Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

COAS 2022 > OMA > Flashcards

OMA Flashcards

1
Q

What is the procedure for reporting a bird strike?

A

Inform ATC & Complete ASR, Contact MOC, Fill out birdstrike form and insert into tech log.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the regulatory authority of the commander?

A

All persons carried in the aircraft obey all lawful commands given by the commander for the purpose of securing the safety of the aircraft and of persons or property carried therein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the regulatory responsibilities of the commander?

A

Safety of aircraft, pax and cargo

Removal of hazardous people or cargo

No drunk people, no INAD/DEPORTEE or PRISONER IF they pose a threat to safety

Ensure pax safety briefed

Ensure ops procedures and checklists followed

Pre flight inspection

ACAS report in event of TCAS RA

Bird strikes notify ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the company responsilbilties of the commander

A

FD Door locked when engines are running

All passengers and crew seated for takeoff and landing

Uniform standards

Post flight debrief as required

Listening watch 121.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who can carry fire arms?

A

Domestic police protection officers on domestic flights in the UK, Germany, Italy and Spain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What and when do security searches need to be carried out?

A

It’s always a search unless the aircraft is in EU and it’s last sector came from the EU/UK.
Search:
Departing from UK inc JER IOM GIB
Departing from anywhere and previous sector came from non EU exc.
Switzerland (Inc. Tel Aviv, Egypt)
Cold aircraft
Aircraft parked outside tarmac area for pax boarding
Left outside maintenance hanger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the disruptive passenger classifications?

A

Level 1. Non compliance, irrational & disorderly.

Level 2. Physically disruptive in damage to aircraft. Physical assault of pax or crew.

Level 3. Life threatening behaviour inc any weapons and attempts to open aircraft exits.

Level 4. Attempted breach of flight deck door inc violence directed at the door.

Level 3 & 4. Do not open flight deck door.

Police called fro level 2, 3 & 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Explain all about bomb threats.

What do you do if a message is found on board?

A

Green. Non credible. No action required.

Amber. Doubtful credibility. consider options. On stand - consult duty manager. Not used in flight or taxiing.

Red. Credible and specific requiring immediate protective measures.
On stand - disembark - no slides.
Taxiing - taxi to quiet area and evacuate.
In flight - Divert

Warning message discovered in flight:
1. Confirm search carried out prior to departure
2. Contact ICC
3. Continue Green if unable to contact ICC unless further notes found.
4. Do not take action until assessed by ICC.
5. Preserve message - fingerprints etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Does easyJet have dangerous good approval?

A

No. However, ICAO allows a limited number of items for pax and crew.

Exceptions: Airworthiness and operational items such as fire extinguishers, portable oxygen etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Do we have ETOPS approval?

A

No. We must remain within 1hr flying time of adequate aerodrome.

Max 60min one engine cruise:

A319 380nm
A320 / 321 400nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Visual requirements for all approaches

A

CAT 1. Elements of approach lighting

LTS CAT 1. Same as Cat 2 Visuals

CAT 2. 3 consecutive lights and lateral element

OTS CAT 2 Same as Cat 2

CAT 3 WITH DH. 3 consecutive lights

CAT 3 NO DH. No lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the relevant part of RVR for take off and landing?

A

Take off: RVR for acceleration to V1 followed by reject and deceleration to approx 60kts

Landing: RVR for landing down to speed of 60kts approx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

1000’ AGL or FAF where DH is more than 1000’

Cannot continue past ban point if RVR less than minima

If, after passing 1000’ RVR decreases, approach may be continued.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does landing assured mean?

A

A landing is assured if, in the judgement of the commander, it could be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground and/or airborne facilities.

e.g. CAT II/III to CAT I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Max No of approaches?

A

No more than two approaches may be flown when there has been a go-around due to weather unless there has been a significant improvement or state of emergency exists.

In exceptional circumstances a third approach may be flown when a go-around has been carried out for non weather related reasons providing that the commander is satisfied that landing is assured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the approach policy?

A

Use the highest level of approach guidance available. It is permissible to carry out an approach using a lower level of guidance.

E.g practice no precision when ILS available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the automation policy?

A

Use the highest level of automation appropriate to the phase of flight and airspace.

To do any manual flying with automatics out: Both pilots must have completed two duties as operating pilots in the preceding 14 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Wake turbulence approach separation minima

A

Final approach:

A380: 7nm
Heavy: 5nm
Upper Medium: 4nm

Landing behind 380 also 3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Wake turbulence departure separation minima

A

Same position. 380 - 3 min. Heavy 2 min

Intermediate position. 380 4 min. Heavy 3min

Medium. None required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What separation should a thunderstorm have?

A

5000’ Vertical

Lateral:

30,000’ - 20nm

25,000’ - 15nm

20,000’ - 10nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Explain the minimum fuel call

A

When a further change in clearance may result in landing below final reserve

When committed to land & cannot divert any more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When can you substitute a conventional nav aid with RNAV?

A

RNAV substitution ok when FMGC announces:

SID/EO SID - GPS PRIMARY / Nav Accuracy High

STAR / Transition above FAP or FAF - Nav Accuracy High

Missed approach - Nav Accuracy High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the daily check validity?

When can it be done?

A

48hr in addition to remaining part of the day if done late at night.

Done after last flight of day and after 1800UTC

e.g Daily done at 2245 on 17th. Validity commences 0001 18th, and expires 2359 19th.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Difference between a Level 1 and Level 2 defect in the tech log?

A

Level 1 - Airworthiness. e.g might affect landing capability. For example RA Inop

Level 2 - Non airworthiness. For example dirty carpets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What certificates must be carried on board?

And which on EFB?

A

On board Originals:
- Certificate of airworthiness
- Airworthiness review certificate
- Certificate of registration

EFB
- Air Operator Certificate
- Noise Certificate
- Radio Licence
- Third party insurance certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the passenger classifications?

Are unaccompanied minors allowed?

A

Adults are 12yrs and above

Child. 2 years and above

Infant. Less than 2 years

No unaccompanied minors under 16 unless approved by ICC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the approach minimas?

Decision heights and RVS’s required?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the take off minima?

A

LVP’s 125m for relevant RVR’s if runway edge and centre line lighting and multiple RVR’s

This can be replaced with a 90m visual segment from the cockpit. Lights are 15m apart so need 6 lights.

NO LVP’s.
With lighting 400m RVR & 400 VIS
Without lighting 500m RVR & 500 VIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When are two destination alternates required?

A

When wx one hr before and after arrival time is below planning minima.

OR

No met info at destination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do you do if alcohol suspected on a crew member?

A

Advise crew that they will be stood down.

Advise duty pilot of suspicion via ICC

Contact crewing for a replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Total flight time limitations

A

100hrs in 28 days

900hrs in a calendar year

1000hrs in 12 consecutive months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Using discretion, how long can an FDP be extended for?

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When is no alternate required?

A

Max 6hr flight
2 separate runways, two approaches and 1hr before & after arrival, ceiling 2000’ or circling + 500’ and VISD 5km

OR

The destination is isolated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Explain the RFFS Services Required and acceptable downgrades?

A

A319 / 320 CAT 6
A321 CAT 7

Downgrades: Cat 5 permitted with low volumes of commercial traffic.

ATC / NOTAM / ATIS: Two below the aeroplane category

All Alternates: UK 5, Non UK 4

Regardless of all this, a commander can land if it is considered safer to do so than divert.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define an isolate aerodrome

A

An aerodrome is isolated when alternate and final reserves g greater than 2hrs.

easyJet does not hold approval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define a suitable aerodrome

A

The aerodrome is adequate for the operation and is weather permissible.

This means MET at or above operating minima and runway surface conditions indicate a safe landing can be made.

Aerodrome also equipped with necessary ancillary services such as ATC, lighting, comms, nav aids, emergency services etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Crew alcohol limit

A

None 10hrs before

Prior to this in moderation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pilots recency for qualification

A

Can’t operate unless in th preceding 90 days, 3 take offs, approaches and landings in an aircraft or a full flight sim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How many 3* cabin crew can you fly with?

A

3 Cabin Crew. Max 1 3*

4 Cabin Crew. Max 2 3*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Max age for pilots and any restrictions?

A

Max age 65

Not more than one flight crew over 60

41
Q

What makes up the fuel carried on board?

A

Taxi
Trip
Contingency
Alternate
Additional
Final Reserve
Extra

42
Q

Where can a fuel enroute alternate be?

A

Fuel ERA should be in a circle radius 20% of flight plan distance

The centre of which is 25% or 20% plus 50miles from destination in still air

43
Q

What are the destination alternate and en-route alternate planning minimas?

A

Approach. Planning minima

CAT II & 3. CAT 1 RVR

CAT 1 NPA RVR/VIS

NPA NPA RVR + 1000m
Ceiling MDH + 200’

Circling Circling

44
Q

What is additional fuel?

A

When no destination alternate. 15min holding at 1500’ - half final reserve.

Following loss of pressurisation or engine failure at most critical point. Fuel to descend, divert and hold for 15min at 1500’ before approach and landing.

45
Q

What is final reserve and extra fuel?

What is the penalty for carrying extra fuel?

A

Final reserve - 30min 1500’

Extra fuel - Commanders discretion. Thunderstorms, ATC etc

Penalty = 3% of extra fuel per hour of flight

46
Q

What is alternate fuel?

A

Missed approach to landing at alternate.

When two alternates required. Fuel carried will be for the further one.

47
Q

What is contingency fuel?

When can it be used?

A

If statistical contingency fuel available. Contingency fuel will be greater of: CONT 99 or CONT 95 or 5min holding 1500’

If no SCF available. Greater of 5% trip or 5min holding.

SCF can be reduced to 3% of trip with fuel en-route alternate or 5min holding whichever is greater.

Can be used anytime after push back or engine start.

48
Q

What is taxi and trip fuel?

A

Taxi fuel - Fuel prior to take off inc APU usage.

Trip - Take off to landing

49
Q

Visual Approach Minima

A

2500’ cloud ceiling or circling minima if higher.

5000m VIS

50
Q

What is the route MORA and what clearance does it give us?

A

Minimum Off Route Altitude.

MFAs depicted on OFPs are based upon route MORA and provide 1000ft of clearance for terrain up to 5000ft and 2000ft of clearance above 5000ft within 20nm of the route.

The minimum MFA value depicted on OFP’s is 2000ft.

51
Q

What is the minimum grid altitude and what clearance does it give us?

A

MGA represents the lowest safe altitude which can be flown off-track. The MGA is calculated by rounding up the elevation of the highest obstruction within the grid area to the next 100ft and adding an increment of:

1000ft for terrain up to 6000ft

2000ft for terrain above 6000ft

52
Q

When does the MEL no longer apply?

A

MEL no longer applies when the a/c starts to move under it’s own power for the purpose of flight e.g taxiing.

53
Q

When is VIS to RVR conversion not to be used?

A

When RVR reported.
For calculating take off minima
For any RVR less than 800m after conversion.

54
Q

When do headsets need to be worn?

A
  • On ground for ATC clearance or when engines running.
  • From engine start to top of climb and from top of descent to parked
  • When one pilot on flight deck
  • When communicating with cabin crew via inter phone or using VHF 2 in flight.

-Whenever deemed necessary by the commander

55
Q

What does CAVOK mean?

A

Cloud and visibility OK.

10km VIS, NO CB or TCU and no cloud below 5000’ or MSA, whichever is greater

56
Q

What is RVSM airspace

A

RVSM is 29000 to 41000

Reduced vertical separation minima

57
Q

Definition of separate runways?

A

They are separate landing surfaces which may overlay or cross such that is one of the runways is blocked it will not prevent the planned type of operation on the other runway.

Each runway shall have a separate approach procedure based on a separate navigation aid

58
Q

Minimum crew for boarding?

A

Not applicable to 319 operating with 3 cabin crew.

One flight crew on flight deck

Cabin Manager on board

No refuelling

One CC at back, One in middle. for 320/319

One extra by mid emergency exit for 321.

Max 50pax per cabin crew.

59
Q

What category is the 320 aircraft and what does it mean?

A

Category C - approach speed between 121 and 140kts.

60
Q

What is the definition of a safe landing?

A

In the context of fuel schemes, a landing at an adequate aerodrome with no less than the final reserve fuel remaining and in complicate with the applicable operational procedures and aerodrome operating minima.

61
Q

What is an airworthiness review certificate?

A

All Part 21 aircraft types that qualify for a Part 21 Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) are issued with a non-expiring C of A, which is validated annually with an Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC).

62
Q

How long is a tempo forecast expected to last?

A

30min or more but less than 60 minutes

63
Q

Where would you find a list of dangerous goods?

A

OMA Section 9

64
Q

What is the radio monitoring policy?

A

VHF 1. On at all times.
VHF 2. 121.5 in cruise all times, climb or descent as appropriate.

65
Q

Are there any temperature corrections for MSA?

A

Yes, in very cold temperatures. Use the high altitude temperature correction table in OMA.

66
Q

When do we need a temperature correction for approach?

A

surface temp -10 or below

67
Q

Can the destination and the alternate both be based on PBN ?

A

No one of the two has to be equipped with an instrument approach other than GNSS

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.5

68
Q

What are the aerodromes categories ?

A

Category A:

Non-complex and can be treated as routine.

Category B:

Complexity requiring specific briefing, e.g. audio visual briefing, aerodrome brief in the Aerodrome Briefing Supplement.

Category B Restricted:

Complexity and threat levels requiring specified restrictions but not requiring an aerodrome visit or specific training.

Category C:

Special crew qualification required which can be achieved by an aerodrome visit or specific training.

69
Q

What is required on ground and in the A/C to perform an automatic rollout?

A

Cat II ground equipment
NWS and antiskid
Not approved on contaminated RWY

70
Q

What are the requirements to replace an incapacitated SCCM while away from base?

A

Use a qualified SCCM crew, if none available, use the most senior with the minimum requirement of 12 months and 20 sectors on the A/C. Should be replaced when transiting via transit base, but if none available can continue to originating base.

71
Q

What re the consequences of the loss of one engine for a low vis approach?

A

The aircraft becomes CAT IIIA so only CAT 3 single on the FMA.

Autoland in config FULL only for A320, Config 3/FULL for a319 and Neo.

72
Q

What altimeter accuracy do you need in RVSM airspace?

A

The primary altimeters must agree within 200ft before entering, and whilst operating in RVSM airspace.

73
Q

What are the requirements to do refueling with pax ?

A

Aircraft

  • The required interior lighting to enable emergency exits to be identified must be serviceable.
  • All doors must remain disarmed. Door 1 left must be open and the steps or airbridge must be in position.
  • A clear evacuation route from the aircraft must be available, via an airbridge or steps.
  • The rear passenger door should be open with steps in position, however it may remain closed with no steps attached, provided the slide is serviceable. The ground area beneath the exits that are intended for emergency evacuation and the slide deployment areas must be kept clear.
  • The position of the fuel bowser/installation relative to the aeroplane is to be such that it will not impede the rapid exit of passengers if an emergency evacuation becomes necessary;

Cabin Crew

  • The procedure is not permitted when operating with reduced cabin crew.
  • All crew must be on board. At least one cabin crew member must be in attendance at each set of main exits to assist passengers in the event that an evacuation or an emergency should occur.
  • The cabin crew must brief the passengers not to smoke at any time on the ground and to keep seatbelts unfastened, until refuelling has been completed.
  • Use of toilets by passengers must be limited, so there is no queuing in the aisles.

Operational

  • If required by the local national or airport authority, air traffic control and the aerodrome fire services are to be advised that fuelling will be taking place with passengers on board (Check CCI/AOI)
  • For a crew swap, refuelling may commence if acknowledgement has been received from the flight crew and refuelling is monitored by the off-going crew.
74
Q

What is the minimum age to travel ?

A

2 weeks

75
Q

How many infant per adult can be carried ?

A

2

76
Q

Until what week of pregnancy can a pregnant woman travel ?

A
  • Pregnant mothers can be accepted for travel up to the end of the 35th week for single pregnancies.
  • Pregnant mothers expecting more than one baby (e.g. twins) can only be accepted for travel up to the end of the 32nd week.

Medical certification is not required for expectant mothers to travel.

77
Q

Can a flight be operated as VFR ?

A

Normally always IFR and with ATC and generally not allow, VFR only when authorized by the duty pilot

78
Q

When should a commander not take off or continue to dest with respect to the wx condition ?

A
  • should not continu or take off unless the expected wx at dest or alternate are above/at planning minima
  • nor continue toward dest unless at ETA wx at dest or 1 alternate is above applicable minima
79
Q

Upon landing what wind information should be used to determine the wind limit ?

A

All references to tailwind limitations and maximum demonstrated crosswinds in Operations Manuals and FCOMs are referenced to the ATC reported wind.

80
Q

Does easyjet hold the approval to flight all NAT HLA route ?

A

NAT HLA Operations are approved on special routes only:

  • Blue Spruce Routes between Europe and Iceland
  • Tango Routes between Northern Europe and Spain/Canaries/Lisbon FIR

Refer to Lido eRM GEN Part RSI NAT RAR section 2.2.2.13.2.2 Routes within the NAT HLA

81
Q

What are the lateral requirements for NAT HLA ?

A

PBN RNP 4 and RNP 10

One long range navigation system (GNSS, IRS)

82
Q

What are the longitudinal requirement for NAT HLA?

A

One accurate master clock

83
Q

What does the number associated with RNP mean ?

A

nav position error shall be less or equal to RNP value for 95% of the time

84
Q

What should be done prior to enter NAT HLA ?

A

A Time check shall be done. Flight Crew shall ensure that Aircraft main clock is set to GPS time if available.

A NAV accuracy check shall be done if not GPS Primary.

An RVSM Altimeter check.

A SELCAL check shall be done (if HF is to be used for primary communication).

As applicable an Oceanic Clearance shall be obtained and acknowledged prior to NAT HLA entry, on VHF if possible.

85
Q

During flight preparation what is the maximum altimeter difference for RVSM operation ?

A

Max 75ft

86
Q

What are the equipment required for RVSM ?

A
  • 2 primary altimeters
  • one automatic altitude control system (AP)
  • One altitude alerting system
  • one SSR transponder with alt reporting
87
Q

Before entering RVSM airspace what is the max altimeter difference ?

A

200ft before entering

88
Q

When can you not follow GPWS ?

A
  • Daylight
  • VMC condition
  • positive visual verification that no hasard exist
  • and possibility of nuisance has been brief

If triggered, any GPWS must be reported with an ASR

89
Q

What has precedence over a TCAS RA ?

A
  • Stall
  • Windshear
  • GPWS
90
Q

How should you avoid thunderstorms ?

A
  • Avoid by at least 20NM upwind
  • In terminal area avoid by at least 3 NM
  • Do not overfly unless minimum 5000ft above the top
  • do not fly below envil
91
Q

What are the rules for controlled rest ?

A
  • One at a time
  • less than 45min
  • recovery 20min
  • should terminate at least 30min before top of descent
  • Fatigue report
92
Q

What are the two way to recognise crew incapacitation ?

A

No answer to two verbal com

1 verbal com and deviation from standard profile

93
Q

Bomb threat, what should you do if you receive a Red bomb threat in flight?

A
  • Captain informed via ACARS or VHF
  • follow QRH checklist
  • on taxiing, taxi away from terminal, evacuate in a controlled way
  • in flight declare an emergencvy and divert nearest appropriate airport
  • if landing not immediately possible make a search and if suspicious item found move to the Least Risk bomb location
94
Q

Bomb threat, what should you do in case of amber alert while on the ground?

A

Contact the network duty manager who will liaise with the duty security manager and decide the action

95
Q

What should you do if an explosive device is found while in flight ?

A
  • Do not touch or move object
  • move pax away and ask them to keep head down (below the top of the seat)
  • remove from location portable oxy bottle, alcohol, first aid kit
  • fire extinguisher readily available
  • if landing immediately not possible, leave in place and surround with soft material. Humidify the soft material but keep the device dry.
96
Q

What should you do in case of hijack ?

A

Sqwack 7500

Inform ATC ASAP

Switch seat belt sign on and brief CC by interphone

Find somewhere safe to land

avoid violent manoeuvre

97
Q

When is the latest LVP’s should be initiated?

A

ceiling less that 200ft or RVR less than 600m

98
Q

When do you see only red centre line lights?

When do you see red and white centre line lights?

A

Red lights 300m before end

Red and white lights 900m before end or from midpoint if runway less than 1800m

COAS 2022 (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions