Obs doc unknown bits Flashcards

1
Q

how many fifths does there have the be for engagement to have occurred

A

need 2/5 to be able to say engagement has occurred

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2
Q

name 2 things that occur in the ampulla

A

fertilisation

ectopic pregnancies

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3
Q

what does blastocyst mean

A

the term used when the embryo has divided into 2 separate cell masses

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4
Q

what happens to BP during pregnancy and why does this occur

A

maternal BP drops during 2nd trimester due to expansion of uteroplacental circulation

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5
Q

is fetal distress an indication to induce labour. true/false?

A

FALSE - fetal distress is a contraindication to inducing labour

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6
Q

what are the 3 components of active management of the 3rd stage of labour

A

syntocinin
ergometrine - C/I’d in hypertension
controlled cord traction

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7
Q

define ‘engagement’

A

when the presenting part enters the pelvis

2/5 engagement

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8
Q

in the stations used to measure descent (-5 to +5), what anatomical landmark is 0

A

ischial spines

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9
Q

what is the acronym to remember cardinal movements of fetal decent

A

‘Don’t Forget I Enjoy Really Expensive Equipment’

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10
Q

what is 1st line to observe fetus in normal labour

A

doppler US!

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11
Q

in normal Labour, how often are fetal obs carried out

A

stage 1 -every 15 mins and at the start of every contraction

stage 2 -at the END of every contraction or every 5 mins

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12
Q

what is the most effective form of analgesia

A

epidural (L3-L4)

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13
Q

which analgesic slows the 2nd stage of labour and increases chance of malpresentation

A

epidural

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14
Q

how is a spinal different from an epidural

A
  1. spinal injected into subarachnoid space

2. spinal has a faster onset of action and doesn’t last as long

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15
Q

what is the analgesic of choice for C sections

A

SPINAL

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16
Q

what roots make up the pudendal nerve

A

S2-S4

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17
Q

at what point in pregnancy is VTE risk highest

A

puerperium

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18
Q

rupture of membranes before what week is classed as PROM

A

<37weeks

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19
Q

what is the main cause of PROM

A

lower genital tract infections

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20
Q

what is classed as failure to progress in the latent stage of the 1st stage

A

> 3-8 hrs to get 4cm dilation

21
Q

how is primary arrest defined

A

<2cm dilation in 4 hours in active phase of stage 1

22
Q

how is secondary arrest defined

A

poor progress of labour after reaching 7cm dilation

23
Q

what does fetal distress indicate

A

fetal hypoxia

24
Q

name 3 signs of fetal distress on CTG

A

bradycardia
loss of variability
late decelerations

25
what should be done if there is confirmed fetal distress
``` IV fluids and sit mum up stop syntoconin take fetal blood sample consider terbutaline (anti-contraction) plan for C section ```
26
what should a normal fetal blood sample be
pH >7.25
27
what is the management for a cord prolapse
terbutaline - anti-contractile | category 1 or 2 CS
28
what antibiotic is given in preterm prelabour rupture of membranes
erythromycin
29
how does steroid promote maturity of the lungs
stimulates surfactant production
30
what is placenta accreta
condition where the placenta embeds into the myometrium
31
what feels like a 'doughy abdomen' O/Ex
placenta accreta
32
what does the uterus feel like on palpitation in a uterine rupture
severe pain
33
what does an inverted uterus feel like on palpitation
it is not palpable and can be seen at vulva it is an emergency- high risk of maternal shock and PPH
34
when is the anomaly scan done
18-20 weeks
35
what blood markers are HIGH in a fetus with downs syndrome
HIGH - `hCG, inhibin A
36
what blood markers are LOW in a fetus with downs syndrome
AFP, PAPP-A, estriol
37
what is trisomy 18
Edward's syndrome
38
what growth deficiency is indicative of placental insufficiency
asymmetrical - normal sized head, small body - suggests not enough blood flow from placenta
39
describe what happens in a rhesus sensitising event
the mothers immune system produces a response against the fetal blood that contains antigens the mother produces antibodies against the antigens
40
why do sensitising events only really affect future pregnancies after the event
initially, IgM is produced by the mother, which doesn't cross the placenta so fetus isnt affected But, the mother eventually produces IgG, which can cross the placenta and damage future pregnancies
41
how does the anti-D antibody injection work?
the anti D antibodies are given to mothers who don't have the antigen this is so that if a sensitising event were to occur, the anti D antibody given would breakdown the fetal antigens in maternal blood the mother would NOT produce her Own antibodies, so would protect future pregnancies
42
what does a +ive indirect coombs mean
mother is sensitised
43
what artery is the standard artery used for doppler
umbilical artery
44
what can NSAIDs cause during pregnancy
premature closure of ductus arteriosus
45
what UTI antibiotic cannot be given in 1st trimester
trimethoprim
46
what should be used for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy
LMWH
47
describe the course of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy
typically gets worse in 1st trimester | improves in 2nd and 3rd trimester
48
what is Sheehan's syndrome
anterior pituitary necrosis due to massive hypovolemic shock caused by PPH causes hypopituitarism
49
how can Sheehan's syndrome present
failure to lactate slowed mental function, weight gain and inability to stay warm amenorrhoea or irregular periods