraft and preferably in a window seat with the escorts

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51
Q

When should prisoners be boarded?

A

Boarded first and disembarked last

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52
Q

What should be completed if a passenger is refused carriage?

A

An ASR

53
Q

Can Easyjet carry dangerous goods?

A

No

54
Q

Can we carry aircraft spares to or from Switzerland?

A

No

55
Q

What colour is Type 1 anti icing fluid?

A

Orange or clear

56
Q

What colour is Type 2 anti icing fluid?

A

Straw

57
Q

What colour is Type 4 anti icing fluid?

A

Green

58
Q

What is the minimum result from converting met viz to RVR that can be used?

A

800m

59
Q

What is a local night?

A

Period of 8 hours between 22:00 and 08:00 local time

60
Q

How long can you not fly for following anaesthetics?

A

48hrs General

24hrs local, including dental

61
Q

If you have a vaccination how long before you can operate?

A

24hrs

62
Q

What 2 types of radar do ATC Primarily use?

A

PSR (Primary Surveilance Radar)

SSR (Secondary Surveilance Radar)

63
Q

What is the latest that in-flight landing distance calc should be performed?

A

Not more than 30mins

64
Q

Describe NADP1 and NADP 2 profiles?

A

1/. V2+10-20kts to 1000ft then CL thrust and accelerate

2/. V2+10-20kts to 1000ft then CL to 3000ft then accelerate

65
Q

What does NAT-HLA Stand for?

A

North Atlantic High Level Airspace

66
Q

What flight levels does RVSM apply

A

FL290-FL410 included

67
Q

Nav requirements for NAT HLA

A

PBN RNP4 and RNP10

68
Q

What are the 4 PBN specifications that Easyjet use?

A

RNAV1 - 1nm
RNAV5 - 5nm
RNP1 - 1nm
RNP APCH - 0.3nm

69
Q

Where is B-RNAV (RNAV 5) mandatory?

A

In ECAC Airspace along entire route

70
Q

Where does P-RNAV (RNAV1) apply?

A

Departures, Arrivals and approaches up to Final approach waypoint

71
Q

What is the maximum difference between primary altimeter check and airport elevation prior to entering RVSM airspace?

A

75ft

72
Q

What is the max difference between altimeters before entering and during RVSM airspace?

A

200ft

73
Q

What equipment should be operating normally before entering RVSM?

A

2 primary altimeters
1 autopilot
1 altitude alerting system
An SSR Transponder

74
Q

When should destination QNH be set?

A

FL200

75
Q

What is the minimum fuel you should have on landing at destination?

A

Alternate plus Final Reserve

76
Q

What options are there during flight if you find you might land at dest with less than CNR

A 
Decrease speed
Obtain a more direct route
Fly closer to the optimum FL
Select a closer alternate
Land and refuel
77
Q

When is a landing assured

A

If it can still be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration of weather or single failures of ground and or airborne facilities.

78
Q

What defines MINIMUM FUEL

A

When any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than final reserve

79
Q

What defines MAYDAY FUEL?

A

When fuel is predicted to be less than final reserve upon landing

80
Q

What is the minimum distance you should give to thunderstorms?

A

20nm laterally

5000ft if overflying

81
Q

Wake turbulence categories. What are Easyjet aircraft categorised as?

A

Lower Medium

82
Q

How much time do you need to leave between heavy aircraft on departure?

A

2 mins

Unless following from intermediate point then it’s 3 mins

83
Q

How long to leave between an A380 departure?

A

3 mins from same point

4 mins from intermediate point.

84
Q

What distance on final approach between aircraft?

A

A380 - 7nm
Heavy - 5nm
Upper Medium - 4nm

85
Q

What is the max suggested length of controlled rest?

A

45 mins

86
Q

How long after controlled rest should be given to regain alertness?

A

20mins

87
Q

What should ACTUAL sleep be limited to during controlled rest?

A

30mins

88
Q

Describe the times when full harnesses should be used.

A

Turbulence
Takeoff
Landing
Seatbelt signs on

89
Q

When should the flight deck door be closed?

A

From when cabin doors are closed on departures to after engines are shutdown.

90
Q

What is the Two Communications Rule?

A

Any time a crew member does not respond to two verbal communications.
OR
Any time a crew member does not respond to a verbal communication with a significant deviation from flight profile.

91
Q

Is a flight crew incapacitation an emergency?

A

Yes

92
Q

What is Easyjet’s approach policy

A

To use the highest level of guidance available

93
Q

Maximum number of approaches

A

No more than 2 approaches unless significant improvement exists.

94
Q

When can a 3rd approach be made?

A

When a go around was flown for non weather reasons. Providing landing is assured.

95
Q

Where is the approach ban point?

A

1000ft AAL

96
Q

What happens if you pass the Approach Ban and the RVR falls below the minimum?

A

Can be continued to the DH provided that visual references are adequate for the type of approach.

97
Q

Which RVR is always controlling?

A

Touchdown

98
Q

What speed is classed as relevant?

A

60kts

99
Q

What is the minimum RVR for a non precision approach?

A

750m

100
Q

What approaches cannot be used with cold weather corrections?

A

VNAV

101
Q

Is Easyjet authorised for RNP AR approaches?

A

No

102
Q

What differences between the FMC and the approach chart are acceptable for an RNAV approach?

A

3 degrees

103
Q

Can a destination alternate have an approach solely based on GNSS?

A

No, they must have another instrument approach type

104
Q

Cat 1 minima

A

200ft

550RVR

105
Q

Visual reference for Cat 1 approach?

A

Elements of approach lighting

106
Q

Stable approach criteria for circling.

A

Below 400 RA: Max bank angle 15 degrees and +or- 30 degrees of final approach track

107
Q

Can you night circle without some form of vertical guidance?

A

No

108
Q

What must be in force for us to conduct LVOs?

A

LVPs

109
Q

When can you plan to dispatch with no alternate?

A

Flight not greater than 6 hours
2 seperate runways available
Ceiling at least 2000ft or 500 above circling height
Visibility at least 5km
Additional fuel not less than 15 mins at 1500 ft

110
Q

When is an aerodrome isolated?

A

When the alternate is 2 hrs or more cruise away.

111
Q

What clearance does minimum grid altitude provide?

A

1000ft up to 6000ft

2000ft above 6000ft

112
Q

When can runways be considered as seperate?

A

When they can be considered that if one is blocked it would not affect the use of the other runway.
They should have approaches based on seperate navaids

113
Q

What is the planning minima for alternate if only NPA available?

A

NPA RVR +1000m

Ceiling at or above MDH +200

114
Q

When tankering fuel. What is the maximum planned landing weight?

A

MLW -1%

115
Q

What is the approximate trip fuel adjustment for increased or decreased mileage?

A

Increase 5kg/nm

Decrease 4kg/nm

116
Q

When can you NOT use a “FOR INFO” following a bird strike?

A 
When the bird has:
Caused a dent or damage
Hit the Radome
Hit the engine
1m upstream of the pitot or static
1m upstream of the pack intake
Any unusual odours
117
Q

When can you take off in RVR 125?

A

HI edge lights spaced 60m
HI centre lights spaced 15m
90m visual segment from cockpit

118
Q

What do you do if the third segment of the runway RVR is not available for takeoff?

A

Reduce the runway length by 1/3 and recalculate the performace

119
Q

What classes as CAVOK?

A

Viz 10 or more
Ceiling 5000ft or greater
No sig wx

120
Q

What does max 65/7 mean on the IAC charts?

A

Wingspan max 65m

Distance between gear and GP antenna of max 7m

121
Q

What classes as a decrease in medical fitness?

A 
Surgery
Hospital > 12hrs
New regular medication
Significant personal injury or illness
Pregnant
122
Q

What classes as an approved aerodrome?

A

Runway length and characteristics meet the aeroplane requirements for takeoff and landing

Pavement strength is compatible with aircraft weight

Suitable instrument approaches, ATC, lighting, comms and weather reporting

123
Q

What are the restrictions of using converted met visibility to RVR?

A

Not for takeoff
Not if result is <800m
Not for planning

124
Q

What are the minimum contingencies for each type?

A

A319: 190kg
A320: 204kg
A320 NEO: 170kg
A321: 200kg

125
Q

What are the minimum oxygen requirements for flight crew and cabin crew?

A

Flight crew need a minimum of 2 hrs or 30mins if on 100% oxygen

Cabin crew need not less than 30mins

126
Q

Up to which week can pregnant mothers be accepted for travel?

A

35th week

127
Q

Is medical certification required for expectant mothers to travel?

A

No

128
Q

What is the minimum age a child can travel when alone?

A

16 years. Any younger they need to be accompanied by an adult

Drews Command Attempt (35 decks)

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