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COAS 2022 > OMB > Flashcards

OMB Flashcards

1
Q

Where would you find the landing and approach climb gradients?

What is this based on? Can this be modified?

A

Landing perf application.

By default based on OEI and 1500’ AAL

Can be modified as minimum Eng out Acc Altitude is either:

-1500’ AAL (if VMC or following EO SID)
-Missed approach level acceleration altitude if published on IAC.
-Minimum flight altitude on missed approach procedure
-Initial go around altitude

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2
Q

Can you despatch with anti skid inoperative?

A

No.

It’s married to the NWS so the risk of having the nose wheel at 90degrees is too great.

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3
Q

What are the minimum take off climb gradients?

A

One engine inoperative:
Second segment: 2.4% gross
Final segment: 1.2% gross

SIDS may also specify all engine climb gradients when it exceeds 3.5%

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4
Q

What are the first officer handling limitations?

A
  • Max X Wind 20kts inc gusts
  • No planned tailwind landings for 4* FO’s
  • No flaps 3 for 3* FO’s
    Take off minima 550m
  • Approach minima: Cat 1 ILS, Published minima for no precision approaches. Min VIS for circling 5000m
  • Min RYW width 45m unless trained.
  • No contaminated runway or slippery runway condition.
  • No reported wind shear
  • No auto land for normal operations
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5
Q

What are the turbulence penetration speeds?

A

A319/320 CEO
250kts or .76 above FL200

A320 NEO
260kts or .76 above FL200

A321 NEO
275kts or .76 above FL200

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6
Q

What is the stability criteria?

A

Should be by 1000’ and Must be by 500’
- LDG config
- Correct lateral and Vertical flight path
- Speed +10 / -5
- Bank angle Max 15 degrees

1000’ go around if not in LDG config or speed VAPP +30

500’ Not stable
LDG checklist not completed

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7
Q

Stability criteria for circling approach.

A

By 400’ above touch down zone

AC in LDG config
LDG checklist completed.
Correct lateral and vertical flight path
Speed +10/-5
Bank angle max 15 degrees within +/- 30degrees of final track.

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8
Q

FINAL APP guidance call outs

A

The PM calls out if excessive deviation occurs:

XTK > 0.1nm

V/DEV > 1/2 dot.

(one dot corresponds to 100ft so half dot is 50ft)

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9
Q

AP Minimum use heights

A

Take off: 100’ AGL & 5 seconds - 100ft

FINAL APP / V/S or FPA - 250ft

Circling - 500ft

ILS CAT 1 - 160ft

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10
Q

If tankering fuel what is the maximum landing and take off weight?

A

MLW - 1%. Must also be MTOW -1%

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11
Q

Max LMC before new load sheet required?

A

+10 / -20 pax

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12
Q

In case of discrepancies between procedures / publications, what are the priorities for our manuals / oebs etc?

A

OFP company notams, OFP briefing pack attachments

NTC’s

OEB’s

Operations manuals OMA etc

Airbus FCOM/QRH

FCTM

Guidance material

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13
Q

On what runway condition is a takeoff not permitted ?

A
  • Wet ice
  • Water on top of compacted snow
  • Dry snow or wet snow over ice
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14
Q

Can a takeoff be started with a RWYCC of 0 ?

A

No, no takeoff or landing allowed

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15
Q

What is the minimum runway width to be cleared/treated ?

A

30m, a runway wider than 45m can be cleared to a width of less than 45m from the centerline. It should not be considered as narrow runway.

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16
Q

When is one eng taxi out prohibited ?

A
  • Taxiway slippery
  • LVP at dep aerodrome
  • pushback completed with a powerpush on the main landing gear
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17
Q

What technical defect prevent you from doing a single engine taxi ?

A

Hydraulic: no yellow electrical pump
electrical : gen 1 failed, Apu gen must be serviceable for aircraft without the SETWA
Pneumatic/air conditioning : Air pack 1
issue with steering or breaking

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18
Q

What are the first officer limit ?

A 
Max crosswind including gust : 20kts
minimum RVR 400m
Approach minimum : CAT I ils, Minima of NPA, 5000m vis for circling 
No contaminated rwy or slippery 
no reported windshear
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19
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage when powering the A/C ? Can a APU fire test be done when below it ?

A

Minimum 25.5V
No, risk of APU extinguisher discharge

WARNING:
DO NOT PERFORM APU FIRE TEST IF BATTERY VOLTAGE IS AT OR BELOW 25.5 V AS THIS MAY RESULT IN THE DISCHARGE OF THE APU FIRE EXTINGUISHER BOTTLE. OMB 2.3.4.2

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20
Q

What is the maximum time you should hold the APU fire test PB ?

A

No more than 3 sec, otherwise it might auto shutdown and discharge APU fire bottle

WARNING:
THE AUTOMATIC SHUTDOWN OF THE APU AND THE DISCHARGE OF THE APU FIRE EXTINGUISHER BOTTLE MAY OCCUR IF THE FLIGHT CREW PRESSES THE APU FIRE TEST PB FOR MORE THAN 3 SECONDS. OMB 2.3.4.3

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21
Q

When should a complete IRS alignment be done ?

A
  • Before the first flight of the day, or
  • When there is a crew change, or
  • When the GPS is not available and the NAVAIDS coverage is poor on the expected route, or
  • When the GPS is not available and the expected flight time is more than 3 h.

OMB 2.3.4.5

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22
Q

When should you do a fast alignment ?

A

A fast IRS alignment must be performed if a complete IRS alignment is not necessary and the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position is at or above 5 NM

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23
Q

What is the minimum oil quantity ?

A
  • (CEO): Check that the oil quantity is at or above 9.5 qt + estimated consumption (average estimated consumption ~ 0.5 qt/h).
  • (NEO): Check that the minimum oil quantity is the highest value of:
    10. 6 qt, or
    8. 9 qt + estimated consumption (average estimated consumption ~ 0.45 qt/h)

Note 1:(NEO) If the engines have been shut down for more than 60 min, decrease the above quantities by 3 qt to take into account the oil thermal expansion.

OMB 2.3.4.8

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24
Q

When should you set the pack flow to LO ?

A

A319/A320 : Less than 130pax

A321 : Less than 160pax

OMB 2.3.6.2

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25
Q

When is the navaid deselection not necessary ?

A

If GPS is primary even if NAVAID not working in the notam

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26
Q

What is the auto flaps retraction ?

A

Can be needed if green dot is higher than the speed constraint.

The flaps will auto retract at 210kts and leave only the slats to enable a speed of 220kts to be flown

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27
Q

What is the maximum altimeter difference on the ground ?

A

+-20ft between PFD

+- 100ft between ISIS and PFD

Altimeters and airport elevation +-75ft

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28
Q

Following the refuelling what is an abnormal discrepancy ?

A

Up to 6tons = 400kg
Between 6 and 12t = 500kg
more than 12 = 600kg

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29
Q

what should be done if, during the engine start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast ?

A

Run engine at idle for 5 min, if the leak disappears after 5min you can dispatch otherwise maintenance need to be called

OM B 2.3.8.1

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30
Q

When do you need to have the engine anti ice on for take off ?

A

When OAT is at or below 10°C and visible moisture (clouds, fog with vis less than 1600m, rain snow, sleet and ice crystals) and/or ground surface has snow, standing water or slush.

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31
Q

What is the ice shedding procedure for CEO ?

A

When in icing conditions and OAT +3° or less for more than 30min or significant vibration then:

  • set park brake or stand on the brakes
  • accelerate to 70% N1 for 30sec at an interval no greater than 30mins
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32
Q

What is the ice shedding procedure for NEO ?

A

When in icing conditions and OAT +3° or less for more than 30min or significant vibration then:

  • set park brake or stand on the brakes
  • accelerate to 50% N1 for 5sec at an interval no greater than 60mins

If the takeoff is not initiated within 120min in ground icing condition, the maintenance will need to perform an engine inspection.

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33
Q

Can you use wing anti-ice on the ground ?

A

No, the wing anti-ice will open for 30s on the ground then closed as long as the aircraft is on the ground.

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34
Q

When do you need the IGN for takeoff ?

A

When the runway has

  • standing water
  • Heavy rain is falling
  • heavy rain or severe turbulence is expected after takeoff
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35
Q

Following a change in QNH or the use of ENG anti ice for takeoff, what do you need to check for the new Flex temp ?

A

If the OAT or TREF is reach by applying the reduction in Flex temp then a new takeoff perf need to be computed.

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36
Q

What are the TREF(flat temperature, lowest temp you can use as flex for takeoff.) for A319, A320, A321 ?

A 
A319 = ISA +30°C
A320 = ISA +29°C
A321= ISA +15°C
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37
Q

Can wing anti-ice be use when using APU bleed ?

A

No

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38
Q

When is a rolling takeoff not permitted ?

A

when a TOGA takeoff shall be performed due to takeoff performance limitation. (RWY/OBS)

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39
Q

On the takeoff roll when is the nosewheel steering disconnected from the rudder pedal ?

A

At 130 kt (wheel speed), the connection between nosewheel steering and the rudder pedals is removed.

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40
Q

What does MAX REC FL mean ?

A

It provide the Aircraft with a buffet margin of 0,3g.

Pilot may enter a higher FL as long as it allow a margin of 0,2g

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41
Q

What is the maximum value Vapp can be increased to with respect to Vls ?

A

VLS+15kts in case of gusty or crosswind greater than 20kts

42
Q

When do you need to go around if the landing checklist is not completed ?

A

The checklist has to be completed by 500ft.

43
Q

What are the stabilisation criteria ?

A

Aircraft shall be stable at 1000ft and must be at 500ft (400ft on circling)

  • A/C in landing config
  • On correct lateral and vertical flight path
  • Target final approach speed +10/-5
  • Bank angle max 15° (for circling +-30° from final track)

note :

PAPI visual slope indications and FMS Baro VNAV path indications may not be aligned when OAT differs from ISA. When OAT is significantly above ISA, PAPI indications may indicate “4 whites” while following FMS vertical path. In this condition, the approach can be continued provided the FMS vertical guidance is followed.

44
Q

For RNP approach what is requirement with respect to GPS ?

A

1 FMS must be GPS Primary

45
Q

On an approach with Final APP when should the approach be armed ?

A

At least 2NM before the final descent point

46
Q

Can you continue an RNP approach if one side as lost GPS Primary ?

A

Yes as long as you use the other side AP/FD where GPS Primary is still active

47
Q

where can you find if your Aircraft as RNP AR capability ?

A

In the QRH Aircraft Configuration Summary in Operational Data

48
Q

RNP AR, when does the PM call deviation ?

A

LDEV > ½ dot (1 dot is 0,1NM)
VDEV > ½ dot ( 1 dot is 100ft)

49
Q

RNP AR, When does a go around must be initiated ?

A

LDEV reach 1RNP (value on the ND not lateral scale)

VDEV reach ¾ dot below profile (75ft)

50
Q

RNP AR, What happen if you have a system failure before the IAF ?

A

Discontinue the approach and refer to the RNP AR equipment requirement

51
Q

What define the touchdown zone if no marking ?

A

⅓ of the runway or 1000m whichever is less

52
Q

What is required for the autobrake to trigger automatically on landing ?

A

The ground spoiler have to be deployed

53
Q

When will the ground spoiler deployed ?

A

upon landing when rev is set, they will still deploy even if not armed

54
Q

After touch down what is the latest point you can go around ?

A

You have to go around before REV are deployed. As soon as the REV Have been deployed it must be a full stop landing

55
Q

How do you activate Go Around soft ?

A

Set to toga then Flex/MCT

56
Q

What is the balked landing procedure ?

A

Captain says “I HAVE CONTROL” and press and hold takeover push button

Annonce TOGA

Adjust pitch to climb away from the ground

Do not change config until captain says Go around flaps
Note: it may trigger Config Flaps not in TO position => disregard

57
Q

When is maintenance due after landing when you check the brakes temp ?

A

If temp diff between two brakes of the same gear are more than 150°C and one of these is above 600°C

If temp diff between two brakes of the same gear are more than 150°C and one of these is below 60°C

If temp diff between left and right gear is more than 200°C

Brakes temp more than 900°C

58
Q

During RNP AR approach what are the standard call for deviation ?

A
  • “LAT-DEV” when L/DEV reaches ½ dot
  • “VDEV” when ½ dot deviation above or below path
  • “SINK RATE” when the descent rate exceeds 1000 ft/min
  • “BANK” when the bank angle goes above 30°.
59
Q

During landing what are the standard call (touch down) ?

A

During landing, the PM announces:

“PITCH PITCH”, if the pitch attitude approaches the tail strike pitch limit indicator or reaches +10° (A319/A320)/+7.5° (A321).

“BANK BANK”, if the bank angle reaches 7°.

60
Q

During go around what are the standard call ?

A

During a go-around, the PM announces:

“BANK”: If the bank angle becomes greater than 7°,

“PITCH”: If the pitch attitude becomes greater than 20° up or less than 10° up,

“SINK RATE”: If there is no climb rate.

61
Q

What are the restriction on airports with arrestor gear ?

A

TRAMPLING OF CABLES IN A RIGGED/UP STATE

General Information

The take off run should be started after any RIGGED/UP cable or from a point such that the speed is <40 kt as the aircraft crosses the cable.

During the take off roll there should be no operational concern for crossing a RIGGED/UP cable provided the aircraft does not exceed the 40 kt limitation at the point of crossing the cable.

Trampling a RIGGED/UP cable at greater than 40 kt is not recommended: In the event that a cable is trampled in excess of 40 kt, contact MOC for an inspection procedure.

In the case of a high speed abort and subsequent crossing of a departure end RIGGED/UP cable at speed, then a check is to be done of the undercarriage to confirm no damage: refer to MOC.

TRAMPLING OF CABLES IN A RIGGED/DOWN STATE

There are no restrictions on operations on runways where the cables are in the RIGGED/DOWN position.

Operational Caution Notes:

Check with the local Airport Authorities that they have not published any specific operating restrictions.

Landing beyond the cables reduces the possibility of damage.

If landing beyond the cables is not feasible, inspect the aircraft in order to check that there is no damage.

If the cable is raised taxi slowly, with a maximum transit speed of 40 kt.

For cable laid to the runway surface, there is no technical objection to cross the cable at a speed > 40 kt.

Do not cross the cables at maximum reverse thrust.

Take into account the above recommendations for the performance computation.

Carefully monitor the tyre pressure of your aircraft to avoid rolling over the cables with less that recommended tyre pressure.

Inspect the landing gear to detect any damage caused by the arresting device in the case of trampling a RIGGED/UP cable >40 kt.

62
Q

What is the TREF and when is it used ?

A

TREF is the flat rating temperature, meaning the lowest temp you can use as flex for takeoff.

It is used for takeoff as the TFLEX has to be above the TREF

FCOM EFB TOF 20 20 20

63
Q

Shear pin failure, when does the nose gear need to be inspected ?

A

Shear Pin Failure

In the event of a shear pin failure during pushback:

  • if push stop immediately after failure then no inspection is required
  • nose gear must be inspected when there is separation and overrun of the towbar by A/C, Push-turn operations, when the towbar arm touches the tractor after a failure of the turning towbar shear pin only.
64
Q

What are the limitations associated with steeper angle approach with respect to landing technique and type of approach ?

A

No autoland

No CAT III/II

OMB 2.4.26

65
Q

What is part of the SOP on the aircraft acceptance ?

A
  • Press RCL more than 3s to see cleared or canceled ECAM
  • ECAM pages (OXY, HYD, ENG (oil))
  • Tech log
  • Aircraft configuration summary
  • OEB
66
Q

When is it not required to to the computation of the RLDW ?

A

The computation of DISPATCH LDG PERFORMANCE is not required if the flight crew can ensure that RLDW is limited by maximum structural landing weight, this is only applicable when DRY or WET runway surface conditions are expected.

67
Q

What action should be done following a lightning strike ?

A

Consult MOC for engineering inspection

File a ASR

68
Q

What should you do following a Hard landing / Overweight landing ?

A

In case of auto print load report 15 :

  • call MOC to arrange check
  • Fill an ASR

If no print out (overwheight)
- call MOC, they will assess if maintenance is required

69
Q

On Take off when will the ECAM inhibits take place ?

A

non essential warning will be inhibits from 80kts to 1500ft, any inhibited should be considered as significant.

70
Q

What call should be made to the cabin crew following an RTO ?

A

Full stop : Attention crew at station

With out full stop : Cabin crew normal operations

71
Q

On an RTO when will the spoiler and auto-brakes automatically deploy ?

A

If the speed as exceeded 72kts otherwise they will not deploy

72
Q

Following an RTO with a full stop using max autobrakes how do you release the brakes ?

A

You will have to disarm the spoiler to release the brakes and taxi.

73
Q

On a pre planned emergency landing what call should be made during the approach ?

A

Passing 2000ft descending :
“Cabin crew take up landing position”
Passing 500ft :
“brace brace”

74
Q

What call should be made on an unplanned emergency landing prior to land ?

A

“Attention crew brace brace”

75
Q

What are the cockpit assigned duties for an evacuation ?

A
  • Take High vis
  • Take load form
  • Take emergency equipment
    If possible to reach cabin
    Captain :
  • last person to leave cockpit
  • go in cabin and help pax, last person to leave the A/C
  • Evacuate via the rear pax door or others if unreachable
  • On ground he takes the lead until rescue team
    FO :
  • Proceed to cabin
  • Evacuate via available exit
  • Help Pax on ground
76
Q

when can you not follow the EOSID ?

A

once above MSA or in VMC

77
Q

When is the engine secured ?

A
  • Engine flameout………Engine Master OFF.
  • Damage…………………..Discharge of Agent 1.
  • Fire………………………….Discharge of Agent 1 (and Agent 2 if necessary).
78
Q

What is the maximum time at takeoff thrust ?

A

10min OEI

5min all engines

79
Q

What is the standard EOSID ?

A

Climb straight head until 1000ft AAL push to level off then clean up
accelerate to green dot then OPEN Climb MCT and at 1500ft AAL then turn to HP

80
Q

What should you do if you have an eng failure below the one ENG Acceleration alt ?

A

follow the ENG out procedure

81
Q

After an eng failure and above 1500ft AAL Can you turn to nearest HP ?

A

Yes, a radius of 30NM is survey for obstacle and allow you to turn toward an holding above 1500ft

Above 1500 ft, a radius of 30 NM is surveyed for limiting obstacles. This ensures that obstacle clearance is available for engine failure in the SID routing as well as transition to the ENG FAIL HP. All SID routes are normally included in the calculation of the engine failure procedures. If the engine fails when already established on a SID, turn the nearest way to the ENG FAIL HP

82
Q

when is a runway considered Wet ?

A

When there is any visible dampness or water up to 3MM.

83
Q

Is the benefit of thrust reverser for takeoff perf taken into account on a dry runway ? Wet runway ?

A

Takeoff performance is calculated without the benefit of thrust reversers.
takeoff performance on a wet runway can be calculated with the benefit of thrust reversers. However, it is not allowed to take off at a weight higher than the weight on dry runway. Flexible takeoff and derated takeoff are allowed for a takeoff from a wet runway.

84
Q

What is the maximum allowed thrust reduction on a Flex takeoff ?

A

Not more than 25% of the rated thrust

85
Q

When is a flex takeoff prohibited ?

A

On a contaminated runway

dispatched with landing gear extended

86
Q

What is the max crosswind for takeoff when the runway is slippery when wet ?

A

Max 25Kt

87
Q

When is a runway considered as contaminated ?

A

when more than 25% of one third of the runway is contaminated in the relevant section with :

  • a layer of contaminant
  • a hard contaminant

More than 3mm of : dry snow, wet snow, standing water, slush
or a hard contaminant such as compacted snow, ice or wet ice

88
Q

What are the limitation associated with a take off on contaminated runway ?

A

Toga thrust

Captain PF

89
Q

When is a takeoff prohibited with a contaminated runway (thickness of the contaminant) ?

A

More than 13mm of standing water
30mm wet snow
100mm dry snow

90
Q

What are the requirement for dispatch on a narrow runway ?

A

Minimum 30m
Nosewheel steering working
all brakes working

No autoland

91
Q

What is the minimum missed approach climb gradient ? what A/C config

A

2,5% based on Go around flaps
one eng inop
running eng at Toga
gear up

92
Q

What is the actual landing distance (ALD) ?

A

it’s the horizontal distance necessary to land and stop from 50ft above rwy.

93
Q

What is the difference between inflight landing perf and landing perf dispatch ?

A
  • The IN-FLIGHT LDG PERF assessment is used to determine the Factored Landing Distance (F-LD) which is used to assess actual margins on LDA. It is based on actual reported conditions at the aerodrome, including RWYCC. It also allows the flight crew to determine the most appropriate selections to be made for:

Landing Flaps configuration (CONF3 or CONF FULL)

Thrust Reversers (IDLE or MAX)

Braking Mode (Auto Brake LOW/MED or Max Manual Braking)

  • The DISPATCH LDG PERF is the actual landing distance (ALD) time a factor to obtain the required landing distance (RLD).
    Actual landing distance been horizontal distance from 50ft to stop
    Required landing distance will be ALDx1,67= RLD dry, ALDx 1,92= RLD wet
94
Q

When do you use the RWYCC (global reporting format) ?

A

For in flight performance.
For takeoff and dispatch perf you should use the depth of contaminants and if required for takeoff use the Runway condition determinator

95
Q

When would you use the RCAM (runway condition assessment matrix) ?

A

With GRF concept, the RCAM is normally only used by flight crew to determine the Maximum Crosswind for Landing (Gust included).

96
Q

Fuel loading, what is the fuel burn of APU, Taxi, and holding ?

A

APU : 2Kg/Min so 60Kg/30min
Taxi: 10Kg/min two engines, 7Kg/min One engine
Holding : 40Kg/min so 400kg/10min

97
Q

LVP Management of degraded guidance? What must be done before 1000ft?

A

ECAM / QRH procedure complete
Required equipment check
APPR LDG capability check
RVR Check
DH Adjust

98
Q

Required Equipment for RVSM?

7 items

A

F 1
F 1
A 1
T 1
P 2
A 2
D 2

F
FCU

F
FWC

A
AP

T
Transponder

P
PFD

A
ADR

D
DMC

99
Q

Where to find required equipment for RNP or RNP AR approaches

A

FCOM Procedures, Special Operations, PBN, RNP / AR

100
Q

Where to find RNP and RNP AR management of degraded guidance?

A

OMB, SOP, APPROACH, Guidance management

COAS 2022 (28 decks)

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