Obgyn T 22-45 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What percentage of conceptions are affected by fetal abnormalities?
A

Over 50% of conceptions are affected by fetal abnormalities.

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2
Q

What is the percentage of fetal abnormalities in miscarriages and deaths between 20 weeks gestation and 1 year postnatal?

A

About 70% of miscarriages and 15% of deaths between 20 weeks gestation and 1 year postnatal are associated with fetal abnormalities.

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3
Q

What is a major congenital abnormality?

A

A major congenital abnormality is one that results in the death of the baby or severe disability.

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4
Q

What are the most common types of neural tube defects?

A

The most common neural tube defects include anencephaly, microcephaly, spina bifida (with or without myelomeningocele), encephalocele, holoprosencephaly, and hydranencephaly.

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5
Q

What is the outcome for infants with anencephaly or microcephaly?

A

Infants with anencephaly or microcephaly usually do not survive, with many dying during labor or within the first week of life.

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6
Q

How can the risk of neural tube defects be reduced?

A

Pre- and periconceptual folic acid supplementation (400 μg/day) can reduce the incidence of neural tube defects. Women with a history of neural tube defects in pregnancy are advised to take dietary folic acid supplements.

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7
Q

How are congenital cardiac defects detected?

A

Congenital cardiac defects can be diagnosed by real-time ultrasound imaging, particularly using four-chamber views during the 18-week gestation scan.

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8
Q

What are the most common congenital cardiac defects?

A

The most common congenital cardiac defects include ventricular and atrial septal defects, pulmonary and aortic stenosis, coarctation, and transposition (including tetralogy of Fallot).

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9
Q

What is the difference between gastroschisis and exomphalos?

A

Gastroschisis is a defect where the bowel protrudes outside the abdominal cavity without peritoneal covering, separate from the umbilical cord. Exomphalos is a hernia of the umbilical cord with a peritoneal covering, often associated with chromosomal abnormalities.

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10
Q

What characterizes Down’s syndrome (DS)?

A

Down’s syndrome is characterized by abnormal facial features, varying degrees of mental retardation, and congenital heart disease. It is caused by an additional chromosome on group 21.

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11
Q

How does maternal age affect the risk of Down’s syndrome?

A

The risk of Down’s syndrome increases with advancing maternal age due to a higher frequency of nondisjunction during meiosis.

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12
Q

What methods are used in screening for fetal abnormalities?

A

Screening methods include identifying clinical risk factors, using ultrasound (US), and performing biochemical testing of maternal serum.

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13
Q

What is the combined screening test for Down’s Syndrome (DS) in the first trimester?

A

The combined screening test for DS includes using ultrasound (US) and biochemistry, performed towards the end of the first trimester, along with a detailed US scan at around 20 weeks.

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14
Q

What should be offered if a woman misses the first-trimester Down’s Syndrome (DS) screening?

A

If a woman misses the first-trimester DS screening, a biochemical screening test should be offered at about 16 weeks.

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15
Q

What are the clinical risk factors in early pregnancy for fetal abnormality?

A

Clinical risk factors in early pregnancy include maternal age and risk of aneuploidy (especially DS), maternal drug ingestion (anticonvulsants, cytotoxic agents, warfarin), a previous history of fetal abnormality, and maternal diseases like diabetes and congenital heart disease.

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16
Q

What maternal drugs are associated with an increased risk of fetal abnormalities?

A

Maternal drugs associated with increased risk include anticonvulsants (CNS and neural tube defects), cytotoxic agents used in cancer therapy, and warfarin (especially when used in the first trimester).

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17
Q

What clinical risk factors are associated with fetal abnormality in late pregnancy?

A

Late pregnancy risk factors include persistent breech presentation or abnormal lie, vaginal bleeding, abnormal fetal movements, abnormal amniotic fluid volume (polyhydramnios or oligohydramnios), and growth restriction.

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18
Q

What are the two early ultrasound scans offered during pregnancy, and when are they done?

A

The first ultrasound is ideally between 11w+0d and 13w+6d to confirm fetal viability and gestation. The second ultrasound is offered at about 20 weeks.

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19
Q

What measurements are taken during the second ultrasound scan?

A

The second ultrasound measures fetal viability, head and abdominal circumferences, biparietal diameter, femur length, amniotic fluid volume, and performs an anatomical survey of organ systems.

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20
Q

How is the accuracy of Down’s Syndrome risk prediction increased in screenings?

A

The accuracy of DS risk prediction is increased by combining nuchal translucency (NT) measurements with biochemical markers such as β-hCG and pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A.

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21
Q

What does the ‘combined screening test’ for Down’s Syndrome consist of?

A

The combined screening test includes NT, β-hCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A) and should occur when the crown-rump length (CRL) measures between 45-84 mm during ultrasound screenings.

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22
Q

What four chemicals are measured in maternal serum for Down’s Syndrome risk assessment?

A

The four chemicals measured are hCG, α-fetoprotein (aFP), unconjugated oestriol (uE3), and inhibin-A.

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23
Q

What further assessment options are available for women with an increased risk of chromosomal abnormalities?

A

Women with an increased risk of chromosomal abnormalities can undergo an invasive test, such as chorionic villus sampling (CVS) in the first trimester or amniocentesis in the second trimester, which provides information about chromosome number and structure but carries a 1% risk of miscarriage.

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24
Q

What imaging techniques can be used to clarify a suspected structural fetal abnormality?

A

Further imaging techniques include additional ultrasound (US) examinations after 1–2 weeks for better visualization or an MRI scan, especially useful for abnormalities of the central nervous system.

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25
Q

What follow-up test may be offered if a fetus is suspected of having a chromosomal abnormality based on anatomical appearances?

A

If anatomical appearances suggest a chromosomal abnormality, a CVS (placental biopsy in later pregnancy) or amniocentesis may be offered for further assessment.

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26
Q

What are possible interventions if further fetal abnormalities are confirmed?

A

Possible interventions include termination of pregnancy, maternally administered anti-arrhythmic drugs for fetal cardiac arrhythmias, or insertion of a vesico-amniotic drain to treat fetal urethral obstruction and prevent renal damage.

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27
Q
  1. What are key screening methods for fetal health in low-risk pregnancies?
A

Screening for low-risk pregnancies includes maternal vigilance for fetal activity, fundal height measurement (±3 cm range), and auscultation of the fetal heart using a Pinard stethoscope or Doppler ultrasound at every antenatal visit.

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28
Q

What is the significance of ‘absent end-diastolic flow’ (AEDV) in umbilical artery Doppler recordings?

A

AEDV indicates increased placental vascular resistance and is associated with worse outcomes such as growth restriction, hypoxia, and fetal death.

Management includes close surveillance or elective preterm delivery if occurring after 34 weeks.

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29
Q

What does ‘reversed diastolic flow’ in umbilical artery Doppler recordings suggest?

A

Reversed diastolic flow is a highly ominous sign, associated with imminent fetal death. Management depends on gestational age, and delivery may be discussed if the pregnancy is at 26 weeks or more.

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30
Q

How is fetal growth documented in at-risk pregnancies?

A

Fetal growth is best documented through serial ultrasound measurements of head circumference (HC) and abdominal circumference (AC), which help identify growth patterns and assess fetal wellbeing.

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31
Q

What are the characteristics of a constitutionally small fetus?

A

A constitutionally small fetus is typically genetically small, with no underlying pathological cause. It has a lower risk of complications compared to fetuses with growth restrictions due to other causes.

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32
Q

What is the difference between asymmetrical and symmetrical fetal growth restriction?

A

Asymmetrical growth restriction tends to occur later in pregnancy and is often associated with placental issues (UPVD), while symmetrical growth restriction indicates an early pregnancy insult and is linked to higher risks of hypoxia and fetal death.

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33
Q

How are large fetuses categorized in terms of growth?

A

Large fetuses can be constitutionally large, with both head circumference (HC) and abdominal circumference (AC) following the top centile, or large due to other factors like maternal diabetes.

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34
Q
  1. What are the screening methods for fetal health in low-risk pregnancies?
A

Screening in low-risk pregnancies includes maternal vigilance for fetal activity, fundal height measurement (±3 cm from gestational age), and auscultation of the fetal heart using a Pinard stethoscope or Doppler ultrasound at antenatal visits.

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35
Q

How is fundal height measurement used to assess fetal health?

A

Fundal height is measured from the maternal pubic symphysis to the uterine fundus. The normal range is within ±3 cm of the gestational age, e.g., at 32 weeks, the range should be 29–35 cm.

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36
Q

How is the fetal heart monitored during routine antenatal visits?

A

The fetal heart is auscultated at each visit using a Pinard stethoscope or Doppler ultrasound. While the rate is not typically recorded, any abnormalities in the fetal baseline heart rate may be missed in routine practice.

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37
Q

How does umbilical artery Doppler improve fetal outcomes in high-risk pregnancies?

A

Umbilical artery Doppler significantly improves fetal outcomes in high-risk pregnancies by assessing blood flow. Absent end-diastolic flow (AEDV) and reversed diastolic flow are key indicators of placental issues and potential fetal compromise.

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38
Q

What does ‘reversed diastolic flow’ indicate in high-risk pregnancies?

A

Reversed diastolic flow is a critical indicator of imminent fetal death, and management typically involves discussing elective preterm delivery if the pregnancy is at 26 weeks or beyond.

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39
Q

How is fetal growth documented in at-risk pregnancies?

A

Fetal growth is monitored through serial ultrasound measurements of head circumference (HC) and abdominal circumference (AC), which help identify small-for-dates and large-for-dates fetuses

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40
Q

What are the two patterns of suboptimal fetal growth recognized in small fetuses?

A

The two patterns are:

  1. Constitutionally small - due to genetic factors.
  2. Pathological growth restriction - either asymmetrical (later in pregnancy, often related to placental issues) or symmetrical (early pregnancy insult).
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41
Q

What are the risks associated with small-for-dates fetuses?

A

Small-for-dates fetuses, especially those with pathological growth restriction, are at higher risk of fetal death, hypoxia, preterm delivery, and placental bleeding.

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42
Q

How are large fetuses categorized in terms of growth?

A

Large fetuses can either be constitutionally large, with both head circumference (HC) and abdominal circumference (AC) following the top centile, or large due to other factors like maternal diabetes.

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43
Q

What is macrosomia in the context of fetal growth?

A

Macrosomia refers to pathologically large fetuses, where the head circumference (HC) follows a normal centile, but the abdominal circumference (AC) shows accelerated growth across centiles, commonly seen in fetuses of diabetic women.

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44
Q

How is amniotic fluid volume (AFV) assessed?

A

The most accurate estimate of AFV is via ultrasound, using two methods: 1) Single deepest pocket (normal range: 2–8 cm) and 2) Amniotic fluid index (AFI), which is the sum of fluid depths in four quadrants of the uterus.

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45
Q

What is the biophysical profile (BPP) and its significance?

A

The BPP is a combined assessment of fetal wellbeing using five parameters. A normal response is for the fetus to exhibit at least 4 parameters within 40 minutes, indicating immediate wellbeing.

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46
Q

What are the five observations used in the biophysical profile (BPP)?

A

The five observations are:

  1. Fetal heart rate (FHR) – at least 2 accelerations of 15 beats/min or more in 40 minutes.
  2. Fetal movements – at least 3 separate movements in 40 minutes.
  3. Fetal tone – one movement demonstrating a full flexion-extension-flexion cycle.
  4. Fetal breathing – sustained 30 seconds of regular breathing movements.
  5. Amniotic fluid volume (AFV) – at least one vertical pool measuring 2–8 cm.
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47
Q

What interventions are available when a risk to the fetus is proven by fetal surveillance?

A

When fetal risk is identified, the two valuable interventions are:

  1. Elective delivery (at or beyond 34 weeks) or based on immediate risk assessment.
  2. Maternal steroids, such as betamethasone, if elective preterm delivery is likely but only chronic fetal health measures are abnormal.
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48
Q

When is elective delivery considered in high-risk pregnancies?

A

Elective delivery is considered if the risk is identified at 34 weeks or more. If identified earlier, it depends on the immediate risk of fetal death based on assessments such as abnormal biophysical profile scores or reversed end-diastolic flow.

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49
Q

What are the indications for maternal steroid administration in at-risk pregnancies?

A

Maternal steroids, like betamethasone, are given if elective preterm delivery is likely in at-risk pregnancies but only chronic fetal health measures are abnormal, such as absent umbilical artery flow in Doppler studies.

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50
Q

What are some specific interventions for uncommon fetal risks?

A

Specific interventions include:

  1. Maternal drugs for fetal cardiac arrhythmias.
  2. Intrauterine blood transfusion for severe Rhesus isoimmunization.
  3. Laser ablation of placental vascular communications in twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome.
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51
Q
  1. What is labor (parturition)?
A

Labor, or parturition, is the process whereby the products of conception are expelled from the uterine cavity after the 24th week of gestation.

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52
Q

What percentage of deliveries occur at term and what percentage result in preterm labor?

A

About 93-94% of deliveries occur at term (between 37 to 42 weeks), while about 7-8% develop preterm labor and deliver preterm (from 24 to 37 weeks).

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53
Q

How is preterm labor defined?

A

Preterm labor is defined as labor occurring before the commencement of the 37th week of gestation. Before 24 weeks, it results in a previable fetus and is termed miscarriage.

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54
Q

What is prolonged labor and its significance?

A

Prolonged labor is defined as labor lasting in excess of 24 hours in a primigravida and 16 hours in a multigravida, and it is associated with increased fetal and maternal morbidity and mortality.

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55
Q

What occurs during the early preparation phase of labor?

A

The early preparation (pre-labor phase) can last for days and weeks, involving the softening, shortening, and dilation of the cervix, which accelerates with the onset of uterine contractions.

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56
Q

What are the three stages of observed labor?

A

The three stages of observed labor are:

  1. First Stage - from onset of regular contractions to full cervical dilation.
  2. Second Stage - from full cervical dilation to delivery of the fetus.
  3. Third Stage - from delivery of the newborn to delivery of the placenta and membranes.
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57
Q

Describe the phases of the first stage of labor.

A

The first stage is divided into:

Early Latent Phase: Cervix effaces and dilates up to 3 cm (~6-8 hours in nulliparae and 4-6 hours in multiparae).

Active Phase: Cervix dilates from 3 cm to full dilation (10 cm, approximately 1 cm/hour).

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58
Q

What is the second stage of labor?

A

The second stage of labor lasts from full cervical dilation to the delivery of the fetus, divided into:

Pelvic (Passive) Phase: Head descends down the pelvis.

Active Phase: Mother experiences a stronger urge to push, and the fetus is delivered with uterine contractions and maternal effort.

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59
Q

What occurs during the third stage of labor?

A

The third stage of labor is the duration from the delivery of the newborn to the delivery of the placenta and membranes.

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60
Q

What are the clinical signs of the onset of labor?

A

Clinical signs include:

Regular, painful contractions that increase in frequency and duration, leading to cervical dilatation.

Passage of blood-stained mucus (‘show’).

Rupture of fetal membranes, which may occur before or during labor.

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61
Q

How is prelabor rupture of membranes (PROM) defined?

A

Prelabor rupture of membranes (PROM) occurs when the latent period between rupture of membranes and the onset of painful contractions is greater than 4 hours, either at term or in the preterm period (preterm PROM).

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62
Q

What hormonal changes initiate labor?

A

The initiation of labor involves progesterone withdrawal and increases in estrogen and prostaglandin action, regulated by the fetoplacental unit, leading to upregulation of procontractile influences.

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63
Q

What is the role of maternal and fetal plasma CRH at the end of gestation?

A

At the end of gestation, there is an exponential increase in maternal and fetal plasma CRH levels, which increase estrogen synthesis and reduce progesterone synthesis, contributing to the initiation of labor.

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64
Q

What is the role of CRH in labor?

A

CRH stimulates the synthesis of prostaglandins, promotes connectivity of uterine myocytes, and alters myocyte electrical excitability, leading to increased uterine contractions.

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65
Q

How do uterine myocytes contribute to contractions?

A

Uterine myocytes contract and shorten, influenced by ion channels that control calcium ion influx, which promotes contraction of myometrial cells.

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66
Q

What changes occur in the cervix as it prepares for labor?

A

The cervix becomes soft and stretchable due to increased leukocyte infiltration, decreased collagen, and increased proteolytic enzyme activity, leading to cervical ripening.

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67
Q

What is the significance of hyaluronic acid in cervical changes?

A

Increased hyaluronic acid production reduces fibronectin’s affinity for collagen, causing the cervix to become soft and stretchable, facilitating ripening.

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68
Q

What are the essential factors for the progress of labor?

A

Reduced cervical resistance and increased frequency, duration, and strength of uterine contractions are needed for effective labor progress.

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69
Q

How does uterine activity change as labor approaches?

A

Uterine activity increases in frequency, duration, and strength of contractions as full term approaches, transitioning from infrequent, low-intensity contractions throughout pregnancy.

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70
Q

How is labor established in terms of contractions?

A

Labor is established with two contractions, each lasting more than 20 seconds, occurring over 10 minutes.

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71
Q

What are the characteristics of normal resting tonus during labor?

A

Normal resting tonus in labor starts at around 10-20 mmHg and may increase slightly.

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72
Q

How do contractions influence cervical effacement and dilation?

A

Progressive uterine contractions cause effacement and dilation of the cervix through shortening of myometrial fibers in the upper uterine segment and stretching of the lower segment.

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73
Q

What happens to the junction between the upper and lower uterine segments during labor?

A

As labor progresses, the junction between the upper and lower segments rises in the abdomen, and retraction may lead to Bandl’s ring visibility if labor is obstructed.

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74
Q

What is fundal dominance in uterine contractions?

A

Fundal dominance refers to contractions that are stronger and last longer in the fundus and upper segment, essential for effective cervical effacement and dilation.

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75
Q

What changes occur in the pelvic structure during labor?

A

Softening of the sacroiliac ligaments and pubic symphysis allows pelvic cavity expansion, facilitating normal progress and spontaneous vaginal delivery.

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76
Q

Describe the mechanism of labor regarding the pelvic inlet.

A

The pelvic inlet has a larger lateral diameter than anteroposterior diameter, promoting the head to engage in the pelvis in a transverse position.

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77
Q

What pattern does the head and trunk follow during passage through the pelvis?

A

The passage of the head and trunk follows a defined pattern: the upper pelvic strait is transverse, the middle is circular, and the outer is anteroposterior.

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78
Q

What is the normal presentation of the fetal head during labor?

A

The fetal head presents by the vertex in 95% of cases, considered the normal presentation.

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79
Q

What occurs during the descent phase of labor?

A

Descent is both a feature and prerequisite for birth, and the engagement of the head typically occurs before labor onset, serving as a measure of labor progress.

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80
Q

Describe the flexion process of the fetal head during labor.

A

As the head descends, it meets the sloping pelvic floor, causing the chin to contact the fetal thorax, producing a smaller diameter of presentation, changing from occipito-frontal to suboccipitobregmatic.

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81
Q

What is the significance of internal rotation during labor?

A

Internal rotation occurs as the head reaches the pelvic floor, where the occiput typically rotates anteriorly toward the pubic symphysis, allowing for proper alignment for delivery.

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82
Q

Explain the extension phase of labor.

A

During extension, the acutely flexed head descends, distending the pelvic floor and vulva. The base of the occiput encounters the inferior rami of the pubis, and the head extends until delivery, culminating in crowning.

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83
Q

What is restitution in the context of labor?

A

Restitution is the process following head delivery where the head rotates back to align with the fetal shoulders, indicating the occiput’s previous position before delivery.

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84
Q

What happens during the external rotation phase?

A

External rotation occurs as the shoulders reach the pelvic floor, rotating into the anteroposterior diameter, with the fetal head turning so that the face looks laterally at the maternal thigh.

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85
Q

Describe the delivery of the shoulders during labor.

A

The anterior shoulder is delivered first by applying posterior traction on the fetal head, followed by lifting the head anteriorly to deliver the posterior shoulder, leading to the expulsion of the trunk and lower limbs.

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86
Q

What marks the beginning and end of the third stage of labor?

A

The third stage begins with the expulsion of the baby and ends with the delivery of the placenta and membranes.

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87
Q

What signs indicate placental separation?

A

Signs include trickling of bright blood, lengthening of the umbilical cord, and elevation of the uterine fundus within the abdominal cavity.

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88
Q

Describe the changes in the uterine fundus after baby delivery.

A

After delivery, the uterine fundus becomes firm to hard, smaller, and rounded, sitting on top of the placenta instead of being broad and globular.

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89
Q

What occurs during the expulsion of the placenta?

A

The placenta is expelled alongside fetal membranes, which may become torn, necessitating additional traction using sponge forceps if required.

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90
Q

What is the typical duration of the third stage of labor?

A

The entire process lasts between 5-10 minutes, and if the placenta is not expelled within 30 minutes, it is diagnosed as retained placenta, making the third stage abnormal.

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91
Q
  1. When should a mother come into the hospital during labor?
A

A mother should come to the hospital when contractions are at regular 10-15 minute intervals, there is a show, or if the membranes rupture.

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92
Q

What general examinations should be performed at the commencement of labor?

A

A full general examination should include checking temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure, hydration state, and testing urine for glucose, ketones, and protein.

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93
Q

What are the components of an obstetrical examination of the abdomen?

A

The obstetrical examination includes inspection and palpation to determine fetal lie, presentation, position, and station of the presenting part. Fetal heartbeat is auscultated using a stethoscope or Doptone device.

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94
Q

What should be noted during a vaginal examination in labor?

A

Factors to note include:

Position, consistency, effacement, and dilatation of the cervix

Intact or ruptured membranes (color and quantity of amniotic fluid)

Fetal presentation and position (e.g., vertex, LOA)

Degree of caput, molding, and synclitism in vertex presentation

Assessment of the bony pelvis at upper, middle, and lower strait and pelvic outlet.

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95
Q

What are the general principles of managing the first stage of labor?

A

The general principles include:

Observation of labor progress and intervention if slow.

Monitoring fetal and maternal condition.

Providing pain relief and emotional support.

Ensuring adequate hydration and nutrition

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96
Q

What is a partogram and its purpose?

A

A partogram is a graphic record of labor progress, documenting cervical dilatation, contractions, fetal heart rate, color of liquor, caput, molding, station of the head, maternal heart rate, BP, and temperature, aiding in early recognition of non-progressive labor.

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97
Q

When should the partogram be started, and what is recorded as zero time?

A

The partogram should be started as soon as the mother is admitted to the hospital, with this admission time recorded as zero time, regardless of when contractions started.

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98
Q

How is fetal condition monitored during labor?

A

Fetal condition is monitored by charting fetal heart rate (FHR), noting any decelerations during contractions, recording the time of membrane rupture, and assessing the nature of the amniotic fluid (clear or meconium-stained).

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99
Q

What does the assessment of molding and caput indicate?

A

Molding and caput indicate potential obstructed labor. Molding is assessed by the degree of suture lines meeting, while caput is marked from + to +++, indicating the relative impression formed by the clinician.

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100
Q

What does it mean if molding is assessed as ++?

A

Molding assessed as ++ indicates that the sutures are overriding but reducible with gentle pressure, suggesting moderate molding of the fetal head.

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101
Q

How is progress in labor measured?

A

Progress in labor is measured by assessing the rate of cervical dilatation and descent of the presenting part, evaluated through vaginal examinations.

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102
Q

How often should vaginal examinations be performed during the first stage of labor?

A

Vaginal examinations should be performed on admission and every 3 to 4 hours thereafter during the first stage of labor.

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103
Q

What is the expected cervical dilation during the latent phase for multipara and nullipara?

A

In the latent phase, the cervix is expected to efface and dilate from 0 to 3 cm in 6 hours for multipara and in 8 hours for nullipara.

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104
Q

What is the expected rate of cervical dilation during the active phase of labor?

A

During the active phase, cervical dilation is expected at approximately 1 cm/hour from 3 cm to 10 cm for both multipara and nullipara, although multipara tend to dilate faster.

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105
Q

What are the alert and action lines in labor management?

A

The alert line represents expected progress at 1 cm/hour during the active phase. The action line, drawn 2 hours parallel to the alert line, indicates when to intervene if cervical dilation lags more than 2 hours behind.

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106
Q

How is the descent of the fetal head assessed during labor?

A

Descent is assessed by the palpable portion of the head above the pelvic brim in fifths and by measuring the level of the presenting part in cm relative to the ischial spines, marked as −1, −2, −3 (above) and +1, +2, +3 (below).

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107
Q

What do different shading patterns on the partogram represent?

A

Dotted squares indicate contractions of less than 20 seconds.

Cross-hatched squares represent contractions lasting between 20 and 40 seconds.

Complete shading indicates contractions lasting longer than 40 seconds.

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108
Q

Why should oral intake be avoided during the first stage of labor?

A

Oral intake should be avoided if operative delivery under general anesthesia is likely; most operative deliveries are now performed under regional anesthesia.

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109
Q

What should be considered regarding IV fluid replacement during labor?

A

IV fluid replacement should be considered after 6 hours in labor if delivery is not imminent. Normal saline or Hartmann’s solution is preferred, with careful monitoring of fluid input and output.

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110
Q

What major condition can arise from dehydration during labor?

A

Dehydration can lead to acidosis and ketosis, necessitating urine checks for ketones, sugars, and proteins.

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111
Q

What postures do women prefer during the different stages of labor?

A

Many women prefer to remain ambulant or sit during the first stage and may lie down as labor progresses to the second stage. Some may choose to squat to use gravity to assist in delivery.

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112
Q

What are the considerations for water births?

A

Water births can provide pain relief through immersion, improve support of the pregnant uterus, but carry risks of the baby inhaling contaminated water. Bath temperature should be regularly monitored.

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113
Q
  1. What is the primary goal of pain relief strategies in labor?
A

The primary goal is to reduce the level of pain experienced during labor while invoking minimal risk for the mother and baby.

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114
Q

Which pain relief technique provides complete pain relief during labor?

A

Epidural analgesia is the only technique that can provide complete pain relief.

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115
Q

What narcotic analgesics are commonly used in labor, and what are their side effects?

A

Pethidine was traditionally used but has been largely replaced by morphine.

Common side effects include nausea and vomiting in mothers and respiratory depression in neonates.

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116
Q

What is Remifentanil, and how does it compare to Pethidine?

A

Remifentanil is an ultra-short-acting opioid that produces superior analgesia compared to Pethidine and has less effect on neonatal respiration.

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117
Q

What is Entonox, and when is it used in labor?

A

Entonox is a 50/50 mixture of nitrous oxide and oxygen used for short-term pain relief in early labor and during the late first and second stages of labor.

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118
Q

What precautions should be taken when using nitrous oxide during labor?

A

Prolonged exposure can adversely affect birth attendants, causing decreased fertility, bone marrow changes, and neurological changes. Forced air change every 6–10 hours is necessary to reduce nitrous oxide levels.

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119
Q

What is Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS), and when is it most effective?

A

TENS involves placing electrodes on the vertebral column to deliver electrical currents. It can be effective in early labor but is often inadequate alone in late labor. Antenatal training is essential for effectiveness.

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120
Q

What are some non-pharmacological methods of pain relief during labor?

A

Non-pharmacological methods include acupuncture, subcutaneous sterile water injections, massage, and relaxation techniques.

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121
Q

Describe how epidural analgesia is administered.

A
  1. Insert an intravenous cannula and preload with no more than 500 mL of saline or Hartmann’s solution.
  2. Insert the epidural cannula at the L3–L4 interspace.
  3. Inject a local anesthetic agent, such as bupivacaine, at the minimum dose required for effective pain relief.
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122
Q

What are the advantages of adding an opioid to a local anesthetic in epidural analgesia?

A

Adding an opioid reduces the required dose of bupivacaine, sparing motor fibers to the lower limbs and reducing the classic complications of hypotension and abnormal fetal heart rate.

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123
Q

What effects does epidural analgesia have on uterine activity during labor?

A

Epidural analgesia may reduce the desire to bear down in the second stage of labor due to decreased pressure sensation at the perineum and can decrease uterine activity by inhibiting the “Ferguson reflex.”

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124
Q

What are common complications of epidural analgesia?

A

Common complications include:

Hypotension

Accidental dural puncture (occurs in <1%)

Postdural headache (70% incidence with 16 or 18 gauge needles)

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125
Q

How can hypotension associated with epidural analgesia be managed?

A

Hypotension can be managed by preloading and using low-dose anesthetic agents and opioid solutions.

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126
Q

What should be done for a postdural headache that persists for more than 24 hours?

A

A postdural headache that persists for more than 24 hours should be treated with an epidural blood patch.

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127
Q

What are the contraindications to regional anesthesia?

A

Contraindications include:

Maternal refusal

Coagulopathy

Local or systemic infection

Uncorrected hypovolemia

Inadequate or inexperienced staff or facilities

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128
Q

What is spinal anesthesia, and when is it commonly used?

A

Spinal anesthesia is a single-shot procedure commonly used for operative delivery but not for pain control in labor.

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129
Q

Describe paracervical blockade and its risks.

A

Paracervical blockade involves the infiltration of local anesthetic agents into paracervical tissues. It is rarely used due to a greater chance of fetal side effects.

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130
Q

What is a pudendal nerve blockade?

A

Pudendal nerve blockade involves infiltration around the pudendal nerve and the inferior hemorrhoidal nerve. It’s less frequently used now but is still employed for perineal wound repair.

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131
Q

What precautions should be taken when using pudendal nerve blockade?

A

Avoid direct IV injection of the drug during local infiltration.

Be cautious of toxic symptoms like cardiac arrhythmias and convulsions from accidental injection, especially with larger doses.

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132
Q
  1. What changes in fetal heart rate may suggest fetal hypoxia?
A

Changes in fetal heart rate (FHR) or the passage of new meconium-stained liquor may indicate the possibility of fetal hypoxia.

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133
Q

What does a diminution of fetal movements (FM) on admission indicate?

A

A diminution of fetal movements may indicate fetal jeopardy, while cessation of movements may indicate fetal death.

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134
Q

How often is the fetal heart rate monitored during the first and second stages of labor?

A

First stage: Every 15 minutes for 1 minute after a contraction.

Second stage: Every 5 minutes or after every other contraction.

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135
Q

What are the specific indications for continuous electronic fetal monitoring?

A

Maternal indications:

Previous caesarean section

Pre-eclampsia

Post-term pregnancy

Fetal indications:

Fetal growth restriction

Prematurity

Oligohydramnios

Prolonged rupture of membranes

Induced labor

Diabetes

Antepartum hemorrhage

Other maternal medical diseases

Abnormal Doppler artery velocimetry

Multiple pregnancy

Meconium-stained liquor

Breech presentation

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136
Q

What is the normal range for fetal heart rate?

A

The normal fetal heart rate varies between 110 and 160 beats per minute.

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137
Q

What is fetal tachycardia and bradycardia?

A

Tachycardia: Fetal heart rate faster than 160 beats/min.

Bradycardia: Fetal heart rate less than 110 beats/min.

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138
Q

What does baseline variability in fetal heart rate indicate?

A

Baseline variability reflects the oscillations in heart rate around the baseline and normally varies between 5-25 beats/min. Reduced variability can indicate fetal sleep, hypoxia, infection, or medication effects.

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139
Q

What is considered abnormal baseline variability in fetal heart rate?

A

A fetal heart rate variability of less than 5 beats/min for over 90 minutes is abnormal and may indicate fetal jeopardy.

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140
Q

How is fetal heart rate typically monitored?

A

Fetal heart rate is monitored using a Doppler ultrasound transducer applied externally to the maternal abdomen or through a direct electrode applied to the presenting part.

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141
Q

What is the purpose of using a pressure transducer in fetal monitoring?

A

A pressure transducer records uterine activity, providing accurate measurements of the frequency and duration of contractions, and can also give relative information about intrauterine pressure.

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142
Q

What are accelerations in fetal heart rate?

A

Accelerations are transient, abrupt increases in heart rate of more than 15 beats/min for more than 15 seconds, associated with fetal movements.

They reflect the activity of the somatic nervous system and are a reassuring sign of good fetal health.

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143
Q

How are decelerations defined in fetal heart rate monitoring?

A

Decelerations are defined as decreases in heart rate of more than 15 beats/min for more than 15 seconds. They are evaluated based on their relationship to uterine contractions and their intensity.

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144
Q

What are early decelerations, and what do they indicate?

A

Early decelerations occur synchronously with uterine contractions, peaking at the contraction’s height, with a decrease in heart rate generally less than 40 beats/min. They are usually due to head compression and are considered physiological, often seen in the late first and second stages of labor.

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145
Q

Describe late decelerations and their significance.

A

Late decelerations begin well after the contraction starts and do not return to the normal baseline until at least 20 seconds after the contraction ends. They are due to placental insufficiency, and repeated occurrences may indicate fetal hypoxia, along with an increase in baseline rate and a reduction in baseline variability.

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146
Q

What are variable decelerations, and what do they suggest?

A

Variable decelerations vary in timing and amplitude, often falling by more than 40 beats/min, caused by cord compression.

They are considered non-reassuring features in a CTG trace, and increased depth and duration, along with a rise in baseline rate and reduced baseline variability, suggest worsening hypoxia.

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147
Q

What are atypical variable decelerations?

A

Atypical variable decelerations are characterized by slow recovery to baseline rates or a combination of variable decelerations followed immediately by late decelerations.

They are considered abnormal features and suggest a concerning fetal condition.

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148
Q

How is fetal blood obtained for acid-base balance assessment?

A

Fetal blood is obtained directly from the scalp through an amnioscope, which is inserted through the cervix (at least 2 cm dilated).

A small stab incision is made in the fetal scalp to collect blood into a heparinized capillary tube.

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149
Q

What position should the mother be in during fetal blood sampling?

A

The mother is requested to lie in the lateral position during the procedure for fetal blood sampling.

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150
Q

What is the normal pH range for fetal blood?

A

The normal pH for fetal blood lies between 7.25 and 7.35.

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151
Q

What does a pH between 7.20 and 7.25 indicate during the first stage of labor?

A

A pH between 7.20 and 7.25 indicates mild acidosis, and sampling should be repeated within the next 30 minutes.

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152
Q

What is recommended if the fetal blood pH is <7.20?

A

If the fetal blood pH is less than 7.20, delivery is recommended unless spontaneous delivery is imminent.

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153
Q

How can fetal acid-base balance also be assessed besides pH?

A

Fetal acid-base balance can also be assessed by measuring lactate levels in fetal scalp blood, which generally requires smaller blood volumes and can be done using portable hand-held devices.

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154
Q
  1. What is the definition of preterm birth?
A

Preterm birth is defined as delivery occurring from 24 completed weeks up to 36 weeks and 6 days of gestation.

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155
Q

What are some common aetiologies of spontaneous preterm labour?

A

Common aetiologies include poor social conditions, nutritional status, antepartum hemorrhage, multiple pregnancy, uterine anomalies, cervical incompetence, and preterm premature rupture of membranes (PROM), often associated with infection.

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156
Q

What is the best single predictor of spontaneous preterm delivery?

A

A previous history of preterm delivery is the best single predictor of spontaneous preterm labour.

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157
Q

How do genital tract infections contribute to preterm labour?

A

Genital tract infections can promote myometrial activity or cause prelabour rupture of fetal membranes.

Associated organisms include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, group B streptococci, Chlamydia trachomatis, Gardnerella vaginalis, Bacteroides spp., and Haemophilus spp.

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158
Q

What is the impact of delaying delivery after 24 weeks on infant survival?

A

Each day of delay in delivery after 24 weeks increases the chance of survival by 3–6%.

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159
Q

What is the survival likelihood of an infant based on birth weight?

A

Infants born with a birth weight of less than 500 g have little chance of survival, whereas those weighing 1500 g are nearly as likely to survive as full-term infants.

Survival significantly increases with every 100 g increment between 500 and 1000 g.

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160
Q

What are the major causes of death in very-low-birth-weight infants?

A

Major causes of death include infection, respiratory distress syndrome, necrotizing enterocolitis, and periventricular hemorrhage.

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161
Q

What are some immediate complications of preterm birth?

A

Immediate complications include respiratory distress, jaundice, hypoglycemia, and hypothermia.

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162
Q

What are some long-term complications associated with preterm birth?

A

Long-term complications can include pulmonary dysplasia and neurodevelopmental delay.

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163
Q

What is a primary goal in the management of preterm labour?

A

A primary goal is to conserve the pregnancy for as long as possible to improve infant outcomes and survival.

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164
Q
A
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165
Q

What lifestyle and dietary advice should be given to women with a history of preterm labor?

A

Women should be advised to maintain a healthy lifestyle, including proper nutrition, stress avoidance, and regular prenatal care.

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166
Q

How can the treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria affect preterm labor?

A

Treating asymptomatic bacteriuria with antibiotics can reduce the incidence of preterm premature rupture of membranes (PROM), especially when β-haemolytic streptococci are detected.

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167
Q

What is the role of progesterone in women with a short cervix during pregnancy?

A

In women with a short cervix of less than 2.5 cm beyond 24 weeks, the use of progesterone can reduce the incidence of preterm delivery.

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168
Q

What is the goal of administering corticosteroids in preterm labor management?

A

The administration of corticosteroids aims to enhance fetal lung surfactant production, reducing the risk of hyaline membrane disease (HMD) and respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).

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169
Q

Under what conditions might labor be inhibited rather than allowed to proceed?

A

Labor may be inhibited if gestational age is less than 34 weeks, there are no signs of infection or bleeding, membranes are intact, and the cervix is less than 5 cm dilated.

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170
Q

Name the drug classes used to delay preterm labor and their mechanisms of action.

A
  1. β-Adrenergic agonists: Inhibit uterine activity by acting on myometrial cell membranes (e.g., ritodrine, salbutamol, terbutaline).
  2. Prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors: Prevent labor progression by inhibiting prostaglandin production (e.g., indomethacin).
  3. Calcium antagonists: Inhibit uterine activity.
  4. Corticosteroids: Enhance surfactant production to improve respiratory function.
  5. Magnesium sulfate: Provides tocolytic effects and neuroprotection in neonates.
171
Q

What are the recommended dosages of betamethasone or dexamethasone for preventing respiratory distress in preterm infants?

A

Betamethasone or dexamethasone is administered at a dosage of 12 mg every 12 hours via intramuscular injection on two occasions.

172
Q

What is the effect of indomethacin on fetal circulation?

A

Indomethacin, as a prostaglandin synthetase inhibitor, can cause in utero closure of the ductus arteriosus, potentially adversely affecting fetal circulation.

173
Q

How does magnesium sulfate help in the context of preterm labor?

A

Magnesium sulfate has a tocolytic effect to inhibit contractions and provides neuroprotection for the neonate by stabilizing capillary membranes, reducing the incidence of intra and periventricular hemorrhage.

174
Q
  1. What is prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM)?
A

PROM is the spontaneous rupture of the fetal membranes before the onset of labor, which can occur at term or preterm.

175
Q

What factors are associated with the occurrence of prelabour rupture of membranes?

A
  1. Weakened tensile strength of fetal membranes (often due to infection).
  2. Cervical dilation; greater dilation increases the likelihood of rupture.
  3. Intra-amniotic fluid pressure.
176
Q

What is the most common factor associated with prelabour rupture of membranes?

A

Infection, particularly by organisms like Group B streptococci and Chlamydia trachomatis.

177
Q

What initial assessment should be done upon hospital admission for suspected PROM?

A

A speculum examination should be performed to confirm the presence of amniotic fluid.

178
Q

What are the risks associated with PROM for the mother and fetus?

A

Risk of infection.

Potential for fetal pulmonary hypoplasia due to prolonged drainage of amniotic fluid.

Challenges in inducing labor effectively, especially in very preterm cases.

179
Q

What should be done if there is clear evidence of amniotic fluid in the vagina?

A

Swabs should be taken for culture to assess for infection.

180
Q

What clinical signs may indicate maternal infection in the context of PROM?

A

Maternal infection may present with uterine tenderness, fetal and/or maternal tachycardia, pyrexia, and purulent vaginal discharge.

181
Q

What is the management protocol if maternal infection is confirmed?

A

Administer appropriate antibiotics.

Induce labor using an oxytocic infusion for the safety of the mother and fetus.

182
Q

What is the management protocol if maternal infection is confirmed?

A

Administer appropriate antibiotics.

Induce labor using an oxytocic infusion for the safety of the mother and fetus.

183
Q

How should PROM be managed if there is no evidence of infection?

A

Conservative management with erythromycin cover may be adopted to reduce the risk of infection while allowing for possible advancement to a more mature gestation.

184
Q

At what gestational age does the likelihood of better survival outcomes increase if the infant is delivered?

A

If gestation is over 28 weeks, the infant likely has a better chance of survival if delivered.

185
Q

At what gestational age does the likelihood of better survival outcomes increase if the infant is delivered?

A

If gestation is over 28 weeks, the infant likely has a better chance of survival if delivered.

186
Q

What percentage of women with PROM will deliver spontaneously within 48 hours?

A

Most women with PROM will deliver spontaneously within 48 hours.

187
Q

What percentage of women with PROM will deliver spontaneously within 48 hours?

A

Most women with PROM will deliver spontaneously within 48 hours.

188
Q

What is the protocol for inducing women at term with PROM?

A

Induction is performed with prostaglandins or syntocinon upon admission or after 24 hours of PROM.

189
Q
  1. What is induction of labor?
A

Induction of labor is the act of artificially initiating uterine activity when the risks to the mother or child of continuing the pregnancy exceed the risks of inducing labor.

190
Q

What are the major indications for inducing labor?

A
  1. Prolonged pregnancy (beyond 42 weeks gestation).
  2. Pre-eclampsia.
  3. Placental insufficiency and intrauterine growth restriction.
  4. Antepartum hemorrhage (placental abruption and antepartum hemorrhage).
  5. Rhesus isoimmunization.
  6. Diabetes mellitus.
  7. Chronic renal disease.
191
Q

What is the Bishop score, and how is it used in labor induction?

A

The Bishop score assesses cervical readiness for induction. A score > 6 is predictive of successful labor induction, while a score < 5 indicates the need for cervical ripening.

192
Q

What is forewater rupture, and when is it performed?

A

Forewater rupture involves artificially rupturing the membranes before labor begins, ideally performed when the cervix is soft, effaced, and at least 2 cm dilated, and the fetal head is engaged.

It should be done under sterile conditions.

193
Q

Describe the procedure for forewater rupture.

A
  1. The patient is positioned supine or in lithotomy.
  2. A finger is inserted through the cervix to separate the membranes from the lower segment (stripping).
  3. The bulging membranes are ruptured using Kocher’s forceps, Gelder’s forceps, or an amniotomy hook.
  4. Monitor the fetal heart rate for 30 minutes before and after the procedure.
194
Q

What is hindwater rupture?

A

Hindwater rupture involves rupturing the membranes behind the presenting part of the fetus using a Drewe-Smythe catheter.

195
Q

What are the risks associated with combined surgical and medical induction of labor?

A
  1. Hyperstimulation (excessive uterine contractions leading to fetal asphyxia).
  2. Prolapse of the cord.
  3. Increased risk of infection due to prolonged induction–delivery intervals.
196
Q

What are common methods for cervical ripening?

A
  1. Syntocinon infusion: Stimulates uterine contractions and is effective when combined with surgical induction.
  2. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2): Administered orally or vaginally to ripen the cervix.
  3. Mechanical dilation: Involves inserting a balloon catheter through the cervix and removing it after 12 hours, followed by amniotomy.
197
Q

How does Syntocinon function in labor induction?

A

Syntocinon is a synthetic form of oxytocin that induces uterine contractions and is often combined with surgical induction methods.

198
Q

What precautions should be taken during the induction process?

A

Monitor fetal heart rate closely, avoid digital examination if not inducing labor immediately to reduce infection risk, and ensure that the conditions for membrane rupture are met.

199
Q
  1. What is classified as precipitate labor?
A

Precipitate labor is defined as any labor lasting less than 2 hours, characterized by rapid cervical dilation and delivery.

200
Q

What are the potential hazards of precipitate labor for the infant?

A

Potential hazards include delivery in an uncontrolled manner, potentially in an inappropriate environment (e.g., toilet), and increased fetal morbidity and mortality due to lack of resuscitation facilities.

201
Q

What maternal complications can arise from precipitate labor?

A

Maternal complications can include severe perineal damage and postpartum hemorrhage.

202
Q

How does precipitate labor tend to affect future pregnancies?

A

Precipitate labor often recurs in subsequent pregnancies; therefore, mothers with a history of precipitate labor should be admitted to the hospital near term to monitor for labor onset.

203
Q

What is uterine hyperstimulation?

A

Uterine hyperstimulation is characterized by excessive uterine contractions, often due to the uncontrolled use of oxytocic drugs, resulting in contractions that occur more frequently than every 5 minutes.

204
Q

What are the signs and consequences of uterine hyperstimulation?

A

Signs include >5 contractions in 10 minutes.

Consequences include reduced placental perfusion, fetal oxygenation issues, and potential changes in fetal heart rate, termed ‘hyperstimulation syndrome.’

205
Q

What causes uterine hyperstimulation?

A

Common causes include excessive administration of oxytocin and rapid absorption of prostaglandins from the vagina, influenced by temperature, pH, and the presence of infection/inflammation.

206
Q

How can uterine hyperstimulation be corrected?

A

Uterine hyperstimulation can often be corrected quickly by stopping the oxytocin infusion.

For prostaglandin-induced hyperstimulation, removal of the pessary and administration of a short-acting tocolytic, like terbutaline, is recommended.

207
Q

What are the risks of uterine hyperstimulation related to uterine rupture?

A

Uterine hyperstimulation can lead to uterine rupture, especially in individuals with a previous uterine scar from a cesarean section or myomectomy.

Rupture may occur even with normal uterine activity.

208
Q

What is the relationship between uterine activity and oxytocin dosage?

A

As labor progresses and cervical dilation increases, the uterus becomes more sensitive to oxytocin, requiring careful monitoring to avoid hyperstimulation.

209
Q
  1. What are the three P’s of labor that can cause a delay in progress?
A

The three P’s are:

  1. Pelvis: Size and shape of the maternal pelvis (e.g., small bony pelvis).
  2. Passenger: Size and position of the infant (e.g., fetal macrosomia, abnormal orientation).
  3. Power: Strength and frequency of contractions (e.g., dysfunctional contractions).
210
Q

What characterizes prolonged latent phase of labor?

A

Prolonged latent phase is diagnosed when there is poor acceleration with cervical dilation ≤ 6 cm:

> 20 hours in primiparas.

> 14 hours in multiparas.

211
Q

What is the management approach for prolonged latent phase of labor?

A

Management includes:

Rest and hydration.

Adequate analgesia.

Consideration of oxytocin in well-rested mothers if other measures have been implemented.

212
Q

What defines a prolonged active phase of labor?

A

A prolonged active phase is diagnosed when cervical dilation is ≥ 6 cm but less than:

1.2 cm/hour in a primipara.

1.5 cm/hour in a multipara.

213
Q

What is the management for a prolonged active phase of labor?

A

Management includes:

Augmentation with oxytocin for hypotonic contractions.

Analgesia for hypertonic contractions.

214
Q

How is an arrested active phase of labor defined?

A

Arrested active phase is diagnosed when:

Cervical dilation is ≥ 6 cm with ruptured membranes and no cervical change for ≥ 4 hours with adequate contractions.

No cervical change for > 6 hours with inadequate contractions.

215
Q

What is the recommended management for an arrested active phase of labor?

A

The management for an arrested active phase is typically cesarean section.

216
Q

Prolonged Second Stage of Labour

A

Diagnosis: failed delivery of the baby after 3 hours in a primipara and after 2 hours in
a multipara (an extra hour may be added if an epidural was administered)

 Management o Augmentation with oxytocin if uterine contractions are inadequate and progress is >
1 cm after 60–90 minutes of pushing

o Trial of forceps or vacuum delivery if the fetal head is engaged AND maternal
contractions are adequate

o Cesarean section if the fetal head is not engaged  Complications of a prolonged second stage are postpartum hemorrhage and a poor neonatal
outcome!

217
Q

Prolonged Third Stage of Labour

A
218
Q
  1. What is insufficient uterine activity in the context of labor?
A

Insufficient uterine activity refers to a lack of progress in labor due to either weak contractions (hypotonic) or strong contractions (hypertonic).

219
Q

Describe hypotonic uterine activity.

A

Hypotonic uterine activity is characterized by:

Low resting uterine tone.

Infrequent and often irregular contractions.

Slow progress in labor.

Typically does not cause distress to the mother or fetus.

220
Q

What are the features of hypertonic uterine activity?

A

Hypertonic uterine activity is a rare condition featuring:

High resting uterine tone.

Contractions that may be initiated in the lower segment and may appear asymmetrical (double peak).

Slow cervical dilation.

Severe backache and abdominal pain.

Commonly associated with placental abruption.

221
Q

How can abnormalities of uterine activity be recognized?

A

Abnormalities of uterine activity are usually recognized by the failure of progress in labor.

Careful assessment of maternal pelvis size and fetal size is essential to exclude cephalopelvic disproportion.

222
Q

What are the general management principles for abnormal uterine activity?

A

Management principles include:

  1. Adequate pain relief (especially epidural analgesia for hypertonic activity).
  2. Adequate fluid replacement (IV infusion of dextrose saline or Hartmann’s solution).
  3. Stimulation of coordinated uterine activity (dilute oxytocin infusion).
223
Q

How can hypotonic uterine inertia be managed?

A

Management includes:

Encouraging maternal mobilization.

Artificial rupture of membranes if intact.

An oxytocic infusion to stimulate labor and delivery.

224
Q

What is the approach to managing hypertonic uterine activity?

A

Management includes:

Rupturing membranes.

Cautious use of a low-dose oxytocin infusion to restore normal uterine activity.

225
Q

What should be done if progress remains slow with signs of fetal distress?

A

If progress continues to be slow and there is evidence of fetal distress, delivery should be accomplished by cesarean section.

226
Q

What condition can only be reversed by beta-sympathomimetic agents or certain anesthetics?

A

Constriction ring dystocia can only be reversed by using beta-sympathomimetic agents, ether, or halothane anesthesia.

227
Q
  1. What is cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)?
A

Cephalopelvic disproportion occurs when the fetal head is too large to pass through the maternal pelvis, which may be due to an abnormally large fetus, a small pelvis, or both.

228
Q

What are the primary causes of CPD?

A

Causes of CPD include:

  1. Large baby due to:

Hereditary factors

Diabetes

Postmaturity

Multiparity

  1. Abnormal fetal positions
  2. Contracted pelvis
  3. Abnormally shaped pelvis
229
Q

How is CPD diagnosed?

A

CPD is diagnosed using pelvimetry:

  1. Clinical pelvimetry (internal for the inlet, cavity, and outlet; external for the inlet and outlet).
  2. Imaging pelvimetry using X-ray, CT, or MRI.
230
Q

How is labor managed in cases of CPD?

A

In cases of CPD, labor should be closely monitored, including:

Uterine activity

Cervical dilatation

Descent of the presenting part

Position, station, caput, and moulding

The condition of the mother and fetus.

231
Q

What should be done if there is no progress in labor due to CPD in a primigravida?

A

If no cervical dilatation, descent, or head engagement occurs within 4-6 hours, and there is increasing caput and moulding, the trial of labor should be abandoned.

If fetal distress or maternal exhaustion develops, a cesarean section should be performed.

232
Q

Why are multiparous women at higher risk during labor with CPD?

A

Multiparous women are at increased risk of uterine rupture if labor becomes obstructed.

CPD in multigravida is often linked to malposition or the use of oxytocic agents, which increases the risk of uterine rupture.

233
Q

When does the fetal head typically engage in CPD?

A

In cases of CPD, the fetal head often does not engage at the onset of labor, but may engage with moulding into the pelvis during labor.

234
Q

What is the role of uterine contractions in diagnosing CPD?

A

The pelvis can only be truly tested in the presence of strong uterine contractions.

CPD is typically diagnosed when labor progress is slow despite strong contractions.

235
Q

35.What is cord presentation and cord prolapse?

A

Cord presentation occurs when part of the umbilical cord lies alongside or in front of the presenting part.

Cord prolapse happens when the cord slips through the cervix after membrane rupture and may appear at the vulva or be palpable in front of the presenting part.

236
Q

How is cord prolapse diagnosed?

A

Cord prolapse is diagnosed by digital palpation of the pulsating cord, which may be felt through the membranes. Once the membranes rupture, the cord can prolapse and be felt at the vulva.

237
Q

What are the predisposing factors for cord prolapse?

A

Factors include:

  1. Displacement of the presenting part (e.g., high head) away from the cervix.
  2. Irregularly shaped presenting part that forms poor contact with the cervix.

In these situations, artificial rupture of membranes may lead to cord prolapse.

238
Q

Why is cord prolapse an obstetric emergency?

A

Cord prolapse is an emergency because the presenting part may compress the cord, or cord arteries may spasm due to exposure to cold air or handling, leading to fetal asphyxia.

239
Q

What position should the mother be placed in during a cord prolapse?

A

The mother should be placed in a knee-chest position, or have the buttocks elevated by pillows or head tilt to relieve pressure on the cord.

240
Q

How can bladder filling help in cord prolapse management?

A

Filling the bladder helps reduce pressure on the prolapsed cord by pushing the presenting part away from it.

241
Q

How should the cord be managed when prolapsed?

A

The cord should be digitally displaced back into the vagina to keep it warm and moist, preventing arterial spasm. The vaginal opening should be covered with a wet pad.

242
Q

What is the role of a tocolytic in managing cord prolapse?

A

A bolus dose of a tocolytic can be given to relieve compression of the cord by stopping or reducing uterine contractions.

243
Q

What are the delivery options in the case of cord prolapse?

A

Delivery should be by cesarean section unless the cervix is fully dilated and rapid delivery is possible via forceps or vacuum with maternal expulsive efforts.

244
Q

What is the long-term prognosis for infants after cord prolapse?

A

Despite the acute risk of fetal asphyxia, the long-term prognosis for infants affected by cord prolapse is generally good.

245
Q

Cord presentation, cord prolapse
- Definition
- Causes, risk factors
- Clinical features
- Diagnosis
- Treatment

A
246
Q
  1. What defines the second stage of labor?
A

The second stage of labor is the period from complete cervical dilation to the baby’s birth.

247
Q

What are the two phases of the second stage of labor?

A
  1. Pelvic (passive) phase: Descent of the baby in the pelvis, often without the mother feeling the urge to bear down.
  2. Perineal (active) phase: The mother experiences the urge to push as the baby descends into the perineum.
248
Q

What is the normal duration of the second stage of labor?

A

Nulliparous women: Up to 2 hours (extended by 1 hour with epidural).

Multiparous women: Up to 1 hour (extended by 1 hour with epidural).

249
Q

How is progress in the second stage of labor monitored?

A

Progress is monitored by the descent of the fetal head, assessed through abdominal and vaginal examinations.

The head is engaged when no more than one-fifth is palpable abdominally and the vertex reaches the level of the ischial spines.

250
Q

What is the recommended approach for guiding women during delivery?

A

Women should be guided by their urge to push, with a focus on gentle, unhurried delivery of the fetal head.

This can be achieved by alternating between short pushing efforts and panting to allow the tissues to stretch.

251
Q

What are the two methods for delivering the fetal head?

A
  1. Hands-on: Supporting the perineum and flexing the baby’s head.
  2. Hands-poised: Hands off the perineum but ready to assist as needed.
252
Q

When is an episiotomy indicated during spontaneous vaginal birth?

A

Episiotomy may be needed if:

The perineum begins to tear.

Perineal resistance prevents delivery of the head.

The baby needs to be delivered quickly due to fetal distress.

253
Q

What is the proper technique for performing an episiotomy?

A

mediolateral incision is made from the vaginal fourchette, usually directed to the mother’s right side.

254
Q

What is the proper sequence for delivering the baby’s shoulders?

A
  1. Pull the head gently downwards to deliver the anterior shoulder.
  2. Pull anteriorly to deliver the posterior shoulder and the rest of the baby.
255
Q

What should be done if the newborn’s breathing is delayed?

A

Aspirate the nasopharynx.

Inflate the lungs with oxygen using a face mask.

If needed, perform intubation and ventilation.

256
Q

When should the Apgar score be assessed?

A

The Apgar score is assessed at 1 minute, 5 minutes, and again at 10 minutes if the baby is in poor condition (Apgar score ≤ 5).

257
Q

What is the active management of the third stage of labor?

A

Active management includes:

  1. Administering oxytocin (10 IU IM) to the mother.
  2. Late clamping (>2 minutes) and cutting of the umbilical cord.
  3. Delivering the placenta by controlled cord traction using the Brandt-Andrews technique.
258
Q

What are the signs of placental separation?

A

Signs of placental separation include:

Lengthening of the cord.

A trickle of blood.

The uterus becoming globular and hard as it contracts to expel the placenta.

259
Q
  1. What are the four degrees of perineal tears?
A
  1. First-degree: Laceration to vaginal and perineal skin only.
  2. Second-degree: Injury involves the posterior vaginal wall and perineal muscles, but not the anal sphincter.
  3. Third-degree: Involves injury to the anal sphincter complex.
  4. Fourth-degree: Involves injury to the ano/rectal mucosa and the sphincter.
260
Q

What is the management of first- and second-degree perineal tears?

A

First-degree: May not require suturing if skin edges are apposed and there is no bleeding.

Second-degree: Requires suturing to minimize bleeding and facilitate healing.

261
Q

How are third-degree perineal tears subclassified?

A
  1. 3a: Less than 50% of the external anal sphincter is disrupted.
  2. 3b: More than 50% of the external sphincter is disrupted.
  3. 3c: Both the external and internal sphincters are disrupted.
262
Q

What are the long-term sequelae of obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS)?

A

Anal incontinence (up to 25%)

Perineal discomfort

Dyspareunia (up to 10%)

Rare cases of rectovaginal fistulas.

263
Q

What factors increase the risk of obstetric anal sphincter injuries?

A

Large baby (>4 kg)

First vaginal delivery

Instrumental delivery (forceps > ventouse)

Occipitoposterior position

Prolonged second stage of labor

Induced labor

Epidural anesthesia

Shoulder dystocia

Midline episiotomy

264
Q

What is the proper management of third- and fourth-degree perineal tears?

A

Experienced obstetrician should perform or supervise the repair.

Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics for at least 5 days.

Use end-to-end or overlapping methods for sphincter repair.

Prescribe stool softeners and refer for physiotherapy.

At the 6-week postnatal checkup, assess for bowel control, urgency, and sexual dysfunction.

265
Q

What complications can arise from failure to properly manage perineal and sphincter injuries?

A

Failure to manage perineal or sphincter injuries can lead to:

Anal incontinence

Dyspareunia

Fecal or flatus incontinence.

266
Q

When should perineal or genital tract trauma be examined post-delivery?

A

A careful examination should be performed as soon as possible after delivery to identify any degree of trauma, especially sphincter damage

267
Q
A
268
Q
  1. What is the definition of malpresentation in labor?
A

Malpresentation refers to any fetal presentation other than the vertex (head-first). Common malpresentations include breech, face, brow, shoulder, or cord presentations.

269
Q

How is face presentation diagnosed?

A

Diagnosed during vaginal examination when the cervix is dilated enough to palpate facial features such as the chin, eyes, nose, and mouth.

Ultrasound (US) can confirm the diagnosis.

270
Q

What are the three positions of face presentation, and what is used as the denominator?

A

The chin (mentum) is used as the denominator. The three positions are:

Mentoanterior

Mentotransverse

Mentoposterior

271
Q

How is mentoanterior face presentation managed?

A

Mentoanterior face presentation can often lead to a spontaneous vaginal delivery.

If progress is slow, caesarean section may be considered.

272
Q

What is the management for mentoposterior face presentation?

A

Vaginal delivery is typically not possible without manual or forceps rotation.

Most cases are managed by caesarean section.

273
Q

What is brow presentation?

A

Brow presentation occurs when the fetal head is midway between flexion (vertex) and hyperextension (face), making it the most unfavourable cephalic presentation.

The presenting diameter, the mentovertical diameter (13 cm), is usually incompatible with vaginal delivery.

274
Q

How is brow presentation diagnosed?

A

Diagnosed during labor by palpation of the anterior fontanelle, supraorbital ridges, and the root of the nose.

275
Q

What is the management of brow presentation?

A

Vaginal delivery is typically impossible due to the large presenting diameters.

Caesarean section is the preferred method of delivery in brow presentation.

276
Q
A
277
Q
  1. What is malposition of the fetal head?
A

Malposition refers to when the occiput of the fetal head presents in the posterior half of the maternal pelvis, often as occipitoposterior (OP) or occipitotransverse (OT). It occurs in about 10% of deliveries.

278
Q

What is asynclitism, and how does it affect labor?

A

Asynclitism occurs when one parietal bone is lower in the pelvis than the other, causing the parietal eminences to be at different levels.

It increases the presenting diameters of the fetal head, making normal delivery more difficult, especially in OT malposition.

279
Q

How common is the occipitoposterior (OP) position in labor?

A

The OP position occurs in 10-20% of cephalic presentations at the onset of labor. While the head usually rotates to the occipitoanterior (OA) position, some may remain in OP, leading to complications.

280
Q

What are the symptoms and complications associated with the OP position during labor?

A

Prolonged and painful labor with backache.

Larger presenting diameters due to the deflexed head, which can result in 3rd/4th-degree perineal tears.

Labor progress may be arrested due to the deflexed attitude of the head.

281
Q

How is OP position diagnosed?

A

Diagnosed during labor by vaginal examination, where the sagittal suture is felt with the posterior fontanelle situated posteriorly in the maternal pelvis.

282
Q

What are the options for managing a persistent OP position during labor?

A

Management depends on the station of the head and cervical dilation:

Caesarean section if the head is not engaged or the cervix is not fully dilated.

Instrumental delivery (forceps or vacuum) if the head is engaged and conditions permit.

283
Q

What is deep transverse arrest?

A

Deep transverse arrest occurs when the fetal head descends into the pelvis in an occipitotransverse (OT) position but fails to rotate anteriorly to emerge under the pubic arch, leading to labor arrest due to asynclitism and larger presenting diameters.

284
Q

How is deep transverse arrest diagnosed?

A

Diagnosed during labor when the second stage is prolonged, the cervix is fully dilated, and vaginal examination reveals the head arrested in the OT position.

285
Q

What are the management options for deep transverse arrest?

A

If the head is engaged and the station is at or below the ischial spines, it can be rotated to the anterior position manually or with rotational forceps or vacuum extraction.

If rotation and descent are difficult, the procedure should be abandoned, and a caesarean section performed.

286
Q

What is a key consideration when performing a caesarean section for OP or deep transverse arrest?

A

The fetal head may become impacted in the pelvis, making it difficult to dislodge. In such cases, vaginal disimpaction before extraction may be necessary.

287
Q
  1. What is instrumental vaginal delivery?
A

Instrumental vaginal delivery refers to the use of forceps or vacuum to assist the second stage of labor by applying direct traction to the fetal skull, mimicking spontaneous vaginal delivery and shortening the labor duration.

288
Q

How do forceps and vacuum differ in their method of traction?

A

Vacuum: Applies suction and traction to the fetal scalp.

Forceps: Cradles the fetal skull, applying traction to the parietal and malar bones, while laterally displacing maternal tissue.

289
Q

How do forceps and vacuum differ in their method of traction?

A

Vacuum: Applies suction and traction to the fetal scalp.

Forceps: Cradles the fetal skull, applying traction to the parietal and malar bones, while laterally displacing maternal tissue.

290
Q

What are the indications for using forceps or vacuum in delivery?

A

Common indications include:

Delay in the second stage of labor.

Non-reassuring fetal status (fetal distress).

Maternal exhaustion or medical disorders.

291
Q

What clinical factors might influence the need for assisted vaginal delivery?

A

Factors include:

Pelvic floor resistance.

Inefficient uterine contractions.

Poor maternal effort.

Fetal malposition.

Cephalopelvic disproportion.

Epidural analgesia.

292
Q

What are the prerequisites for performing an instrumental delivery?

A

The following conditions must be met:

Full cervical dilation.

Vertex presentation.

Head engaged (not palpable abdominally, at or below spines).

Known head position and attitude.

Empty bladder.

Adequate analgesia.

293
Q

What is the typical position for the mother during an instrumental delivery?

A

The mother is placed in a modified lithotomy position with the thighs and perineum washed and draped.

294
Q

Contradiction for instrumental delivery

A
295
Q

How are instrumental deliveries classified?

A

Instrumental deliveries are classified into:

  1. Three categories based on the station of the fetal head:

Outlet.

Low.

Midpelvic.

  1. Two types based on the position of the fetal head:

Non-rotational.

Rotational.

296
Q

What types of forceps are used for non-rotational instrumental delivery?

A

For non-rotational deliveries, Neville Barnes and Simpson’s forceps are commonly used. These forceps have cephalic and pelvic curves, and their blades are designated according to the side of the pelvis.

297
Q

What is the method of applying forceps in non-rotational delivery?

A

Intermittent traction is applied in sync with uterine contractions and maternal bearing down efforts. Traction is applied along the pelvic canal until the occiput is visible, then the head is delivered by anterior extension.

298
Q

How does vacuum delivery work?

A

A vacuum device consists of:

A cup attached to the baby’s head.

A vacuum source that creates suction for attachment.

A traction handle to assist with birth.
Traction is applied along the pelvic axis, and at crowning, it’s directed upwards to deliver the head.

299
Q

What are the two design types of vacuum devices?

A

The two main types of vacuum devices are:

Anterior cups for non-rotational OA extractions.

Posterior cups for rotational OP and OT deliveries.

300
Q

How is a rotational instrumental delivery performed?

A

In rotational deliveries, specific tools such as:

Kjelland’s forceps (with a sliding lock and minimal pelvic curve) for rotating the fetal head in OP or OT positions.

Posterior vacuum cups to allow auto-rotation of the fetal head to the OA position at delivery.

301
Q

What is the purpose of a posterior cup in rotational vacuum deliveries?

A

A posterior cup is used to maneuver over the baby’s flexion point, facilitating auto-rotation of the fetal head to an OA position for delivery.

302
Q
A
303
Q

Obstetric forceps delivery

A
304
Q

Vacuum extractor delivery

A
305
Q
  1. What is a caesarean section?
A

A caesarean section is a method of delivery where a baby is born through an incision made in the abdominal wall and uterus.

306
Q

What are the common indications for caesarean section?

A

Common indications include:

Non-reassuring fetal status (fetal distress)

Abnormal progress in labor (dystocia)

Intrauterine growth restriction

Malpresentations (breech, transverse lie, brow)

Placenta previa or severe antepartum hemorrhage

Previous caesarean section

Severe pre-eclampsia or maternal medical disorders

Cord prolapse or presentation

307
Q

How are caesarean sections classified based on urgency?

A
  1. Category 1: Immediate threat to the life of the woman or fetus.
  2. Category 2: Maternal or fetal compromise, but not life-threatening.
  3. Category 3: No compromise, but early delivery is required.
  4. Category 4: Elective planned caesarean section.
308
Q

What is the major concern for women attempting vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC)?

A

The major concern is the risk of uterine scar dehiscence or rupture, which is higher with a previous classical (upper segment) caesarean section.

However, the risk is low with a lower uterine segment incision.

309
Q

What are the signs of impending uterine scar dehiscence?

A

Signs include:

Suprapubic pain and tenderness.

Fetal distress.

Maternal tachycardia.

Vaginal bleeding.

Maternal collapse.

310
Q

What are the immediate complications of a caesarean section?

A

Immediate complications include:

Peri-operative hemorrhage, which can result in shock.

Injury to the bladder or ureters (rare).

311
Q

What are the late complications of caesarean section?

A

Late complications include:

Infection of the wound or uterine cavity.

Secondary postpartum bleeding.

Less commonly, deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.

312
Q

Procedure for Cesarean

A
313
Q

Types of incisions
- Definition
- Advantages
- Disadvantages

A
314
Q
  1. What is shoulder dystocia?
A

Shoulder dystocia is an obstetric emergency where the fetal head delivers, but the shoulders fail to deliver spontaneously due to the anterior shoulder being impacted behind the maternal pubic symphysis.

315
Q

What are the risk factors for shoulder dystocia?

A
  1. History of shoulder dystocia.
  2. Fetal macrosomia (infants >4500 g), especially in maternal diabetes.
  3. Prolonged second stage of labor.
  4. Maternal obesity.
  5. Post-term pregnancy.
316
Q

What is the turtle sign?

A

The turtle sign is when the fetal head is partially delivered but retracts against the perineum, indicating shoulder dystocia.

317
Q

What are the possible complications of shoulder dystocia?

A

Complications include:

Asphyxiation of the baby if delivery is delayed.

Brachial plexus palsy or limb fractures due to over-vigorous manipulations.

318
Q

What is the first-line treatment for shoulder dystocia?

A

The first-line treatment is the McRobert’s manoeuvre, which involves:

  1. Placing the woman in a recumbent position with hips abducted and knees bent towards the chest.
  2. Applying suprapubic pressure to dislodge the anterior shoulder.
  3. Performing a generous episiotomy.
319
Q

What is the success rate of the McRobert’s manoeuvre in shoulder dystocia cases?

A

The McRobert’s manoeuvre is successful in the majority of shoulder dystocia cases.

320
Q

What are some advanced manoeuvres used if McRobert’s manoeuvre fails?

A

Advanced manoeuvres include:

Rotation of the fetal shoulders to an oblique pelvic diameter.

Manual delivery of the posterior arm.

Wood’s screw manoeuvre, where rotation is applied to the fetal shoulders to free the impacted shoulder.

321
Q
A
322
Q
  1. What is the third stage of labour?
A

The third stage of labour lasts from the delivery of the infant to the delivery of the placenta, typically completed within 10-15 minutes, and should be complete within 30 minutes.

323
Q

Define primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH).

A

Primary postpartum hemorrhage is defined as bleeding from the genital tract in excess of 500 mL within the first 24 hours after delivery.

324
Q

What are the most common sites for bleeding in primary postpartum hemorrhage?

A

The most common site for bleeding in primary postpartum hemorrhage is from the placental site.

325
Q

What are the four Ts associated with causes of primary postpartum hemorrhage?

A

The four Ts are:

  1. Tone (uterine atony)
  2. Tissue (retained placenta or placental tissue)
  3. Trauma (lacerations or uterine rupture)
  4. Thrombin (coagulation problems)
326
Q

What percentage of primary postpartum hemorrhage is due to uterine atony?

A

Uterine atony accounts for 75-90% of all cases of postpartum hemorrhage.

327
Q

List some predisposing factors for primary postpartum hemorrhage.

A

Uterine overdistension (e.g., multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnios)

Prolonged labour and instrumental delivery

Antepartum hemorrhage (e.g., placenta previa, abruption)

Multiparity

Uterine abnormalities (e.g., multiple fibroids)

General anaesthesia

Trauma to the genital tract (e.g., episiotomy, lacerations)

Uterine rupture and caesarean scar dehiscence

Haematomas in the vulva, vagina, and broad ligament

Coagulation disorders (e.g., HELLP syndrome, sepsis, DIC)

328
Q

What are the treatment steps for controlling primary postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Treatment involves:

  1. If the placenta is retained:

Uterine massage to ensure contraction.

Controlled cord traction to deliver the placenta.

Manual removal of the placenta under anesthesia if necessary.

  1. If the placenta is expelled:

Uterine massage and compression to expel retained clots.

IV oxytocin and IV infusion of Hartmann’s solution.

If bleeding continues, administer ergometrine IV (unless contraindicated).

Use misoprostol rectally if bleeding persists.

Intramuscular or intramyometrial injection of 15-methyl prostaglandin F2α every 15 minutes (max 8 doses).

Blood sample for Hb%, coagulation disorders, and cross-matching.

Manual exploration and evacuation if placenta/membranes are incomplete.

Examine vagina and cervix for lacerations and suture as needed.

  1. Resuscitation:

Actively replace blood loss with IV crystalloid, colloid, blood, and blood products.

  1. If conservative measures fail:

Bimanual compression of the uterus.

Uterine tamponade with balloon catheters.

Uterine compression sutures (e.g., B-Lynch suture).

329
Q

If the placenta is retained TREATMENT

A

Uterine massage to ensure contraction.

Controlled cord traction to deliver the placenta.

Manual removal of the placenta under anesthesia if necessary.

330
Q

If the placenta is expelled TREATMENT

A

Uterine massage and compression to expel retained clots.

IV oxytocin and IV infusion of Hartmann’s solution.

If bleeding continues, administer ergometrine IV (unless contraindicated).

Use misoprostol rectally if bleeding persists.

Intramuscular or intramyometrial injection of 15-methyl prostaglandin F2α every 15 minutes (max 8 doses).

Blood sample for Hb%, coagulation disorders, and cross-matching.

Manual exploration and evacuation if placenta/membranes are incomplete.

Examine vagina and cervix for lacerations and suture as needed.

331
Q

Resuscitation

A

Actively replace blood loss with IV crystalloid, colloid, blood, and blood products.

332
Q

If conservative measures fail

A

Bimanual compression of the uterus.

Uterine tamponade with balloon catheters.

Uterine compression sutures (e.g., B-Lynch suture).

333
Q

What are the treatment options for primary postpartum hemorrhage when conservative measures fail?

A

Treatment options include:

  1. Internal iliac and uterine artery ligation
  2. Major vessel embolization
  3. Hysterectomy
334
Q

Define secondary postpartum hemorrhage.

A

Secondary postpartum hemorrhage refers to abnormal vaginal bleeding occurring at any time in the puerperium, up to 6 weeks after delivery.

335
Q

What are some causes of secondary postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Causes include:

Retained placental tissue

Intrauterine infection

Rare causes such as trophoblastic disease

336
Q

How is mild secondary postpartum hemorrhage managed?

A

If the bleeding is slight, the uterus is not tender, and there are no signs of infection, observation is justified.

337
Q

What is the treatment for heavy secondary postpartum hemorrhage associated with signs of infection?

A

For heavy bleeding with signs of infection, administer intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and perform uterine exploration under anesthesia.

338
Q

Describe vaginal wall haematomas and their management.

A

Vaginal wall haematomas can occur from lacerations:

Superficial haematomas: Located below the levator ani, cause pain and require drainage and ligation of bleeding vessels.

Deep haematomas: Located above the levator ani, not externally visible, present with pelvic pain, urinary retention, and unexplained anemia. They are diagnosed by vaginal examination or ultrasound and managed by incision and drainage, with antibiotic therapy and possible blood transfusion.

339
Q

What is uterine inversion, and how is it managed?

A

Uterine inversion is a rare complication where the uterine fundus inverts and protrudes through the cervix, often occurring during placental delivery. Symptoms include severe abdominal pain and maternal shock. Management involves:

Leaving the placenta attached

Initiating fluid resuscitation

Attempting manual repositioning of the fundus, or using hydrostatic pressure. If unsuccessful, replacement under general anesthesia is required.

340
Q

What causes perineal wound breakdown, and how is it treated?

A

Perineal wound breakdown can occur due to infection or haematoma. Small areas can be treated with:

Regular cleaning

Antibiotics

Allowing granulation until healed

341
Q

Define amniotic fluid embolism (AFE) and its clinical presentation.

A

Amniotic fluid embolism is a serious complication occurring during labor or delivery, characterized by:

Sudden acute respiratory distress

Cardiovascular collapse
It occurs when amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation, triggering a reaction similar to anaphylaxis and septic shock.

342
Q
A
343
Q

44.What are some risk factors contributing to puerperal infections?

A

Risk factors include:

Prolonged rupture of membranes

Chorioamnionitis

Repeated vaginal examinations

Poor personal hygiene

Bladder catheterization

Invasive fetal monitoring

Instrumental deliveries

Caesarean sections

Perineal trauma

Manual removal of the placenta

344
Q

What are the clinical features of endometritis?

A

Clinical features of endometritis include:

Fever

Lower abdominal pain

Secondary postpartum hemorrhage

Foul-smelling vaginal discharge

345
Q

What organisms are commonly associated with endometritis?

A

Common organisms include:

Group A β-haemolytic streptococci

Aerobic Gram-negative bacteria

Anaerobes

346
Q

How is endometritis treated?

A

Treatment for endometritis involves:

Broad-spectrum antibiotics as the first-line treatment

Resolution should start within the first 48 hours

347
Q

What are potential complications of endometritis?

A

Complications can include:

Parametritis

Peritonitis

Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis

Pelvic abscesses

Toxic shock syndrome (rare)

348
Q

What are the predisposing factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs) in the postpartum period?

A

Predisposing factors include:

History of previous UTIs

Polycystic kidneys

Congenital abnormalities of the renal tract

Neuropathic bladder

Urinary tract calculi

Most cases are idiopathic

349
Q

What are the common symptoms of UTIs in the postpartum period?

A

Symptoms of UTIs include:

Voiding difficulties (urgency and frequency)

Dysuria

Fever

Pain

350
Q

What are the common organisms associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

A

Common organisms include:

E. coli

Enterococcus

Klebsiella

Proteus

Staphylococcus epidermidis

351
Q

What are the symptoms of mastitis and breast abscess?

A

Symptoms include:

Breast pain

Fever

Erythema

352
Q

What organisms are commonly associated with mastitis?

A

Common organisms include:

S. aureus

S. epidermidis

Group A, B, and F streptococci

353
Q

How is mastitis treated compared to a breast abscess?

A

Mastitis: Treated with oral antibiotics.

Breast abscess: Requires intravenous treatment and possibly surgical drainage if fluctuance is present.

354
Q

What are common organisms causing caesarean wound infections and perineal infections?

A

Common organisms include:

S. aureus

MRSA

Skin flora

Organisms involved with endometritis

355
Q

What are common organisms causing caesarean wound infections and perineal infections?

A

Common organisms include:

S. aureus

MRSA

Skin flora

Organisms involved with endometritis

356
Q

What are the complications of caesarean wound infections?

A

Complications include:

Wound dehiscence

Necrotizing fasciitis

357
Q

Describe the management of perineal infections.

A

Management includes:

Keeping the wound clean

Allowing healing by secondary intention

Resuturing only if the wound is clean with no residual inflammation

358
Q

What is the most common form of thromboembolic disease postpartum?

A

Thrombophlebitis is the most common form, typically arising within the first 3–4 days after delivery.

359
Q

What are the symptoms of thrombophlebitis?

A

Symptoms include localized inflammation, tenderness, and thickening of superficial leg veins. It is painful but rarely leads to serious embolic disease.

360
Q

What is phlebothrombosis, and when does it typically occur?

A

Phlebothrombosis refers to deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and typically arises 7–10 days after delivery, especially after operative delivery or prolonged immobilization.

361
Q

What are the clinical signs of DVT that may lead to pulmonary embolism?

A

Signs include:

Local rhonchi and pleural rub on auscultation

Symptoms may not be present until a clot breaks loose and lodges in the lung

362
Q

What is the treatment for DVT?

A

Treatment involves the use of antithrombotic agents.

363
Q

How long should anticoagulant therapy be continued postpartum for calf vein thrombosis and proximal DVT/PE?

A

Calf vein thrombosis: Continue for 6 weeks.

Proximal DVT or PE: Continue for 3 months if related to a temporary risk factor, and 6 months for a first episode of idiopathic VTE.

364
Q

Are heparin and warfarin contraindicated in breastfeeding?

A

No, both heparin and warfarin are satisfactory for use postpartum and are not contraindicated in breastfeeding.

365
Q

What is the threshold for transfusing a patient with anemia in the postnatal period?

A

If the hemoglobin is less than 7–8 g/dL and there is no ongoing or threat of bleeding, the decision to transfuse should be considered.

366
Q

What should be done if severe bleeding is encountered and bleeding disorders are suspected?

A

Appropriate investigations should be conducted to assess for bleeding disorders.

367
Q

What is the first-line treatment for iron deficiency in the postnatal period?

A

Oral iron should be the preferred first-line treatment. Parenteral iron is indicated when oral iron is not tolerated, not absorbed, or if patient compliance is in doubt.

368
Q

Define maternal collapse in the postpartum context.

A

Maternal collapse is an acute event involving the cardiorespiratory systems and/or brain, resulting in reduced or absent conscious level (potentially death), occurring at any stage in pregnancy and up to 6 weeks postpartum.

369
Q

What should be used to monitor and identify early signs of maternal collapse?

A

An obstetric early warning score chart should be used routinely for all women to allow early recognition of those becoming critically ill.

370
Q

What are the 4 Ts and 4 Hs used to remember common reversible causes of maternal collapse?

A

4 Ts:

Thromboembolism

Toxicity

Tension pneumothorax

Tamponade

4 Hs:

Hypovolemia

Hypoxia

Hypo/Hyperkalemia

Hypothermia

371
Q

What is the most common cause of maternal collapse?

A

Haemorrhage is the most common cause. Concealed haemorrhage, such as after a cesarean section, should not be overlooked.

372
Q

What are the rare causes of concealed haemorrhage that can lead to maternal collapse?

A

Rare causes include:

Splenic artery rupture

Hepatic rupture

373
Q

Describe the presentation of amniotic fluid embolism (AFE).

A

AFE presents as collapse during labor or delivery or within 30 minutes after delivery, manifesting as acute hypotension, respiratory distress, and acute hypoxia. Seizures and cardiac arrest may occur.

374
Q

What is the most common cause of direct maternal death?

A

Thromboembolism is the most common cause of direct maternal death.

375
Q

What is the leading overall cause of maternal death?

A

Cardiac disease is the leading overall cause of maternal death, often occurring in women without previous history.

Common cardiac causes include myocardial infarction, aortic dissection, and cardiomyopathy.

376
Q

How can bacteraemia lead to maternal collapse?

A

Bacteraemia can progress rapidly to severe sepsis and septic shock, leading to collapse. Common organisms include:

Streptococcal groups A, B, and D

Pneumococcus

E. coli

377
Q

What should be considered in all cases of maternal collapse regarding drug toxicity?

A

Drug toxicity/overdose should be considered, including illicit drug overdose and therapeutic drug toxicity, such as magnesium sulphate in renal impairment and accidental intravenous local anesthetic injection.

378
Q

What are the initial effects of therapeutic drug toxicity?

A

Initial effects include a feeling of inebriation and lightheadedness, followed by sedation, circumoral paraesthesia, twitching, and potentially convulsions in severe toxicity.

379
Q

How is eclampsia recognized as a cause of maternal collapse?

A

Eclampsia is usually recognized in the inpatient setting, as the diagnosis of pre-eclampsia is often already made, and seizures are typically witnessed.

380
Q

What are the significant causes of intracranial hemorrhage in the context of maternal health?

A

Uncontrolled systolic hypertension.

Ruptured aneurysms.

Arteriovenous malformations.

381
Q

What is a significant effect of anaphylaxis on maternal health?

A

Anaphylaxis causes significant intravascular volume redistribution, leading to decreased cardiac output.

382
Q

What are common triggers of anaphylaxis?

A

Various drugs

Latex

Animal allergens

Foods

383
Q

List some causes of maternal collapse related to hypoxia or intravascular volume issues.

A

Hypoglycemia

Metabolic/electrolyte disturbances

Airway obstruction (aspiration/foreign body)

Air embolism

Tension pneumothorax

Cardiac tamponade secondary to trauma

Rarely, hypothermia

384
Q

Describe the A, B, C approach to managing maternal collapse.

A

Airway: Ensure the airway is open.

Breathing: Assess and provide breathing support.

Circulation: Monitor and support circulation.

385
Q

What is the recommended action regarding cannulation during maternal collapse?

A

Insert two wide-bore cannulae as soon as possible to facilitate aggressive volume replacement.

386
Q

How can abdominal ultrasound assist during maternal collapse?

A

It can help diagnose concealed hemorrhage.

387
Q

What should be considered as common reversible causes of maternal cardiopulmonary arrest during resuscitation?

A

The 4 H’s (Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, Hypo/Hyperkalemia, Hypothermia) and the 4 T’s (Thromboembolism, Toxicity, Tension pneumothorax, Tamponade).

388
Q

If cardiac output is not restored after 3 minutes of CPR in a pregnant woman, what should be done?

A

The fetus should be delivered by caesarean section to improve the effectiveness of maternal resuscitation efforts and potentially save the baby.

389
Q

Who should make the decision to continue resuscitation efforts in maternal collapse?

A

The decision should be made by the consultant obstetrician, consultant anaesthetist, and the cardiac arrest team.

390
Q

Why is passage through the birth canal considered a hypoxic experience for the fetus?

A

Significant respiratory exchange at the placenta is prevented during contractions lasting 50–75 seconds.

391
Q

What are the key elements of newborn life support?

A

Drying and covering the newborn to conserve heat.

Assessing the need for intervention.

Opening the airway and aerating the lungs.

Providing rescue breathing and chest compressions.

Rarely, administering drugs.

392
Q

What happens to a fetus subjected to sufficient hypoxia in utero?

A

Initially attempts to breathe.

If hypoxia continues, primary apnoea occurs with unchanged heart rate, followed by decreased heart rate as anaerobic metabolism begins.

Secondary or terminal apnoea occurs if gasps fail to aerate the lungs, eventually leading to cardiac function impairment and potential death without intervention.

393
Q

What is the most urgent requirement for an asphyxiated baby at birth?

A

The most urgent requirement is effective aeration of the lungs. If the circulation is adequate, oxygenated blood will be conveyed from the aerated lungs to the heart.

394
Q

What is the most urgent requirement for an asphyxiated baby at birth?

A

The most urgent requirement is effective aeration of the lungs. If the circulation is adequate, oxygenated blood will be conveyed from the aerated lungs to the heart.

395
Q

How do most term babies respond to the transition from placental to pulmonary respiration?

A

Most babies born at term do not require resuscitation and can stabilize themselves effectively during this transition.

396
Q
  1. What is the definition of perinatal psychiatry?
A

Perinatal psychiatry refers to psychiatric disorders that complicate pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, including new onset conditions, recurrence of previous conditions, and relapses in currently ill women.

397
Q

What percentage of pregnancies are affected by antenatal psychiatric disorders?

A

Antenatal psychiatric disorders affect 15-20% of pregnancies.

398
Q

How does the incidence of psychiatric disorders during early pregnancy compare to the non-pregnant population?

A

In early pregnancy, the rate and range of psychiatric disorders are the same as in the non-pregnant population of the same age.

399
Q

What is the trend in psychiatric disorders during pregnancy?

A

The incidence of psychiatric disorders is slightly increased during pregnancy, particularly for anxiety and depression, but serious mental illness is much reduced compared to the postpartum period.

400
Q

When do mild to moderate psychiatric disorders typically occur during pregnancy?

A

Mild to moderate depressive illness and anxiety states occur in about 15% of pregnancies, peaking in the first trimester and decreasing in later pregnancy.

401
Q

What psychological issues are linked to antenatal depressive illness?

A

Anxiety is a prominent feature, linked to early delivery, postnatal depressive illness, and problems with infant development.

402
Q

What psychological issues are linked to antenatal depressive illness?

A

Anxiety is a prominent feature, linked to early delivery, postnatal depressive illness, and problems with infant development.

403
Q

What psychological treatments are recommended for mild to moderate depression and anxiety during pregnancy?

A

Treatments such as guided self-help, counseling, and cognitive behavioral therapy are more effective than antidepressants for mild to moderate conditions.

404
Q

What is the recommendation regarding the use of antidepressants for new onset mild to moderate antenatal depressive illness?

A

Antidepressants are generally not prescribed for new onset mild to moderate antenatal depressive illness and anxiety states.

405
Q

What are the common types of serious mental illness that occur during pregnancy?

A

Schizophrenia, episodic psychoses, and bipolar disorder have a lower incidence during pregnancy compared to the postpartum period.

406
Q

What is the risk of postpartum recurrence for a woman who has fully recovered from serious mental illness over 2 years ago?

A

There is a 50% risk of early onset postpartum recurrence for women who have fully recovered from serious mental illness more than 2 years ago.

407
Q

Why is psychosis considered a psychiatric emergency during pregnancy?

A

Psychosis can severely compromise both maternal and fetal health and requires immediate intervention.

408
Q

What should be considered for women who have experienced serious mental illness more than 2 years ago?

A

These women should be recognized as being at high risk for postpartum illness, even if currently well.

409
Q

What is the management approach for women with a history of serious mental illness during pregnancy?

A

Management should be a joint effort between maternity and psychiatric services, including a consultant obstetrician, balancing the risk of relapse if antipsychotic medication is reduced or withdrawn.

410
Q

What is the general guideline regarding the use of antipsychotic medication during pregnancy?

A

Antipsychotic medication should generally be continued during pregnancy to manage serious mental illness.

411
Q

What should happen to mood stabilizers used for bipolar disorder before conception?

A

Mood stabilizers should be withdrawn before conception and substituted with an antipsychotic agent.

412
Q

If psychiatric admission is necessary in the last trimester of pregnancy, where should it occur?

A

Admission should be to a specialized mother and baby unit to support both maternal and infant health.

413
Q

What is the safety profile of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) in pregnancy?

A

TCAs, except for clomipramine, show no increased risk of structural or functional fetal abnormalities, early pregnancy loss, restricted interuterine growth, or early delivery. However, they can cause neonatal withdrawal effects if taken at full dose before delivery.

414
Q

Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) has been linked to cardiac abnormalities?

A

Paroxetine has been linked with cardiac abnormalities, specifically ventricular septal defect. Other SSRIs, like fluoxetine and sertraline, are supported for use in pregnancy.

415
Q

What are the potential risks associated with SSRIs during pregnancy?

A

SSRIs may be associated with increased rates of early pregnancy loss, growth restriction, early delivery, and pulmonary hypertension in the newborn.

416
Q

What is the recommendation regarding the use of serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) in pregnancy?

A

Due to a lack of evidence regarding their safety and concerns about pulmonary hypertension, SNRIs should generally not be used in pregnancy.

417
Q

What are the risks associated with lithium carbonate during pregnancy?

A

Lithium is associated with an increased risk of cardiac abnormalities, particularly Ebstein’s anomaly, and can be used during the second trimester but is problematic in later pregnancy.

418
Q

What is the risk associated with sodium valproate during pregnancy?

A

Sodium valproate is associated with an increased risk of fetal malformations, especially neural tube defects, and should not be used in women of reproductive age unless there are no effective alternatives.

419
Q

What is the risk associated with sodium valproate during pregnancy?

A

Sodium valproate is associated with an increased risk of fetal malformations, especially neural tube defects, and should not be used in women of reproductive age unless there are no effective alternatives.

420
Q

What is the postpartum blues, and when does it typically occur?

A

The postpartum blues involve emotional lability, tearfulness, exhaustion, anxiety, and irritability, usually occurring between day 3 and day 10, peaking around day 5. It lasts for about 48 hours and requires reassurance and support, not treatment.

421
Q

What are the characteristics of postpartum (puerperal) psychosis?

A

It has an abrupt onset, occurs in 80% of cases within 3–14 days postpartum, and features a rapidly changing clinical picture. Risk factors include family/personal history and emergency caesarean sections. Treatment typically involves admission with the baby and vigorous treatment, often with a good prognosis.

422
Q

What are the symptoms and management for severe postnatal depression?

A

Symptoms include overt guilt, worthlessness, ruminative worry, obsessive thoughts, and anxiety. Onset occurs in the first 2 weeks postpartum, often requiring treatment with antidepressants and counseling. Presentation peaks at 2–4 weeks and 10–14 weeks.

423
Q

What are the symptoms and management for severe postnatal depression?

A

Symptoms include overt guilt, worthlessness, ruminative worry, obsessive thoughts, and anxiety. Onset occurs in the first 2 weeks postpartum, often requiring treatment with antidepressants and counseling. Presentation peaks at 2–4 weeks and 10–14 weeks.

424
Q

How does mild to moderate postnatal depression present, and what is the treatment approach?

A

Women often express problems with mothering, have an insidious onset in the first week, and show symptoms of anxiety and phobias. It presents typically 3 months to 1 year postpartum. Treatment includes counseling and social support.