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OB/GYN Flashcards

1
Q

primary amenorrhea

A

no menses by 13 + absence of secondary characteristics

or no menses by 15 even if secondary characteristics are present

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2
Q

secondary amenorrhea

A

3 mos if regular cycles
6 mos if irregular cycles

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3
Q

MCC secondary amenorrhea

A

pregnancy

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4
Q

MC location of ectopic pregnancy

A

ampulla of the fallopian tube

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5
Q

sx ectopic pregnancy

A

unilateral pelvic pain + vaginal bleeding + amenorrhea

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6
Q

beta hCG in ectopic pregnancy

A

decreased

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7
Q

strongest risk factor for ectopic

A

prior ectopic

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8
Q

tx ectopic

A

stable - methotrexate + follow up with serial b HCG

unstable - laparoscopic salpingostomy

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9
Q

sx endometriosis

A

dyspareunia
dyschezia
dysmenorrhea

cyclic pelvic pain 1-2 days before menses onset

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10
Q

PE endometriosis

A

uterus is fixed and retroflexed

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11
Q

dx endometriosis

A

laparoscopy + biopsy = gold standard

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12
Q

tx endometriosis

A

surgical resection
NSAIDs, OCPs

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13
Q

good NST test

A

2 accerations in 20 min + increase in HR by 15 BPM for at least 15 seconds

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14
Q

APGAR

A

appearance
pulse
grimace
activity
respirations

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15
Q

tx PID

A

IM Cef (one time) + doxy BID x 14 days

can add flagyl BID x 14 days

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16
Q

when does placenta abruption occur

A

after 20 weeks

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17
Q

sx placenta abruption

A

PAINFUL uterine bleeding
tender rigid pelvis

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18
Q

should you perform a pelvic exam in placenta abruption

A

NO

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19
Q

tx placenta abruption

A

delivery for everyone if greater than/equal to 36 weeks

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20
Q

what is placenta previa

A

placenta covers all/part of the os

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21
Q

should you perform a pelvic exam for placenta previa

22
Q

sx placenta previa

A

painless vaginal bleeding

23
Q

premature rupture of membranes

A

> /= 37 weeks

can lead to chorioamnionitis/endometritis

24
Q

sx PROM

A

gush of clear fluid

25
dx PROM
sterile speculum exam - pooling of secretions nitrazine paper test - turns blue if pH > 6.5 FERN test
26
GPTPAL
G - # times pregnant P - # times given birth T - term berms after 37 weeks P - premature births A - abortions < 20 weeks L - living children
27
MCC mastitis
staph aureus
28
tx mastitis
continue breastfeeding on affected side dicloxacilin, cephalosporin, erythromycin, clindamycin
29
tx breast abscess
don't breastfeed on affected side Antibiotics and ultrasound-guided needle aspiration
30
MC ovarian cyst
follicular
31
tx ovarian cyst
> 5 cm --> laparoscopy
32
what is the only abortion that is potentially viable
threatened
33
MCC abortion
chromosomal abnormalities
34
characteristics of BV
gray/white discharge pH > 4.5 > 20% clue cells
35
tx BV
metro or clinda
36
characteristics of trich
yellow-green discharge pH > 4.5 strawberry cervix mobile protozoan
37
tx trich
metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
38
sx ovarian torsion
acute onset of unilateral pelvic pain often accompanied by nausea and vomiting They may relate previous episodes of similar pain due to intermittent torsion
39
dx ovarian torsion
pelvic US - ovarian enlargement due to venous and lymphatic engorgement
40
what is warranted for all cases of confirmed or suspected ovarian torsion
gyn consult
41
tx abnormal uterine bleeding
acute hemorrhage - IV estrogen later - COC
42
definition of postpartum hemorrhage
Cumulative blood loss > 1,000 mL OR Bleeding associated with signs or symptoms of hypovolemia within 24 hours of delivery regardless of route
43
Anti-D immune globulin must be administered within
72 hours
44
What is the most accepted hCG discriminatory zone for visualizing a gestational sac on transvaginal ultrasound?
1,500 IU/L.
45
What is the most common risk factor of placenta previa?
Multiparity
46
beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels hydatiform mole
significantly above expected levels for gestational age
47
What are the most common sites of metastasis for gestational trophoblastic neoplasms?
Vagina and lungs
48
tx endometritis
inpatient empiric antibiotics are clindamycin and gentamicin
49
most common risk factor for the development of placental abruption
HTN
50

ER EOR (28 decks)

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