Cardio 3 - valvular and vascular diseases Flashcards

1
Q

MCC mitral stenosis

A

rheumatic heart disease

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2
Q

mitral stenosis results in

A

elevated left atrial pressure and pulmonary venous pressure

longstanding –> Afib due to increased left atrial pressure/size

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3
Q

murmur for mitral stenosis

A

opening snap
low-pitched diastolic rumble
loud S1

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4
Q

tx mitral stenosis

A

medical - diuretics, BB (to decrease HR), anticoagulation if Afib

surgery - percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty and open mitral valve surgery

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5
Q

aortic stenosis results in

A

LV outflow obstruction –> LVH

longstanding/severe –> pulls apart mitral valve –> mitral regurgitation

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6
Q

Murmur of aortic stenosis

A

harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur
2nd ICS on the RIGHT
radiates to carotid arteries
soft S2
parvus et tarsus - diminished and delayed carotid upstrokes

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7
Q

tx aortic stenosis

A

aortic valve replacement

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8
Q

aortic regurgitation is also called

A

aortic insufficiency

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9
Q

murmur for aortic regurgitation

A

diastolic decrescendo murmur at LEFT sternal border
widened pulse pressure – markedly increased SBP and decreased DBP

corrigan pulse/water-hammer pulse

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10
Q

tx aortic regurgitation

A

if sx - salt restriction, diuretics, ACEI or ARBs for after load reduction

surgery - aortic valve replacement

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11
Q

murmur of mitral regurgitation

A

holosystolic murmur at the apex
Afib is a common finding

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12
Q

tx mitral regurgitation

A

after load reduction
anticoagulation if Afib

mitral valave repair or replacement

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13
Q

what is the MCC mitral regurgitation

A

MVP

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14
Q

murmur for mitral valve prolapse

A

mid to late systolic click
mid to late systolic murmur

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15
Q

tx MVP

A

asx = reassurance
sx = BB

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16
Q

sx aortic dissection

A

severe, tearing, stabbing pain
typically abrupt
anterior or back of the chest
(back pain for type 2)
(chest pain for type 1)

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17
Q

PE for aortic dissection

A

pulse or BP asymmetry > 20 btwn arms
HTN more common with descending
Hypotension MC with ascending
aortic regurgitation

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18
Q

dx aortic dissection

A

CXR - widened mediastinum > 8 mm on AP view
CTA or MRA (MRA takes longer) - performed if stable
TEE - can be performed at bedside; noninvasive - performed if unstable
aortic angiography was once the gold standard and has largely been replaced by CTA

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19
Q

tx aortic dissection

A

surgery - usually for type A
medical - usually for type B; IV beta blockers - can add sodium nitroprosside or nicardipine to reach target BP

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20
Q

target BP for aortic dissection

A

SBP < 120 and HR < 60 within 20 minutes

21
Q

debakey vs Stanford classifications for aortic dissection

A

debakey:
type 1 - originates in ascending aorta, propagates at least to he aortic arch and often beyond it distally
type II - originates in and is confined to the ascending aorta
type III - originates in descending aorta, rarely extends proximally but will end distally

stanford:
A - involves ascending aorta and/or aortic arch and possibly descending aorta
B - involves the descending aorta (distal to the left subclavian artery origin), without involvement of the ascending aorta or aortic arch

22
Q

sx AAA

A

usually asx and discovered on exam
sense of “fullness”
may have hypogastric pain and LBP – usually throbbing
pulsatile mass on exam

23
Q

sx suggesting expansion and impending rupture of AAA

A

sudden onset of severe pain in back/lower abdomen - radiates to groin, butt, legs
grey turner sign (back/flanks) and Cullen sign (umbilicus)

24
Q

triad for rupture of AAA

A

abdominal pain
hypotension
palpable pulsatile abdominal mass

25
Dx AAA
US CT scan - test of choice for preop planning
26
tx AAA
unruptured - if 5.5 cm or more or sx, growth in 6 mos > 0.5 cm or 12 mos > 1 cm -- surgical resection with synthetic graft placement ruptured - emergency surgical repair; open repair is the gold standard but can do endo-vascular repair
27
Monitoring progressing of AAA with US per U2D
one time screening for men 65-75 who have ever smoked For initial ultrasound screening aortic diameter >2.5 cm but < 3.0 cm, rescreening after 10 years ●For AAA 3.0 to 3.9 cm, imaging at 3-year intervals ●For AAA 4.0 to 4.9 cm, imaging at 12-month intervals ●For AAA 5.0 to 5.4 cm, imaging at 6-month intervals
28
what is the MC affected artery in acute arterial occlusion
common femoral artery
29
MCC of acute arterial occlusion
embolus from Afib
30
sx of acute arterial occlusion
Pain - acute onset pallor polar (cold)/poikilothermia paralysis paresthesias pulselessness (use doppler to assess pulse)
31
dx acute arterial occlusion
bedside arterial doppler duplex US often the first imaging choice CT angiography EKG to see if Afib etc
32
tx acute arterial occlusion
supportive - fluids and pain control urgent anticoagulation with UFH revascularization - thrombectomy with a balloon catheter (Fogarty), bypass surgery, endarterectomy, patch angioplasty, intra-operative thrombolysis are all options catheter-directed thrombolysis - used for patients with a salvageable limb open revascularization - for immediately threatened or nonviable limb amputation - profound paralysis and absent pain with inaudible arterial and venous pulses
33
what is the major cause of DVT
virchow's triad: endothelial damage hyper coagulability venous stasis
34
what hereditary hyper coagulable states could cause DVT
factor V leiden proteins C and S deficiency antithrombin III deficiency
35
sx DVT
lower extremity pain and swelling humans sign (calf pain rom ankle dorsiflexion) palpable cord fever
36
dx DVT
doppler analysis and duplex US D dimer contrast venography
37
tx DVT
anticoagulation choices: LMWH + warfarin LMWH + dabigatran or edoxaban mono therapy with rivaroxaban or apixaban - minimum of three months for all options LMWH preferred for pregnancy and malignancy IVC filter - if recurrent or anticoagulation is contraindication and RV dysfunction thrombosis or thrombectomy generally reserved for massive or severe
38
MC veins affected in DVT
superficial femoral *** MC popliteal peroneal posterior tibial
39
what criteria can be used for DVT
well's criteria and PERC (rules out PE)
40
well's criteria for DVT
active cancer (including treatment within 6 mos or palliation (1) paralysis, paresis, immobilization of LE (1) bedridden or more than 3 days bc of surgery within 4 weeks (1) localized tenderness along distribution of deep veins (1) swelling of entire leg (1) unilateral calf swelling of greater than 3 cm below the tibial tuberosity (1) unilateral pitting edema (1) collateral superficial veins (1) alternative dx as likely or more likely than DVT (-2)
41
Interpretation of well's criteria
low probability -2 to 0 moderate probability 1-2 high probability 3 or more
42
PERC rule out criteria
age < 50 HR < 100 O2 sat on room air > 95% no hemoptysis no estrogen use no prior DVT or PE no unilateral leg swelling no surgery.trauma requiring hospitalization within the last 4 weeks if they answer NO to any of these, PE cannot be ruled out
43
risks for superficial thrombophlebitis
varicose veins malignancy IV catheter use
44
what is trousseau sign for superficial thrombophlebitis
migratory thrombophlebitis associated with underlying malignancy
45
sx superficial thrombophlebitis
tenderness, pain, induration, erythema along the course of a superficial vein palpable cord due to thrombus
46
dx superficial thrombophlebitis
venous duplex US - vein well thickening and perivenous or subcutaneous edema; non compressibility of the vein if thrombosis is present
47
tx superficial thrombophlebitis
generally just NSAIDs, extremity elevation, warm/cool compress, compression stockings if no PAD if risk for DVT - anticoagulation
48