FCTM

Question 1

What is fuel freezing and the minimum temperature?

Answer 1

Fuel freezing refers to the formulation of wax crystals suspended in the fuel.

-43 degrees C for Jet A1

Standard rate of cooling is 3degrees per hr but up to 12 degrees in extreme conditions.

Increase TAT to stabilise temp of fuel so descend or speed up.

Question 2

What does REC MAX FL and OPT FL mean?

Answer 2

REC MAX FL: Provides a 0.3g buffet margin.

OPT FL: Minimum cost when ECON mach is flown. Needs wind and temp info.

For each mach no, there will be a different OPT FL.

Question 3

Overspeed warning during slats / flaps transition.

What is it based on? When can it happen?

Answer 3

During transition. Respect VMAX on PFD. This is based on slats / flaps control lever position.

Overspeed warning is based on the ACTUAL slat / flap surface position. Therefore during transition and dynamic acceleration. There may be temp overspeed even if current speed is outside the red and black strip. No operational consequences but must be reported.

Question 4

Explain auto slat / flap retraction at heavy weight?

Answer 4

In conf 1+F and IAS 210, the automatic retraction system activated and retracts flaps to 0. VFE changes from CONF 1 + F to VFE CONF 1. When aircraft above S Speed, flap lever to 0.

Question 5

What is the alpha lock function when retracting flaps?

Answer 5

At high AOA or low speed, slats will lock into place if flaps lever moved from 1 to 0. ‘A.LOCK’ will push on the E/WD above the slat indication.

Question 6

If one of two tyres are deflated, what are the taxi limitations?

Answer 6

One tyre deflated - 7kts and NWS can be used

Two tyres - 3kts. NWS limited to 30 degrees

Question 7

What is the TCAS operating technique?

Answer 7

TA - ‘TCAS I have control’ or ‘TCAS BLUE’

RA - Disconnect AP, follow green VSI within 5 seconds and request FD’s off. Notify ATC.

FD’s come off to ensure auto thrust speed mode. If necessary use full speed range between V Alpha Max and V Max.

For any ‘Climb’ on approach with F3 or F Full, perform a go around. Check V/S green and take over if required.

Question 8

When should TA be selected on transponder?

Answer 8

• Engine failure
• Known traffic nearby in visual contact
• Flight with LDG gear down
• Operations a specific airports and during specific procedures with potential for not wanted or appropriate RA’s. e.g closely spaces parallel runways.

Question 9

What are the TCAS icons and what do they mean?

How long are you expected to take to respond?

Answer 9

Monitor V/S / climb / descend. 5 seconds.

Climb Now, Increase climb. 2.5 seconds

Question 10

What are the ROP alerts you could see on the ground?

When can you reduce thrust during braking?

Answer 10

BRAKE, MAX BRAKING, MAX BRAKING.

PF immediately apply and keep max manual brakes and apple and keep max reverse.

If ‘SET MAX REVERSE’ triggers apply and keep max revers

If ‘ KEEP MAX REVERSE’ triggers, keep max reverse as long as necessary.

Below 70kts and no PFD message. Max reverse and aircraft stopping ok, then idle thrust can be selected.

Question 11

What are the ROW alerts you could see on approach?

Answer 11

Amber RWY TO SHORT - consider go around.

Amber IF WET RWY TOO SHORT - If dry continue, if wet go around.

Red RWY TOO SHORT - Go around.

Question 12

When is ROW/ ROP available?

Answer 12

ROW function arms 400’ AGL until start of braking.

ROP function - start of braking till the aircraft stops.

Question 13

When may a flex take off not be used?

Answer 13

Contaminated runways or when advised by CCI

Question 14

What happens if you do a ZFW entry error and what are the operational consequences?

Answer 14

Erroneous ZFW affects:
- FM predictions and speeds erroneous
- Incorrect GW and CG on MCDU fuel pred page.
- Incorrect GW on ECAM
- SRS mode guidance affected if VLS above V2
- Characteristic speeds incorrect on take off by correct in flight as FAC GW takes over. (FAC only computes once airborne)

In flight if Fm and FAC GW disagree from a given threshold. A ‘CHECK GW’ message is triggered on MCDU.

V alpa prot or max not affected since based on aerodynamic data. AOA etc.

Question 15

What is the navigation accuracy crosscheck technique?

What to do in case of map shift? What message would you expect to see on MCDU?

Answer 15

Compare TO WPT or bearing computed date to RAW data such as beacon distance.

Message - CHECK A/C POSITION. FM1/FM2 POS MISMATCH

Question 16

In case of map shift, how would you do a position update and what nav accuracy would you expect to get?

Answer 16

Recommended technique…

Update over beacon by pressing update prompt once estimated that the aircraft overflies beacon using the needle.

Error induced is approx 4 to 5nm and Nav Accuracy LOW.

Second technique. Use a point bearing distance.

Question 17

When does Alpha Floor activate and how to deactivate?

Answer 17

Alpha floor activates then AOA goes beyond the A.FLOOR threshold. This means the aircraft has significantly decelerated below the A PROT speed.

ATHR automatically activates and TOGA commanded regardless of thrust lever position.

When AOA below the A.FLOOR threshold, you get TOGA LOCK. This can only be removed using the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons.

Question 18

When is Alpha floor available and inhibited?

Answer 18

Alpha floor is available in normal law, from lift off to 100’ RA at landing.

Inhibited in some cases of engine failure.

Question 19

What are the airbus golden rules?

Answer 19

1. Fly, Navigate, Communicate. In this order with appropriate task sharing.
2. Use the appropriate level of automation at all times.
3. Understand the FMA at all times.
4. Take action if things do not go as expected.

Question 20

What are the four sections that QRH summaries are divided into and when do we use them?

Answer 20

• Cruise
• Approach
• Landing
• Go around

ECAM first, then status then QRH summaries.

Question 21

What’s the difference between a black and red guarded control?

Answer 21

Black - reversible

Red - Irreversible

Question 22

What actions are to be crosschecked (confirmed)?

Answer 22

• ENG master Lever
• IR mode selector
• All guarded controls
• Cockpit CB’s

Question 23

Explain LAND ASAP on ECAM?

Answer 23

LAND ASAP RED.

Land as soon as possible at the nearest airport at which a safe landing can be made.

LAND ASAP AMBER

Consider landing at the nearest suitable airport.

Question 24

In case of an abnormal or emergency situation, what sequence should procedures be followed?

Answer 24

• Memory items or OEB immediate actions
• OEB
• ECAM
• QRH

Question 25

What is the glide slope interception from above procedure?

Answer 25

Press APPR PB on FCU and confirm G\S is armed and LOC engaged. Monitor vertical intercept.

Select FCU altitude above a/c altitude to avoid unwanted ALT* engagement.

Select V/S 1500’min initially. V/S in excess of 2000’min will result in speed increasing towards VFE.

Question 26

What is decision height?

Answer 26

The DH is the height above the runway elevation by which a go around must be initiated if not visual

Question 27

What is there alert height?

Answer 27

100’

The alert height is the height above runway based on the fail operational automatic landing system above which a CAT3 approach would be discontinued and a missed approach initiated if a failure occurred in one of the redundant parts of the automatic landing system.

If a failure affecting fail operational criteria occurs below AH, it would be ignored and approached continued except in case of RED auto land light.

AH concept is relevant which CAT 3 DUAL displayed.

Question 28

What is CAT3 SINGLE

Answer 28

Systems are fail passive. Single failure may lead to AP disconnect. Minimum DH 50ft

Question 29

What is CAT 3 DUAL

Answer 29

Systems are fail operational. In case of single failure AP continues to land. Below AH, the approach flare and landing can be completed by the remaining part of the automatic system.

Question 30

Autoland key approach points

Answer 30

Below 700’ RA FMS frozen. eg ILS tune

Below 400’ RA FCU Frozen

350’ LAND FMA

Below 200’ ‘Autoland warning’ triggers if:
- Both AP’s trip off
- Excessive beam deviation sensed
- LOS or G/S transmitter or receiver fail
- RA discrepancy of at least 15’ sensed.

40’ FLARE

30’ THR IDLE

10’ RETARD

Question 31

What is the FLS function. What FMA’s would you see?

Answer 31

FLS = FMS landing system

F-G/S. F-LOC

Approach capability and downgrades are displayed on FMA when LS PB pressed.

Question 32

Using FLS, what are the potential FMA’s and down grades you could see?

Answer 32

F-APP: FLS deviations and F-G/S && F-LOC guidance are available. THIS IS THE ONLY ONE WE CAN FLY WITH.

F-APP + Raw. Flight crew can refer to FSL deviations by must cross check with nav aid raw data.

Raw Only. Flight crew must not use FLS.

Question 33

Using FLS what icons are the Loc and Glide?

Answer 33

LOC is displayed as a single diamond.

F-G/S is displayed as a double diamond.

Question 34

Circling approach and Visual approach wind corrections. What are they?

Answer 34

Circling. No corrections.

Visual. +/- 1 second for headwind / tailwind

Question 35

What is the protected area when circling?

Answer 35

4.2nm from both thresholds.

Question 36

Explain how we check if we need to use reversers on a wet runway?

Answer 36

Prior to use of REV isle on wet runways, flight crew shall perform an in flight landing distance assessment made with the following parameters:

• RWY condition set to 3 - medium
• Autobrake LOW or MED as required
• REV set to NO (STD)

If F-LD outside LDA, max reverse must be used.

If F-LD within the LDA, the flight crew shall select at least REV idle during landing

For max cross wind limits use the actual RYW CC 5 Good.

Question 37

What is the definition of actual landing distance?

Answer 37

From crossing the threshold at 50ft until full-stop of the aircraft.

Question 38

What is the tailwind takeoff technique?

Answer 38

Full forward side stick

50%

Rapidly to 70%, then above 15kts ground speed progressively increases thrust to reach take off thrust by 40kts ground speed.

Full forward stick till 80kts

Question 39

Can we correct Vapp for gusty conditions?

Answer 39

In case of strong or gusts crosswind greater than 20kts. Vapp should be at least VLS +5. The 5kt increment above VLS may be increased up to 15kts at the flight crews discretion..

Question 40

What is SAT and TAT?

Answer 40

Static air temperature. The actual temperature of the air.

Total air temperature. The temperature the aircraft feels due to dynamic heating.

Question 41

What are your immediate actions for engine failure during cruise?

Answer 41

Set MCT
Disconnect ATHR
Set HDG as appropriate
Determine the engine out recovery altitude

When ready for descent.
Set speed and pull
Set engine out recovery altitude and pull for open descent.

Question 42

You have a dual rad alt failure. Can you intercept the localiser and glide slope?

Answer 42

You can only use LOC PB