Cardio 3 - valvular and vascular diseases Flashcards

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1
Q

MCC mitral stenosis

A

rheumatic heart disease

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2
Q

mitral stenosis results in

A

elevated left atrial pressure and pulmonary venous pressure

longstanding –> Afib due to increased left atrial pressure/size

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3
Q

murmur for mitral stenosis

A

opening snap
low-pitched diastolic rumble
loud S1

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4
Q

tx mitral stenosis

A

medical - diuretics, BB (to decrease HR), anticoagulation if Afib

surgery - percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty and open mitral valve surgery

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5
Q

aortic stenosis results in

A

LV outflow obstruction –> LVH

longstanding/severe –> pulls apart mitral valve –> mitral regurgitation

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6
Q

Murmur of aortic stenosis

A

harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur
2nd ICS on the RIGHT
radiates to carotid arteries
soft S2
parvus et tarsus - diminished and delayed carotid upstrokes

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7
Q

tx aortic stenosis

A

aortic valve replacement

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8
Q

aortic regurgitation is also called

A

aortic insufficiency

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9
Q

murmur for aortic regurgitation

A

diastolic decrescendo murmur at LEFT sternal border
widened pulse pressure – markedly increased SBP and decreased DBP

corrigan pulse/water-hammer pulse

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10
Q

tx aortic regurgitation

A

if sx - salt restriction, diuretics, ACEI or ARBs for after load reduction

surgery - aortic valve replacement

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11
Q

murmur of mitral regurgitation

A

holosystolic murmur at the apex
Afib is a common finding

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12
Q

tx mitral regurgitation

A

after load reduction
anticoagulation if Afib

mitral valave repair or replacement

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13
Q

what is the MCC mitral regurgitation

A

MVP

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14
Q

murmur for mitral valve prolapse

A

mid to late systolic click
mid to late systolic murmur

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15
Q

tx MVP

A

asx = reassurance
sx = BB

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16
Q

sx aortic dissection

A

severe, tearing, stabbing pain
typically abrupt
anterior or back of the chest
(back pain for type 2)
(chest pain for type 1)

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17
Q

PE for aortic dissection

A

pulse or BP asymmetry > 20 btwn arms
HTN more common with descending
Hypotension MC with ascending
aortic regurgitation

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18
Q

dx aortic dissection

A

CXR - widened mediastinum > 8 mm on AP view
CTA or MRA (MRA takes longer) - performed if stable
TEE - can be performed at bedside; noninvasive - performed if unstable
aortic angiography was once the gold standard and has largely been replaced by CTA

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19
Q

tx aortic dissection

A

surgery - usually for type A
medical - usually for type B; IV beta blockers - can add sodium nitroprosside or nicardipine to reach target BP

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20
Q

target BP for aortic dissection

A

SBP < 120 and HR < 60 within 20 minutes

21
Q

debakey vs Stanford classifications for aortic dissection

A

debakey:
type 1 - originates in ascending aorta, propagates at least to he aortic arch and often beyond it distally
type II - originates in and is confined to the ascending aorta
type III - originates in descending aorta, rarely extends proximally but will end distally

stanford:
A - involves ascending aorta and/or aortic arch and possibly descending aorta
B - involves the descending aorta (distal to the left subclavian artery origin), without involvement of the ascending aorta or aortic arch

22
Q

sx AAA

A

usually asx and discovered on exam
sense of “fullness”
may have hypogastric pain and LBP – usually throbbing
pulsatile mass on exam

23
Q

sx suggesting expansion and impending rupture of AAA

A

sudden onset of severe pain in back/lower abdomen - radiates to groin, butt, legs
grey turner sign (back/flanks) and Cullen sign (umbilicus)

24
Q

triad for rupture of AAA

A

abdominal pain
hypotension
palpable pulsatile abdominal mass

25
Q

Dx AAA

A

US
CT scan - test of choice for preop planning

26
Q

tx AAA

A

unruptured - if 5.5 cm or more or sx, growth in 6 mos > 0.5 cm or 12 mos > 1 cm – surgical resection with synthetic graft placement

ruptured - emergency surgical repair; open repair is the gold standard but can do endo-vascular repair

27
Q

Monitoring progressing of AAA with US

per U2D

A

one time screening for men 65-75 who have ever smoked

For initial ultrasound screening aortic diameter >2.5 cm but < 3.0 cm, rescreening after 10 years
●For AAA 3.0 to 3.9 cm, imaging at 3-year intervals
●For AAA 4.0 to 4.9 cm, imaging at 12-month intervals
●For AAA 5.0 to 5.4 cm, imaging at 6-month intervals

28
Q

what is the MC affected artery in acute arterial occlusion

A

common femoral artery

29
Q

MCC of acute arterial occlusion

A

embolus from Afib

30
Q

sx of acute arterial occlusion

A

Pain - acute onset
pallor
polar (cold)/poikilothermia
paralysis
paresthesias
pulselessness (use doppler to assess pulse)

31
Q

dx acute arterial occlusion

A

bedside arterial doppler
duplex US often the first imaging choice
CT angiography

EKG to see if Afib etc

32
Q

tx acute arterial occlusion

A

supportive - fluids and pain control
urgent anticoagulation with UFH
revascularization - thrombectomy with a balloon catheter (Fogarty), bypass surgery, endarterectomy, patch angioplasty, intra-operative thrombolysis are all options

catheter-directed thrombolysis - used for patients with a salvageable limb

open revascularization - for immediately threatened or nonviable limb

amputation - profound paralysis and absent pain with inaudible arterial and venous pulses

33
Q

what is the major cause of DVT

A

virchow’s triad:
endothelial damage
hyper coagulability
venous stasis

34
Q

what hereditary hyper coagulable states could cause DVT

A

factor V leiden
proteins C and S deficiency
antithrombin III deficiency

35
Q

sx DVT

A

lower extremity pain and swelling
humans sign (calf pain rom ankle dorsiflexion)
palpable cord
fever

36
Q

dx DVT

A

doppler analysis and duplex US
D dimer
contrast venography

37
Q

tx DVT

A

anticoagulation choices:
LMWH + warfarin
LMWH + dabigatran or edoxaban
mono therapy with rivaroxaban or apixaban - minimum of three months for all options
LMWH preferred for pregnancy and malignancy

IVC filter - if recurrent or anticoagulation is contraindication and RV dysfunction

thrombosis or thrombectomy generally reserved for massive or severe

38
Q

MC veins affected in DVT

A

superficial femoral *** MC
popliteal
peroneal
posterior tibial

39
Q

what criteria can be used for DVT

A

well’s criteria and PERC (rules out PE)

40
Q

well’s criteria for DVT

A

active cancer (including treatment within 6 mos or palliation (1)

paralysis, paresis, immobilization of LE (1)

bedridden or more than 3 days bc of surgery within 4 weeks (1)

localized tenderness along distribution of deep veins (1)

swelling of entire leg (1)

unilateral calf swelling of greater than 3 cm below the tibial tuberosity (1)

unilateral pitting edema (1)

collateral superficial veins (1)

alternative dx as likely or more likely than DVT (-2)

41
Q

Interpretation of well’s criteria

A

low probability -2 to 0
moderate probability 1-2
high probability 3 or more

42
Q

PERC rule out criteria

A

age < 50
HR < 100
O2 sat on room air > 95%
no hemoptysis
no estrogen use
no prior DVT or PE
no unilateral leg swelling
no surgery.trauma requiring hospitalization within the last 4 weeks

if they answer NO to any of these, PE cannot be ruled out

43
Q

risks for superficial thrombophlebitis

A

varicose veins
malignancy
IV catheter use

44
Q

what is trousseau sign for superficial thrombophlebitis

A

migratory thrombophlebitis associated with underlying malignancy

45
Q

sx superficial thrombophlebitis

A

tenderness, pain, induration, erythema along the course of a superficial vein
palpable cord due to thrombus

46
Q

dx superficial thrombophlebitis

A

venous duplex US - vein well thickening and perivenous or subcutaneous edema; non compressibility of the vein if thrombosis is present

47
Q

tx superficial thrombophlebitis

A

generally just NSAIDs, extremity elevation, warm/cool compress, compression stockings if no PAD

if risk for DVT - anticoagulation

48
Q
A