Radio Minimals Flashcards
Distal radial Colles fracture
Humeral surgical neck fracture
medial( proximal) femoral neck fracture
gonarthrosis
bimalleolar fracture
dilatation of the left ureter and renal pelvis
urinary bladder rupture
pneumoperitoneum
nephrolithiasis( radiopaque right kidney stones)
renal stone with acoustic shadowing
hepatic cyst -ultrasound image
multiple liver metastasis
multiple liver metastasis - post-contrast CT
gallbladder stone
acute calculous cholecystitis
pancreatic tail pseudocyst
sigmoid cancer
sigmoid diverticulosis
hiatal hernia
esophageal diverticulum
aortic abdominal aneurysm
aortic abdominal dissection
breast neoplasm
anterolisthesis L.IV.-V.
spondylosis
syringomyelia
disc herniation L.IV.-V. -MRI
acute subdural hematoma
pulmonary embolism
hydrocephalus
osteoplastic vertebral metastasis
small bowel ileus
cerebral hemorrhagic contusion
acute osteomyelitis
ptx on left side
pleural effusion on right side
lung collapse on right side
pneumonia on right side
peripheral lung cancer on right side and aortic dissection
multiplex pulmonary metastasis
bilateral hilar lymphadenomegaly
lung abscess
epidural hematoma
subarachnoid hemorrhage
subacute cerebral infarction
multiple sclerosis
multiple cerebral metastasis
posterior cranial fossa tumor
osteolytic metastasis in left iliac bone
osteoporosis and vertebral compression fractures
unlike tumours, there is no perifocal oedema
Wegener-granulomatosis
parotid
L.I-II
osteoid osteoma
gastrointestinal malignancies
round atelectasis
DIP joints
Bosniak
less aerated lungs
subclavian steal syndrome
oligodendroglioma
quick rise, quick wash-out
esophagus, gastric x-ray
right ventricle
MR
hiatus hernia
kidney
Alzheimer’s disease
4 hours
2 days
right lung: 3-2-5, left lung: 5-5
High Resolution Computer Tomography
PA or AP chest x-ray
HRCT
CT exam
chest MR
abdominal US
abdominal US
abdominal color-Doppler
supine position, first with arms held close to the body, and then with arms raised
1, 2, 3, 4
soft tissue
soft tissue
on the left side
cerebral atrophy
right lower
certain bone lesions such as chronic pressure increase caused enlarged sella or suturolysis,
cancer caused usuration,
destruction in the bone,
to assess pathologic calcifications
foot
1895
bronchogenic cyst
pancreatitis
fracture
epistaxis
breast implant
left atrium
2,4
pneumonia
Hounsfield
bilateral pleural effusion
erosion
it is always present in only one of the breasts
it cannot cause lymphangitis
it often leads to ptx
increased lung (vascular) markings
apico-basal caliber discrepancy
wide joint space
with CT it is homogenious, and it shows mild enhancement
it is spiculated
their hila are oriented ventral
parenchymal hemorrhage
epistaxis
thymus
it is useful in the detection of emphysema
left upper
arteriosclerosis
temporal
anorectal atresia
TBC
CT
glioblastoma multiforme
hippocampus
in all ages to assess certain types of brain tumors
MRI
metal
it can be carried out right after a breast operation, while x-ray mammography cannot because that is painful
nephropathy and lactate acidosis
hypodens
we detect the time course of contrast enhancement
elevated diaphragm
a stripe of gas in degenerated intervertebral discs
to diagnose microcalcifications
narrow external liquor space
colon between the liver and the right dome of the diaphragm
it is a type of atelectasis that may be associated with peritonitis
to decide whether a central lung tumor is operable or not
they are not using ionizing radiation
the pseudojoints that form between the spinous processes
hypertrophied renal cortex
1000
0
-100
20-70
in a supine position, the head is lower than the rest of the body
we perform an US or MR exam instead
lung cancer
calcifications in the HS joint capsule and in the ligaments of the muscles
non-ossifying fibroma
pericardial cyst
popcorn calcification
lead pipe sign
PCI
lead pipe sign
MRI
cardio-MRI
lead pipe sign
It often spreads across white matter commissural tracts.
Hampton’s line
liver cyst
vena cava superior
No further imaging is necessary.
Select one:
a.
The approximate age of this fetus is 18 week.
b.
A right ovary appears separate from the gestational sac.
c.
The gestational sac is present, and it is within the uterus.
d.
Color Dopler analysis demontrates no significant abnormality in the right adnexa.
e.
While a gestational sac is present, there is no embryo or yolk sac identified.
A right ovary appears separate from the gestational sac.
Select one:
a.
The axial CT image shows an additional osseous abnormality.
b.
There is no damage to the cervical spinal cord.
c.
This injury is considered stable.
d.
There is high incidence of tetraplegia associated with these injuries.
e.
There is no soft tissue injury.
There is high incidence of tetraplegia associated with these injuries.
A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe colicky right flank pain, which radiates to the groin. He is afebrile, and his vital signs are stable. A urinalysis reveals hematuria. A CT of the abdomen and pelvis is obtinated. Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a.
The cause of pain is most likely musculoskeletal in origin.
b.
This disease process is more common is women.
c.
There is obstructive uropathy on the right.
d.
Radiographs are considered sufficient to make this diagnosis.
e.
Inravenosus (IV) contrast should have been administered.
There is obstructive uropathy on the right.
A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with symptoms of malaise, dry cough, and dyspnea for several weeks.
Physical examination reveals tachypnea, tachycardia, and fever, with crackles on auscultation.
On further questioning , the patient admits to IV drug abuse. The chest x-ray findings (1. figure) prompt the clinician to order a chest CT study, from which is a representative section in the coronal plane is shown in the 2. figure.
What is the likely diagnosis?
Select one:
a.
Miliary tuberculosis (TB)
b.
Pulmonary edema
c.
Pneumococcal pneumonia
d.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) pneumonia
e.
Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)
Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)
A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever, nausea, and vomiting and is found to have diffuse abdominal tenderness and a leukocytosis. A CT of the abdomen is performed.
Which of the statements regarding the CT findings is correct?
Select one:
a.
There is strong evidence of appendiceal perforation.
b.
There is an appendicolith.
c.
This appendix is likely to be compressible on ultrasound.
d.
The appendix is abnormally dilated, and its wall is abnormally enhancing.
e.
The pericecal fat is normal in density.
The appendix is abnormally dilated, and its wall is abnormally enhancing.
A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of elbow to the head during a basketball game. He lost consciousness for a few minutes.Upon regainig consciousness, he was alert and oriented, complaining of headache.
By the time he arrived via ambulance , he coplained of sever headache and was vomiting. A CT scan of the head was ordered and demonstrated the above findings. There is a hyperdense, biconvex collection in the left parietal region with a subtle, nondisplaced fracture of the left parietel bone.
The appearance above is most consistent with:
An acute epidural hematoma.
A 25-year-old woman is involved in a low-speed MVA and is taken to the emergency department. She is found to be stable, but is complaining of diffuse abdominal pain, and therefore a CT of the abdomen is obtained.
Which of the following statements regarding the image provided is true?
Select one:
a.
This abnormality has developed acutely.
b.
There is active hemorrhage in the pelvis.
c.
If left untreated, the salient abnormality can result in severe complications.
d.
There is no malignant potential of the identified abnormality.
e.
This abnormality is found only in the pelvis.
If left untreated, the salient abnormality can result in severe complications.
A 32-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with pain in her left elbow after falling while roller-blading 2 days ago and bracing her fall with her outstretched left arm.
On physical exam, there is swelling and diffuse tenderness involving the left elbow. Radiographs are obtained. Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a.
A supracondylar fracture is highly likely.
b.
There is no joint effusion.
c.
The anterior fat pad is elevated.
d.
The posterior fat pad is not displaced.
e.
There is no fracture.
The anterior fat pad is elevated.
A 33-year-old healthy man is in the operting room being prepared for inguinal hernia repair. Intubation is unexpectedly difficult, and after a traumatic intubation, the patient is noted to be hypoxic. A stat portable chest x-ray is obtained.
What is the diagnosis?
Select one:
a.
Right pneumothorax.
b.
Hyperaeration.
c.
Bilateral pneumothorax.
d.
Right tension pneumothorax.
e.
Left pneumothorax.
Bilateral pneumothorax.
A 33-year-old woman presents to the emegrency department with altered mental status and severe headache folloeing a minor motor vehicle accident (MVA) in which she was the driver.
The patient has no memory of the incident. The CT scan is above.The most likely explanation of the above finding is:
Select one:
a.
Incidental calcification within the subarachnoid space.
b.
Posttraumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage.
c.
Posttraumatic subdural hemorrhage.
d.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) secondary to rupture of an aneurysm.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) secondary to rupture of an aneurysm.
A 35-year-old Hispanic man presented to the emergency department with a history of worsening headache.
While in the emergency department, the patient suffered a witnessed simple partial seizure. A CT scan of the head was obtained.
What is the most likely etiology for the above CT findings?
Select one:
a.
Toxic
b.
Metabolic
c.
Infectious
d.
Inflammatory
e.
Congenital
Infectious
A 38-year-old woman presents to her physician’s office with a complaint of acute onset of blurry vision and pain in her left eye. Her medical history is otherwise unremarkable.
The MRI demonstrated enhancement of the left intraorbital segment of the optic nerve on coronal postcontrast T1 imaging corresponding to optic nerve edema demonstarted on the coronal T2 imaging.
Axial fluid attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) imaging of the brain demonstrated multiple hyperintense lesions predomintly preventricular in location.
Her blurry vision is most likely related to:
Select one:
a.
Orbital cellulitis
b.
Optic neuritis
c.
Ischemic optic neuropathy
d.
Orbital pseudotumor
Optic neuritis
Select one:
a.
Pericardial cyst
b.
Diaphragmatic hernia
c.
Teratoma
d.
Thymoma
e.
Lymphoma
Thymoma
Select one:
a.
Endotracheal tube (ET) tube adjustment
b.
Administration of IV furosemide
c.
NG tube placement
d.
A left lateral decubitus chest x-ray
e.
Chest tube placement
Endotracheal tube (ET) tube adjustment
Select one:
a.
Facial nerve schwannoma
b.
Acute erosive otomastoiditis
c.
Vestibular schwannoma
d.
Bell palsy (facial neuritis)
Bell palsy (facial neuritis)
A 48-year-old man presented to his primary care physician with a 6-month history of gradually increased awareness of sudden random muscular jerking.
His wife reports that his thinking seems to be more clouded and there are personality changes.
The MRI demonstrated symmetric signal abnormality within the cerebral cortex, caudate heads, and putamen on the T21 and diffusion-weighted images. The most likely diagnosis is
Select one:
a.
Multiple sclerosis
b.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)
c.
Encephalitis
d.
Multi-infarct dementia
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)
A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal bloating, nausea, vomiting, and no bowel movement in 4 days.
Past surgical history is significant for appendectomy as a young adult.
On physical exam, the abdomen is distended, and there is a paucity of bowel sounds, but there is no rebound tenderness.
The patient’s vital signs are stable and laboratory tests are normal. Whikle waiting for a surgical consult, abdominal radiograps are performed.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a.
There is a small bowel obstruction.
b.
There is a large bowel obstruction.
c.
There are signs of vascular compromise.
d.
CT of the abdomen is unnecessary.
e.
Tumor is the most likely etiology.
There is a small bowel obstruction.
A 50-year-old man with no pas medical history presents to the emergency department with new yellowing of his skin and eye. He denies any abdominal pain.
Aside from elevated bilirubin, his serum chemistries are normal. Based on the images from contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen above, what is the diagnosis?
Select one:
a.
Sclerosing cholangitis
b.
Portal vein thrombosis
c.
Adenocarcinoma of the pancreatic head
d.
Cholangiocarcinoma
e.
Obstructive choledocholithiasis
Obstructive choledocholithiasis
A 50-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that has worsened over the course of about a week.
She is also dyspneic. Her past medical history is significant for injuries sustained in an MVA 1 year ago.
Pertinent physical exam findings include decreased breath sounds in the right lung base, and abdominal guarding and rebound tenderness.
She is tachycardic with a borderline low blood pressure. Her serum lactate is elevated. Which of the following statements is true regarding the findings on the select images provided from CT of the abdomen?
Select one:
a.
The patient has a good prognosis with surgical management.
b.
The visualized bowel is normal.
c.
Findings are most consistent with complicated pneumonia in the right lung base.
d.
This acute process is likely the sequela of remote trauma.
e.
The right hemidiaphragm is intact.
This acute process is likely the sequela of remote trauma.
A 50-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of the gradually increasing shortness of breath.
She has a history of mild asthma and has smoked one pack of cigarettes a day for 10 years.
On physical examination, she has facial swelling, distended neck veins, and prominent superficial veins on her chest wall. A chest x-ray is obtained for further evaluation.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select one:
a.
Pulmonary embolism
b.
TB
c.
Lung cancer
d.
Lymphoma
e.
Astma exacerbation
Lung cancer
A 53-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain and shortness of breath.
The ECG shows elevated ST segments. A chest x-ray is obtained which shows diffuse coarsening of the interstitial markings, with Kerley A lines (straight yellow arrow), Kerley B lines (red arrows), and small bilateral pleural effusions (curved yellow arrows).
What is the significance of the Kerley A and B lines on the chest x-ray?
Select one:
a.
The patient is developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
b.
The patient has Mycoplasma pneumonia.
c.
The patient has metastatic lung cancer.
d.
The patient has pulmonary interstitial edema.
e.
The patient has asbestosis.
The patient has pulmonary interstitial edema.
A 55-year-old woman with no significant past medical histrory presents to the emergency department with severe, intermittent, diffuse, abdominal pain, worsering over the course of a few days.
Physical examination is pertinent for abdominal tenderness in the left lower quadrant. There is no blood per rectum.
Vital signs are stable, and laboratory values are normal. A CT of the abdomen is obtained. Based on the images provided, which of the following statement is true?
Select one:
a.
There is a small bowel obstruction.
b.
The emergency department physician should immediately consult the urology service.
c.
A predisposing condition responsible for an acute process is identified.
d.
The salient abnormality is within the right lower quadrant.
e.
Nonsurgical management is preferred.
A predisposing condition responsible for an acute process is identified.
A 55-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer is found to have an elevated alkaline phosphatase on recent blood work and is sent for a bone scan.
Based on the findings of the bone scan, radiographs are obtained. Based on the images provided, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a.
There is a solitary suspicious finding on the bone scan.
b.
The radiographs are most compatible with an old healed fracture.
c.
The findings on the bone scan and radiographs are disconcordant.
d.
There is abnormal activity in the pelvis on the bone scan.
e.
Bone scan are a sensitive modality for breast carcinoma metastases.
Bone scan are a sensitive modality for breast carcinoma metastases
A 58-year-old construction worker undergoing routine physical examination for life insurance evaluation is found to have decreased breath sounds at the left lung base, and a chest x-ray is oredered for further evaluation.
Based on the x-ray interpretation, which of the following diagnoses must be considered?
Select one:
a.
TB
b.
All of the above
c.
Mesothelioma
d.
Metastatic lung cancer
All of the above
Select one:
a.
Medical management (i.e., lower blood pressure)
b.
Watchful waiting
c.
Endovascular graft placement
d.
Aortic valve replacement
e.
Aortic bypass
Medical management (i.e., lower blood pressure)
A 60-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaints of intermittent mild bone pain, especially in the back. She has lost weight since her last visit.She is found to be mildly anemic and to have mild renal insufficiency on laboratory tests.
Further testing of the patient’s urine reveals the presence of Bence Jones proteins. She is sent for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the spine.
She informs the MRI technologist that she long ago had a piece of metal stuck her eye after a car accident.
A lateral radiograph of the skull is performed to evaluate for metallic foreign body in the orbits prior the MRI.
Which of the following statements is true??
Select one:
a.
Findings on the radiograph suggest a process involving overactive osteoblasts and suppressed osteoclasts.
b.
There is intraorbital metal, an absolute contraindication to an MRI.
c.
If this disease involves the lumbar spine, MRI to be performed is not sensitive in identifying lesions.
d.
The patient likely has elevated serum calcium.
e.
The patient’s prognosis is favorable.
The patient likely has elevated serum calcium.
A 60-year-old women presents to her primary care physician with weight loss and iron deficiency anemia.
Fecal occult blood tests are positive. A double-contrast barium enema is performed for further evaluation. Which of the following statements is true regarding this disease?
Select one:
a.
The treatment requirest surgical resection, possibly with adjuvant chemotherapy.
b.
Common risk factors include a hight-fiber, low-fat, and animal protein diet, inflammatory bowel disease, and positive family history.
c.
This condition does not usually present with obstruction.
d.
These lesions are not associated with bening polyps.
e.
This location is the most common site for this entity.
The treatment requirest surgical resection, possibly with adjuvant chemotherapy.
A 63-year-old healthy man with no smoking history has a lung nodule incidentally discovered on a preoperative chest x-ray for knee arthroscopy.
Chest CT confirms a 9-mm solitary nodule (arrow) in the right middle lobe with no other abnormalities.
What is the next appropiate step?
Select one:
a.
CT guided lung biopsy
b.
Purified protein derivate (PPD) placement
c.
Follow up CT scan in 1 year
d.
PET scanning
e.
No further evaluation is needed
No further evaluation is needed
A 63-year-old man presents with a history of acute onset of the left hemiparesis and dysarthria 12 hours before his arrival to the emergency department.
A CT scan was ordered. The best next step in his management is:
Select one:
a.
Oral administration of 325 mg aspirin.
b.
Emergent CT perfusion study to assess for the amount of tissue at risk.
c.
Emergent angiographic intervention with thrombectomy.
d.
Emergent administration of intraarterial recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA).
Oral administration of 325 mg aspirin.
A 64-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician after tripping in her driveway and is complaining of left wrist pain and swelling. She is reffered to the local imaging center for radiographs of the wrist, and returns to her doctor with one radiograph from the study.
Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a.
Most of these injuries require surgery.
b.
An underlying advanced inflammatory arthropathy predisposed zhe patient to this injury.
c.
This is not expected location of injury, given the patient’s age.
d.
No other padiographic views are necessary in this case.
e.
When the patient fell, she likely landed on the palm of her dorsiflexed hand
When the patient fell, she likely landed on the palm of her dorsiflexed hand.
A 69-years old woman with a history of poorly controlled hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presented with a history of left-sided weakness and sensory deficit predominantly involving the lower limb, with hypobulia.
The CT (computer tomography) scan is above. The most likely cause of the above finding is:
Select one:
a.
Ischemic infarction secondary to hypoperfusion
b.
atherosclerotic occlusion of the right anterior cerebral artery (ACA)
c.
hypertensive intracranial hemorrhage
d.
atherosclerotic occlusion of the right middle cerebral artery (MCA)
atherosclerotic occlusion of the right anterior cerebral artery (ACA)
A 70-year-old women suffers a fall at home and is brought to the emergency department by a neighbor.
She is unable to walk and complains of pain in her left hip. Radiographs are obtained while she is in the waiting room. Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a.
This injury does not require surgery.
b.
This injury is often related to overuse.
c.
There is a pathologic fracture.
d.
There is an increased risk of avascular necrosis secondary to this injury.
e.
This injury is the last common at this anatomis location.
There is an increased risk of avascular necrosis secondary to this injury.
A 77-year-old man has a normal preoperative chest x-ray (top A and B images) prior to coronary arterial bypass graft.
His hospital course proceeds uneventfully, and he is discharged for outpatient rehabilitation.
At his 6-week postoperative cheskup, he reports persistent dyspnea without chest pain or palpitations, especially with exercise or when lying down. The ECG shown no changes, and the lungs sound clear on exam. A follow-up chest x-ray (bottom C and D images) is obtained for futher evaluation.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select one:
a.
Right lower lung collapse
b.
Subpulmonic effusion.
c.
Right phrenic nerve palsy
d.
Dressler syndrome.
e.
Congestive heart failure.
Right phrenic nerve palsy
A mother reports to the pediatrician with her 9-month-old son with a chief complaint of refusal to feed today and increased drooling.
The infant is inconsolabry crying, making auscultation of the lungs difficult, but appears dyspneic, and between cries the physican hears stridor.
The child is transferred to the nearest emergency department and anteroposterior (AP) and lateral chest radiographs are obtained.
Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a.
Dyspnea and stridor can occur in children when a foreign body is within the esophagus.
b.
In the setting of a suspected foreign body withinh the airways, if radiographs are normal, bronchoscopy is not indicated.
c.
Low-dose CT of the thorax is not helpful in evaluation for foreign bodies within both the esophagus and airways.
d.
The right lung is hyperinflated relative to the left.
e.
Based on the radiographic findings, a bronchoscopy should be performed immediately.
Dyspnea and stridor can occur in children when a foreign body is within the esophagus
An 18-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of chest discomfort. On physical examination, she is mildly tachypneic and tachycardic, with a fever os 101o F.
Her past medical history is significant for a seizure disorder. Her chest x-ray is above.
What is the likly diagnosis?
Select one:
a.
Fungal pneumonia
b.
Lung absess
c.
Pulmonary embolus
d.
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
e.
Wegener granulomatosis
Lung absess
An 18-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of chest discomfort. On physical examination, she is mildly tachypneic and tachycardic, with a fever os 101o F.
Her past medical history is significant for a seizure disorder. Her chest x-ray is above.
What additional studies are indicates at this time?
Select one:
a.
MRI scan of the chest
b.
CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
c.
Ventilation/perfusion scan of the lungs
d.
CT scan of the chest
e.
MRI scan of the brain
CT scan of the chest
An 82-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a complaint of persistent headache for the past week following a fall from standing. Cranial nerve and mental status exams are normal. The CT scan is shown above.
The finding above most likely represents:
Select one:
a.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b.
Epidural abscess
c.
Epidural hemorrhage
d.
Subdural hemorrhage
Subdural hemorrhage
An 86-year-old woman is transferred for management of a recent stroke. She is breathing spontaneously but has difficult swallowing. A portable chest x-ray is obtained following placement of a Dobhoff tube for enteric feeding.
Which os the following statements are true?
Select one:
a.
The Dobhoff tube is in satisfactory position, after passing through a large hiatal hernia and then below the diaphragm.
b.
The Dobhoff tube is in the pleural space and should be removed.
c.
The Dobhoff tube is in satisfactory position, after passing through a gastric pull-through and then below the diaphragm.
d.
The Dobhoff tube is in satisfactory position in a patient with situs inversus.
The Dobhoff tube is in the pleural space and should be removed.
An asymptomatic, 50-year-old woman presents for preop testing prior to general anesthesia for knee replacement and has the chest x-ray shown above.
What is the most appropiace next step?
Select one:
a.
CT of the neck chest without contrast.
b.
No additional imaging is needed before knee replacement surgery.
c.
CT of the neck and chest with contrast.
d.
Barium swallow.
e.
Ultrasound of the neck.
CT of the neck chest without contrast.
An HIV-positive, 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of cough and malaise.
On further questioning, he admits to IV drug abuse, and he has experienced intermittent sweats and weight loss over the last 4 months. A chest x-ray (1.image) and chest CT (1. image) were obtained.
What is the likely diagnosis?
Select one:
a.
TB
b.
PCP
c.
Metastasis
d.
Pneumococcal pneumonia
e.
Septic emboli
TB
Following a high-speed MVA, an unrestrained 47-year-old woman passenger is transported by air to the nearest trauma center. The patient required intubation at the accident scene, but responds to commands and is found to be neurologically intact on examination.
A CT of the cervical spine is performed. Based on the findings, the patient is taken for a stat MRI and then taken for surgery. An intraoperative lateral radiograph of the cervical spine is obtained.
Based on the images provided, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a.
The mechanism of injury producing this fracture classically is hyperflexion.
b.
This type of injury has been named a Jefferson fracture.
c.
Spinal cord edema and/or hemorrhage will definitely be seen on the MRI.
d.
Cervical MR angiography should be performed at the same time as the MRI.
e.
This type of cervical spine fracture is considered stable.
Cervical MR angiography should be performed at the same time as the MRI
Buckle/torus fracture.
Select one:
a.
Pneumothorax
b.
Hyperinflation without extra pulmonary air
c.
Pneumothorax and pneumomediastinum
d.
Pneumomediastinum
e.
Pneumoperitoneum
Pneumomediastinum
we change the acceleration voltage
The correct answers are:
The patient’s radiation load can be significantly decreased,
The contrast resolution is better,
The opportunity of postprocessing
Becomes sharper, the magnifying effect is less pronounced
Becomes sharper, the magnifying effect is less pronounced
Increasing
Absorption of X-ray is detected
Transversal
Static magnetic field, Variable magnetic field, Radio-frequency radiation
Transmitted, Reflected, Induced
may impede, make impossible, can improve
Bone
Product
About the density of 1H atomic nuclei in one volume element,
About the spin-spin relaxation time of 1H atomic nuclei,
About the spin-grid relaxation time of 1H atomic nuclei
Compton scattering,
pair formation,
photo effect
the endurance of the radiation
the endurance of the radiation
Strength of the cathode current
They are absorbed easier than the long waves
Long wavelength, They’re absorbed easier compared to the short waves., It is able to depict the differentiation between soft-tissues and soft tissue-bone.
The substance of anode
Decreasing the focus-film distance
It is located between the patient and the detector (film)., It has movable and fixed types too.
Its spectrum is characteristic of the material of an anode.
It occurs at a higher acceleration voltage.,
It has a linear spectrum.,
The position of the lines doesn’t depend on the voltage, but depends on the material of the anode., As it originates from the atoms of the anode, it is characteristic of the material of the anode.
Accelerator voltage (the tube voltage)
Piezo-effect
b, a, d, c
Silver-bromide
the material of anode
Using hard rays
ionisation of the atom
Difference
Giving contrast material
is proportional to the squre root of accelerational voltage
Reflected, Scattered, Attenuated
the nature of the attenuative material
CT, MRI, Ultrasound
During detection, the examanation table moves continuously, with consistent speed,
’pitch’ is the quotient of table speed and layer thickness,
if ’pitch’ is > 1.0, also the dose of radiation and the resolution of the image is lower,
if ’pitch’ is ˂ 1.0, also resolving power and radiation load increases
Its thickness decreases in the case of hard rays
Electrons exit from the heated cathode.,
Acceleration of electrons is made with high voltage.,
The anode is a metal with a high melting point.
Axial, Lateral, Temporal
higher in case of the approaching border surface, lower in case of the reflector receding
DSA
absorption,
scattering
Acoustic shadowing, Relative acoustic enhancement
Wavelength of the X-ray, Atomic number of the irradiated substance, Density of the irradiated substance, Thickness of the irradiated substance
Magnifying, Distorcion
1H, 13C, 15N, 31P
It utilizes electromagnetic radiation.,
It consists of rays with different wavelengths.,
Only 0,1 % of electron stream is transformed into X-ray.
ultrasound
Magnetic resonance is created if the frequency of the used radiofrequency impulse is the same what the protons process with
With increasing of the accelaration voltage the toughness of emitted X-ray increases.
It has linear spectrum
It occurs at every acceleration voltage
It has a decreasing effect on soft radiation
The spectrum of characteristic X-ray is linear and the wavelength of the spectrum’s maximum depends on the material of the anode
Ionisation that appears during the collision of electrons accelerated to high energy and electrons in the material of the anode is followed by bremsstrahlung.
The deceleration of a high energy neutron
excitation,
ionisation
electromagnetic
No.1 → D, Verterbae cervicales
No.6 → A, Cavitas glenoidalis
No.7 → F, Collum chirurgicum humeri
No.2 → B, Costa I.
No.3 → E, Clavicula
No.5 → C, Caput humeri
No.4 → G, Acromion
A.Acetabulum
B.Caput femoris
C.Trochanter maior
D.Os pubis
E.Os ischii
F.Os coccygis
G.Sacrum
H.Articulatio sacroiliaca
I.Ala ossis ilii
No:
- 3,5,1,2,7,4,6,8,9
No.3 → G, Sacrum
No.5 → A, Acetabulum
No.1 → I,Ala ossis ilii
No.2 → B, Caput femoris
No.7 → C, Trochanter maior
No.4 → F,Os coccygis
No.6 → H, Articulatio sacroiliaca
No.8 → D, Os pubis
No.9 → E, Os ischii
A.Septum nasi
B.n. opticus
C.Bulbus oculi
D.Cellulae ethmoidalis
E.Lens
F.m. rectus medialis
G.Glandula lacrimalis
H.m. rectus lateralis
No:
- 8,1,5,4,6,7,3,2
No.8 → G, Glandula lacrimalis
No.1 → B, n. opticus
No.5 → D, Cellulae ethmoidalis
No.4 → H, m. rectus lateralis
No.6 → E,Lens
No.7 → A,Septum nasi
No.3 → F, m. rectus medialis
No.2 → C, Bulbus oculi
A. Falx cerebri
B. Cerebellum
C. Ventriculus lateralis cornu occipitalis
D. Tentorium cerebelli
E. Ventriculus tertius
F. Myelon
G. Ventriculus quartus
No:
- 5,2,7,4,6,1,3
No.5 → G, Ventriculus quartus
No.2 → C, Ventriculus lateralis cornu occipitalis
No.7 → F, Myelon
No.4 → B, Cerebellum
No.6 → D, Tentorium cerebelli
No.1 → A, Falx cerebri
No.3 → E, Ventriculus tertius
A. Putamen
B. Insula
C. Globus pallidus
D. Caput nuclei caudati
E. Claustrum
F. Corpus pineale
G. Nucleus lentiformis
H. Capsula externa
I. Capsula interna
J. Thalamus
No:
- 8,3,6,9,7,1,2,4,5,10
No.8 → E,Claustrum
No.3 → I,Capsula interna
No.6 → C, Globus pallidus
No.9 → J, Thalamus
No.7 → A, Putamen
No.1 → B, Insula
No.2 → H, Capsula externa
No.4 → D, Caput nuclei caudati
No.5 → G,Nucleus lentiformis
No.10 → F, Corpus pineale
A. a. cerebri anterior
B. a. cerebri media
C. a. cerebri posterior
D. a. communicans anterior
E. a. basilaris
F. a. vertebralis
G. a. carotis interna
No:
- 1,3,6,7,5,2,4
No.1 → B, a. cerebri media
No.3 → A, a. cerebri anterior
No.6 → E,a. basilaris
No.7 → F, a. vertebralis
No.5 → G, a. carotis interna
No.2 → D, a. communicans anterior
No.4 → C, a. cerebri posterior
A. Processus spinosus
B. Myelon
C. Dura
D. Filum terminale
E. Discus intervertebrale
F. Conus medullaris
G. Liquor cerebrospinalis
H. Corpus vertebrae
I. Cauda equina
No:
- 5,9,1,2,3,6,8,7,4
No.5 → D,Filum terminale
No.9 → I,Cauda equina
No.1 → E, Discus intervertebrale
No.2 → H, Corpus vertebrae
No.3 → F, Conus medullaris
No.6 → A,Processus spinosus
No.8 → B,Myelon
No.7 → C, Dura
No.4 → G, Liquor cerebrospinalis
A. Vesica urinaria
B. Ureter l.s.
C. Calices
D. Pyelon
E. Pediculus vertebrae L. I.
F. Costa XII.
G. Processus spinosus vertebrae L.IV.
H. Discus intervertebralis L. II-III.
I. Processus transversus vertebrae L. V
No:
- 8,6,3,7,1,4,5,2,9
No.8 → E,Pediculus vertebrae L. I.
No.6 → I, Processus transversus vertebrae L. V.
No.3 → B,Ureter l.s.
No.7 → A, Vesica urinaria
No.1 → C,Calices
No.4 → H, Discus intervertebralis L. II-III.
No.5 → G, Processus spinosus vertebrae L.IV.
No.2 → D,Pyelon
No.9 → F, Costa XII.
A. Sinus maxillaris
B. Septum nasi
C. Concha nasalis superior
D. Meatus nasi inferior
E. Concha nasalis media
F. Meatus nasi medius
G. Concha nasalis inferior
H. Christa galli
I. Cellulae ethmoidales
J. Infundibulum
No:
- 5,4,3,6,1,2,8,7,9,10
No.5 → G, Concha nasalis inferior
No.4 → D, Meatus nasi inferior
No.3 → F, Meatus nasi medius
No.6 → A, Sinus maxillaris
No.1 → H, Christa galli
No.2 → J, Infundibulum
No.8 → E, Concha nasalis media
No.7 → B, Septum nasi
No.9 → C, Concha nasalis superior
No.10 → I, Cellulae ethmoidales
A. Sinus phrenicocostalis
B. Diaphragma
C. Trachea
D. Truncus pulmonalis
E. Costa prima
F. Atrium cordis dextrum
G. Atrium cordis sinistrum
H. V. cava superior
I. Ventriculus cordis sinister
J. Clavicula
K. Arcus aortae
L. A. pulmonalis dextra
No:
- 4,12,7,10,9,3,5,1,6,11,8,2
No.4 → G, Atrium cordis sinistrum
No.12 → E, Costa prima
No.7 → B, Diaphragma
No.10 → H,V. cava superior
No.9 → L, A. pulmonalis dextra
No.3 → D, Truncus pulmonalis
No.5 → I, Ventriculus cordis sinister
No.1 → C,Trachea
No.6 → A, Sinus phrenicocostalis
No.11 → J,Clavicula
No.8 → F, Atrium cordis dextrum
No.2 → K, Arcus aortae
Pair the numbered anatomical structures with proper anatomical designations.
A. A. vertebralis sinistra
B. Arcus aortae
C. A. basilaris
D. A. carotis communis sinistra
E. A. subclavia sinistra
F. A. carotis interna dextra
G. A. carotis externa dextra
H. Carotis bifurcatio
I. A brachiocephalica
J. A. subclavia dextra
K. A. carotis communis dextra
No:
- 1,11,5,7,9,4,10,3,6,8,2
No.1 → A,A. vertebralis sinistra
No.11 → C,A. basilaris
No.5 → J, A. subclavia dextra
No.7 → K, A. carotis communis dextra
No.9 → G,A. carotis externa dextra
No.4 → B, Arcus aortae
No.10 → F,A. carotis interna dextra
No.3 → E, A. subclavia sinistra
No.6 → I,A brachiocephalica
No.8 → H, Carotis bifurcatio
No.2 → D, A. carotis communis sinistra
A. A. pulmonalis sinistra
B. Truncus pulmonalis
C. V. cava superior
D. Corpus vertebrae
E. Sternum
F. Aorta ascendens
G. Costae
H. Pulmo sinister
I. Bronchus principalis dexter
J. Pulmo dexter
K. Aorta descendens
L. Bronchus principalis sinister
No:
- 7,6,3,10,12,2,8,5,11,9,4,1
No.7 → H, Pulmo sinister
No.6 → J, Pulmo dexter
No.3 → A, A. pulmonalis sinistra
No.10 → D, Corpus vertebrae
No.12 → L,Bronchus principalis sinister
No.2 → B,Truncus pulmonalis
No.8 → G,Costae
No.5 → C, V. cava superior
No.11 → I,Bronchus principalis dexter
No.9 → E, Sternum
No.4 → K, Aorta descendens
No.1 → F, Aorta ascendens
A. Aorta abdominalis
B. Lobus caudatus
C. V. cava inferior
D. Ventriculus
E. Ligamentum falciforme hepatis
F. Vena portae
G. Corpus vertebrae
H. Lobus hepatica sinistra
I. Lien
J. Lobus hepatica dextra
No:
- 2,9,1,7,5,10,4,3,8,6
No.2 → B, Lobus caudatus
No.9 → C, V. cava inferior
No.1 → J,Lobus hepatica dextra
No.7 → A, Aorta abdominalis
No.5 → D, Ventriculus
No.10 → F, Vena portae
No.4 → E, Ligamentum falciforme hepatis
No.3 → H, Lobus hepatica sinistra
No.8 → G, Corpus vertebrae
No.6 → I, Lien
A. Aorta abdominalis
B. Colon descendens
C. Ren dexter
D. Vena renalis sinistra
E. Lobus hepatica sinistra
F. Arteria renalis sinistra
G. Ren sinister
H. Ventriculus
I. Vena cava inferior
J. Lobus hepatica dextra
No:
- 3,9,4,7,10,6,1,8,2,5
No.3 → H, Ventriculus
No.9 → F, Arteria renalis sinistra
No.4 → B, Colon descendens
No.7 → I, Vena cava inferior
No.10 → D, Vena renalis sinistra
No.6 → C, Ren dexter
No.1 → J, Lobus hepatica dextra
No.8 → A, Aorta abdominalis
No.2 → E, Lobus hepatica sinistra
No.5 → G, Ren sinister
A. Colon ascendens
B. Colon descendens
C. Ren dexter
D. Uterus
E. Aorta abdominalis
F. Vena cava inferior
G. Lien
H. Ventriculus
I. Hepar
J. Musculus psoas
No:
- 5,1,6,3,2,9,10,7,4,8
No.5 → J, Musculus psoas
No.1 → I, Hepar
No.6 → C,Ren dexter
No.3 → G, Lien
No.2 → H, Ventriculus
No.9 → E, Aorta abdominalis
No.10 → D, Uterus
No.7 → A,Colon ascendens
No.4 → B, Colon descendens
No.8 → F, Vena cava inferior
A. Fundus uteri
B. Cervix
C. Vagina
D. Symphisis
E. Os coccygis
F. Vesica urinaria
G. Rectum
H. Cavitas uteri
I. Sacrum
No:
- 3,9,2,7,5,6,1,4,8
No.3 → H, Cavitas uteri
No.9 → C, Vagina
No.2 → A, Fundus uteri
No.7 → I, Sacrum
No.5 → G, Rectum
No.6 → D, Symphisis
No.1 → F,Vesica urinaria
No.4 → B, Cervix
No.8 → E, Os coccygis
A. Patella
B. Femur
C. Fibula
D. Tibia
E. Epicondylus medialis femoris
F. Eminentia intercondylaris medialis
G. Epicondylus lateralis femoris
H. Eminentia intercondylaris lateralis
I. Condylus femoris medialis
J. Condylus femoris lateralis
K. Condylus tibialis medialis
L. Condylus tibialis lateralis
No:
- 8,12,4,10,1,5,3,2,9,6,7,11
No.8 → E, Epicondylus medialis femoris
No.12 → D, Tibia
No.4 → L, Condylus tibialis lateralis
No.10 → F, Eminentia intercondylaris medialis
No.1 → J, Condylus femoris lateralis
No.5 → K, Condylus tibialis medialis
No.3 → A, Patella
No.2 → I,Condylus femoris medialis
No.9 → H, Eminentia intercondylaris lateralis
No.6 → C,Fibula
No.7 → G, Epicondylus lateralis femoris
No.11 → B, Femur
A. Clavicula
B. Cavitas glenoidalis
C. Articulatio acromioclavicularis
D. Collum humeri
E. Acromion
F. Tuberculum majus
G. Caput humeri
H. Collum scapulae
I. Tuberculum minus
J. Processus coracoideus
No:
- 10,1,3,8,2,6,9,7,5,4
No.10 → F, Tuberculum majus
No.1 → G, Caput humeri
No.3 → H, Collum scapulae
No.8 → B, Cavitas glenoidalis
No.2 → D, Collum humeri
No.6 → A, Clavicula
No.9 → I, Tuberculum minus
No.7 → C, Articulatio acromioclavicularis
No.5 → E, Acromion
No.4 → J, Processus coracoideus
pulmonary emboli
Rheumatoid arthritis
PTX
In ARDS there is pulmonary oedema., ARDS is bilateral, ARDS may be caused by trauma or burn., ARDS may even be caused by a head trauma.
menstruation
able to judge pulmonary effusions volume
3,5 answers are true
in all cases only HRCT is suitable for the diagnosis
HRCT is necessary for the diagnosis and follow-up of diffuse lung diseases
lung
lágyrész
true
reexpansion pulmonary oedema
supracardial total pulmonary vein transposition
is usually symmetric in sarcoidosis.
contrast enhanced CT is the standard
Pancoast tumor
loss of transparency
inhomogenous loss of transparency, that spreads throughout the affected side
the assessment of the lung parenchyma
anywhere, as air-fluid level
a contrast enhanced chest CT
if a radiolucent foreign body is present it may be necessary to obtain a chest CT or to carry out bronchoscopy
chest CT angiography
pleural effusion fluid
aortic stenosis
is more common in Marfan syndrome than in the general population
It is more sensitive for the diagnosis of PTX than a chest xray.
rib fracture
Curvy aorta shadow.
Air in the soft tissues, such as the neck.
HRCT
pneumonia
atelectasis
It may be good for the diagnosis of bone metastasis in the examined region.
hiatal hernia
hiatus hernia
large volume of pleural effusion, atelectasis, tension PTX
answers 1., 3. are true
CT-examination
T2-N1-M0
3
1.,2.,3.
The majority of the left lung is collapsed (atelectasis)
hypertrophy of the left ventricle and poststenotic dilatation of the ascending aorta
apico-basal caliber discrepancy
to determine the existence and type of interstital lung disease
insufficient surfactant production
Echocardiography
The loss of pulmonary air content immediately next to the heartwill result that we cannot distinguish the border of this two organs
hydropneumothorax
if there is also pneumothorax present
aorto-iliacal
2., 4. are true
abscess
pneumothorax
pneumatosis intestinalis
contrast enhanced chest CT
HRCT has a significant role in the diagnosis of lung fibrosis., ARDS predisposes to lung fibrosis.
air
1,2,3,4,5 answers are true
pleural effusion
It is defined as loss of lung markings beyond a bright white line.
Thoracocentesis, Transthoracal needle biopsy never causes that
fibromuscular dysplasia
pneumonia
All three of the above
a cavity with a thick wall on the bottom of which fluid layers
pneumothorax
False
False
False
True
True
True
cholecystitis acuta calculosa
acut pancreatitis
acute pancreatitis with peripancreatic exsudate
chronic pancreatitis
ductal carcinoma
Abdominal ultrasound
cyst
All of the above.
Chronic Pancreatitis
Endocrine pancreatic tumor
None of the two parts of the sentence are correct
hyperechoic pancreas
regional lymphadenopathy
thin pancreas
contracted gallbladder
Pancreatic pseudocyst
in arterial phase the mass enhances vividly, there is a typical wash-out sign in portal venous phase, it has an enhancing “pseudocapsule”
Increased through transmission
posterior acoustic shadowing
only 4. answer is true
acute pancreatitis
duodenal stenosis
central scar
FALSE
Acute cholecystitis with cholelith
Polyposis cholecystae
Chronic cholecystitis with cholelith
acoustic enhancement
Steatosis hepatis
Cirrhosis hepatis
venous phase
TRUE
FALSE
abdominal ultrasound
the pancreas is missing, there is a fatty, fibrous tissue in its location.
1, 2
The first part of the sentence is false, the second part is correct.
hypervascularised
it is the least common, benign tumor of the liver
vascular an casement
calcifications
all the answers above
Infection, liver cirrhosis, v. portae thrombosis
It may appear as diffuse hyperechogenity of the gland.
sharply demarcated, anechoic mass
false
to rule out pancreatitis
is a rare inhereted disorder, characterised by dilatation of the intrahepatic bile ducts
may positive in pancreas head malignancies, mean a nontender, palpable gallbladder
TIPS
it may cause bile duct obstruction
extrahepatic bile duct dilatation
the pancreas is thin
the pancreas is enlarged, its borders are indistinct
calcifications in the parenchyma of the pancreas may be depicted
All of the above.
Echinococcal cyst
it enhances less than the normal parenchyma
are hyperechoic, have posterior acustic shadows
Serum amilase and lipase are elevated.
is positive in acute cholecystitis, mean a painfull gallbladder pressed with the transducer
Retroperitoneal
95% are adenocarcinomas, On US, the mass appears hypoechoic, Presenting sign is the Courvoiser’s sign
Hemangioma
Abdominal ultrasound
TRUE
All
all of the above
irregular wall thickening
lamellar (layered) wall structure, the sonographic Murphy-sign can be evoked
answers 1., 3. are true
Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
needle biopsy
choledochus cyst
ERCP, abnormally wide, irregular major pancreatic duct, seen in chronic pancreatitis
MRCP, US
Anechoic, well defined area, Has posterior acustic enhancement
Color Doppler will demonstrate absence of central vascularisation
pancreatic pseudocyst
pancreatic pseudocyst
4
Abdominal US
abdominal US
US
To diagnose biliary and pancreatic pathological condition
4
True
False
False
False
False
False
Ultrasound, Intravenous urography, CT
this is a sign of acute hydronephrosis most commonly caused by stone
renal cyst
May affect both kidneys., . There are an increased number of cysts in the liver and in the pancreas compared to the avarage population., It may be associated with cerebral aneurysms.
Renovascular hypertonia
nephrocalcinosis
opens at the physiologic location.
May be accompanied by liver and pancreatic cysts
If excretion is delayed, late-phase (even 24 hour) images may be acquired.
based on the length of the ureter
Ultrasound
CT, MR
The abnormality is most likely in the urinary bladder or urethra
only A is true
both statements are true
2D UH and color doppler UH
PTC
treatment of urinary obstruction, treatment of urinary fistula cedure
renal subcapsular haematoma
the renal cortex is hypoechoic compared to the medulla
Antegrade pyelography, Cysto-urethrography
presence of Von Hippel Lindau disease, presence of Tuberous Sclerosis disease, smoking
ureterocele
2, 4 is true
1, 3 are true
inside the lesion fat density is detectable on CT
one ureter enters the urinary bladder on each side
1,2,4 are true
1,2,4 are true
Colovesical fistula., Iatrogenic (e.g.: cystoscopy), Emphysematous cystitis
US- examination
US- examination
the upper poles of the kidneys are connected
on CT the noncontrast image is best for the diagnosis
it enhances on CT
the kidney parenchyma is thinned
CT
1, 2 and 3 are true
anechoic inner structure, relative posterior acoustic enhancement
end stage kidney
end stage kidney
US is a highly sensitive modality in the imaging of the dilatation of the renal collecting system
1, 2, 3
it has a relatively homogenous structure with homogenous vascularisation
It is a prominent bulge ont he lateral border of the right kidney
‘False’.
False’
False
False
True
pyloric stenosis
epiphrenic
tracheoesophageal fistula
all the answers are true
is located at the pharyngo-esophageal junction.
the cardia is not narrowed
it is common in the jejunum
the paraesophageal type is the most common
it is difficult to differentiate from a hiatal hernia
If there are no air-fluid levels on xray, that safely rules out an ileus.
irregular folds in the vincinity of the lesion
colon carcinoma
mediastinal tumor
all of the above
true
The colon is filled with a barium containing contrast agent, the majority of which is then drained, and finally air is pumped into it.
methylcellulose
false
In the diagnosis of free abdominal air a non-contrast abdominal xray is more effective than ultrasound., Eventually muscular defense and peritonitis develops.
becomes devoid of gas
becomes distended with gas and fecal material
crescent shaped free air under the dome of the diaphragm
the ganglion cells of the plexus Auerbachi are missing
false
used to stage a known malignancy
Globus hystericus (globus pharyngis)
apple-core sign on Barium swalllow
6 cm
contrasted CT
Gastroscopy
Hiatus hernia
Hiatus hernia
air-fluid niveau formation
as a collapsed organ containing some air
false
the patient cannot eat, but he or she can drink water if necessary
in case of duodenal perforation
Fistula formation is not typical.
adenocarcinoma of colon
Answers 2., 4. are true
all the layers of the esophagus are part of the diverticulum
if there are more than one
all of the above are true
2, 5 are true
all of the above are true
If ileus is suspected, this is the first imaging test that we perform.
Answers 1., 2., 3. are true
it occurs in the upper part of the esophagus, in the pharingo-oesophageal junction
the kidney parenchyma is thinned
it may be diagnosed with US in all cases
gastroscopy
Kaposi sarcoma
mucosa
gastric ulcer
the superior mesenteric artery
duodenum atresia
it may appear anywhere along the GI tract , It may affect the GI tract in a segmental fashion
It may cause symptoms outside of the GI tract, It most commonly affects the terminal ileum
Double bubble sign
3 mm
The diameter of the appendix is greater than 8 mm, There is some free fluid int he vicinity of the appendix., There is surrounding fatty stranding.
polyp
Mesenteric adenitis
toxic megacolon
fluoroscopy (barium swallow)
contrast enhanced CT
ultrasound
abdominal ultrasound
adhesions
water soluble contrast agent
lesser curvature
rectosigmoid colon
stricture
ultrasound
serosa
stiff wall and mild dilatation of the lumen
answers 2., 4. are true
during an ultrasound scan the lumen of the appendix is compressible
appendicitis
endosonography
Crohn’s disease is more common in the left colon and in the rectum
the most common region affected by ulcerative colitis is the terminal ileum
If ileus is suspected, a non-contrast abdominal xray is the first imaging test that we perform.
Free air does not always collect under the diaphragm
Irrigoscopy is a double contrast test.
If a hiatal hernia is suspected, a barium meal study should be carried out.
If a hiatal hernia is suspected, a barium meal study should be carried out.
intussusception
Barium enema is the best test of choice to assess colorectal tumours
is originally discribed in ulcerative colitis
To demonstrate free abdominal air
To demonstrate free abdominal air
double bubble sign
False
True
False
pre-existing cyst, now inflamed
ultrasound
imaging microcalcifications
intraductal papilloma
superior-lateral
adipose
screening the population
1.,2.,3. answers are true
homogenously high density of leasion
crushed, casting
spiculated contour
cystic laesions, intracystic masses
fibroadenoma
fibroadenoma
microcalcification
macrocalcification
mediolateral-oblique, cranio-caudal
well-defined margins
1.,2.,4. answers are true
sclerotizing duct hyperplasia
By cannulating a milk duct on mamilla, we fill it with contrast material to make any intraluminal growth (i.e. papilloma) visible on mammography.
after mammography, ultrasound, biopsy if needed
fibroadenoma
CT
atypical ductal hyperplasia
cysts
Ultrasound imaging
cluster, linear
polulation screening
eggshell or macrocalcification
45-65 years
mammography
True
True
True
Paget disease
prostata carcinoma
trimalleolar fracture of the ankle
it usually means, that the bony fragments are not fixed correctly
osteochondritis dissecans
Mass of atypical plasma cells
MRI
osteolysis
Subperiosteal new bone formation
1., 2., and 3. are true
Fracture of the vertebral arch of the affected vertebra.
4 view films
osteosarcoma
It is common during childhood
osteophyte generation
Often starts with sacroileitis., The ligaments become calcified., Syndesmophytes form.
it can occur only in adults
Erosions in the small joints., Striped osteoporosis., Soft tissue swelling.
MR-exam
conventional radiography
osteoid osteoma
radius
aseptic necrosis of the femoral head
Osteosarcoma
1., 3. are true
it begins in young age
it most commonly occurs in the metaphysis of long bones
2., 4. are true
Stress fracture
osteochondrosis of the femoral head - morbus Kienböck
there is an ulnar dislocation of the fractured ulnar head
callus formation in a fracture usually leads to aggressive periosteal reaction
the underlying pathophysiology is the same as in Scheuermann disease
X-ray has a higher diagnostic value, than MRI
It is common in the long bones
The facial bones are usually involved.
it appears with a laminated (onion skin) periosteal reaction, and Codman’s triangle
It can be caused by immobility.
A four-view X-ray examination is necessary for diagnosing a scaphoid bone fracture.
no sclerosis can be seen
This type of fracture occurs in adults.
False
True
NEU-1.121. → D, NEU-1.122. → C, NEU-1.123. → E, NEU-1.119. → B, NEU-1.120. → A
also called as normotensive hydrocephalus
pars interarticularis
Cranial CT
increased lordosis of cervical spine
3rd ventricle
Glioblastoma Multiforme
acute subdural haematoma
hypoplasia of the mesencephalon
midline shift
noncontrasted MRI
subarachnoidal hemorrhage
Spondylolysis
plain head CT
2 years
Schizencephalia
Tuberous sclerosis
congenital obstructive hydrocephalus (Aqueductal stenosis)
Sturge-Weber syndrome
MR is more sensitive than CT for the diagnosis of an acute SAH
focal dilatation of the external liquor space
Digital Substractional Angiography (DSA)
2., 4. answers are true
vascular malformation in the central nervous system
usually, there is no neighbouring edema.
in the periventricul white matter
into the subarachnoid space
DSA
1., 3. answers are true
Multiple sclerosis
MR
anterolisthesis
2., 4. are true
1., 2., and 3. are true
MRI
CT
1., 3. answers are true
arachnoid cyst
Part of the cerebellum falls into the foramen magnum
dilatation of the IV. ventricle and hypoplasia of the cerebellum
rapidly growing tumor
it shows mild enhancement on contrast enhanced MR
intradural, extramedullar tumor
it is the advanced stage of spina bifida
on a plain CT scan liquor is hyperdense
Guillan-Barre syndrome
the territory of the occluded artery appears as a hypodense area
the arches are usually not fused
they usually never grow out from the hypophyseal fossa.
the causes are usually extra-spinal
it is characterised by syringomyelia, due to compression to the spinal cord
oligodendroglioma
Because the scar enhances contrast media.
True
True
True
True
False
True
True
True
False
