Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

ER EOR > Cardio 2 > Flashcards

Cardio 2 Flashcards

1
Q

EKG premature atrial complexes

A

early P waves that differ in morphology from the normal sinus P wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

tx premature atrial complexes

A

usually asx - no treatment
symptomatic - beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

are QRS complexes typically wide or narrow in premature ventricular complex

A

WIDE QRS - bc it is usually due to muscle contraction outside of the original pathway = slower contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

EKG Afib

A

irregularly irregular rhythm (irregular RR intervals and excessively rapid series of tiny, erratic spikes on EKG with a waxy baseline and NO IDENTIFIABLE P WAVES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

tx Afib

A

unstable - cardioversion

stable - RATE control > rhythm control – BB > CCB
BUT if LVEF - use metoprolol, digoxin, or amiodarone

anticoagulation based on CHA2DS2VASc score (warfarin vs DOAC (apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

goal INR range on warfarin

A

2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CHA2DS2VASc

A

CHF (1)

HTN (1)

Age >/= 75 (2)

DM (1)

Stroke, TIA (2)
Vascular dz (MI, aortic plaque) (1)

Age 65-74

Sex (female = 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what CHA2DS2VASc score for anticoagulation in afib

A

2 or more males
3 or more females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if Afib is present for > 48 hours (or unknown period of time), anticoagulant patients for ________

A

3 weeks before and at least 4 weeks after cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

EKG Aflutter

A

saw-tooth baseline with a QRS complex appearing every second or third “tooth” (P wave)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tx for aflutter

A

same as for afib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

multifocal atrial tachycardia is commonly see in people who have

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

EKG MAT

A

variable P wave morphology and variable PR and RR intervals

at least 3 different P wave morphologies are requires to make an accurate diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

tx MAT

A

underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

tx paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

A

IV adenosine

definitive - radio frequency catheter ablation

prevention: CCB or BB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

EKG for Wolff-parkinson-white syndrome

A

wide complex tachycardia (can also be narrow), short PR interval (<0.12), delta wave (upward deflection seen before the QRS complex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

tx WPW

A

stable - procainamide

unstable - cardioverson
definitive - radio frequency ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is sustained vtach

A

duration of at least 30 seconds or causes hemodynamic collapse in < 30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what electrolyte abnormalities can lead to vtach

A

hypomagnesemia
hypokalemia
hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what medication can lead to vtach

A

digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

tx vtach

A

stable - amiodarone or procainamide
unstable - cardioversion
pulseless - defibrillator + CPR

chronic - BB and ICD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

tx torsades de pointes

A

IV mag sulfate

congenital - BB

unstable - cardioversion
pulseless - defibrillator + CPR

23
Q

tx Vfib

A

defibrillator + CPR
epinephrine and amiodarone per ACLS

24
Q

when is angina considered unstable

A

angina at rest, generally lasting longer than 20-30 minutes
new onset angina
change in angina pattern

25
EKG for unstable angina
ST segment depression new deep T wave inversions or flattening
26
cardiac enzymes unstable angina
negative CK and troponin = ischemia without cell death
27
tx unstable angina/NSTEMI
MONA BASH morphine oxygen nitrates aspirin + P2Y12 inhibitor beta blockers acei statin heparin (enoxaparin)
28
what is the difference between NSTEMI and unstable angina
positive cardiac biomarkers in NSTEMI
29
reperfusion therapy for STEMI
PCI > Fibrinolytics PCI within 90 minutes thrombolytics within 30 minutes if PCI is not possible
30
triad of right ventricular infarction
increased JVP clear lungs positive kussmaul sign (increase in JVP during inspiration)
31
the treatment for right ventricular MI (inferior or posterior wall MI) is treated the same as a STEMI except for what meds should be avoided?
beta blockers nitrates ccb opioids NSAIDs so still can use - oxygen, aspirin + P2Y12 inhibitor, acei, statin, anticoagulant
32
indications for PCI
patients with coronary artery disease and resultant angina involving one or two vessels but not involving the left main coronary artery and in those with normal ventricular function diabetics with single vessel disease
33
indications for CABG
left main coronary artery involvement with > 50% stenosis, > 70% stenosis three-vessel disease, or decreased left ventricular ejection fraction < 40% diabetics with multi vessel disease
34
tell me about HFrEF
most common type post MI MCC systolic dysfunction decreased ejection fraction < 40% S3 gallop
35
tell me about HFpEF
diastolic dysfunction normal ejection fraction S4 gallop
36
NYHA functional classes
I = no sx, no limitations during normal activity II = mild symptoms (dyspnea, angina), slight limitation during normal activity III = sx cause marked limitation in activity (even with minimal exertion); comfortable only at rest IV = sx even at rest, severe limitations, inability to carry out physical activity
37
Long-term management of HF
ACEI/ARB/ARNI diuretic beta blocker (reduces mortality) - metoprolol, carvedilol, bisoprolol can add spironolactone or eplerenone as well as an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin, empagliflozin) if AA - can add hydralazine plus nitrate if persistent sx
38
what is hypertensive emergency
SBP >/= 180 and/or DBP >/= 120 in addition to end-organ damage
39
tx hypertensive emergency
reduce mean arterial pressure by 10-20% in the first hour, then gradually by another 10% over the remaining 23 hours meds - IV nicardipine, clevidipine, labetolol
40
tx for hypertensive urgency
BP should be lowered within 24 hours with oral meds (Clonidine or Captopril) by 25%
41
define cardiogenic shock
SBP < 90 with urine output < 20 mL/hour and adequate left ventricular filling pressure decreased cardiac output and increased systemic vascular resistance (vasoconstriction) and increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
42
MCC cardiogenic shock
acute MI
43
what is generally the measure of the PCWP in cardiogenic shock what are the goals if you need to use a swan-ganz catheter
> 15 mmHg goals with swan-ganz - keep cardiac output > 4 L/min, Cardiac index (CI) > 2.2, PCWP < 18
44
tx cardiogenic shock
no fluids NE generally preferred dobutamine instead if borderline low BP
45
definition of orthostatic hypotension
decrease in SBP of at least 20 and/or decrease in DBP of at least 10 mmHg
46
what physical exam test can you do for orthostatic hypotension
tilt table test --- BP reduction at a 60 degree angle
47
tx orthostatic hypotension
increase salt and fluids gradual postural change compression stockings exercise d/c affection meds fludrocortisone (mineralocorticoid) or midodrine (alpha 1 adrenergic agonist) if sx continue Fludrocortisone > Midodrine
48
vessel involvement and area of claudication for peripheral arterial disease
aortic bifurcation/common iliac = buttock, hip, groin femoral artery/branches = thigh, upper 2/3 of the calf popliteal artery = lower 1/3 of the calf, ankle, foot tibial and peroneal arteries = foot
49
sx peripheral arterial disease
LE pain with ambulation, exercise, movement; relieved with rest decreased, weak, absent pulses atrophic skin changes - shiny, dry skin; hair loss, thickened nails, cool limbs wound on lateral malleolus foot and leg pallor on elevation; dependent rubor
50
dx peripheral arterial disease
ABI = most useful screening Duplex ultrasonography - evaluate further extent Arteriography = gold standard; usually only performed if revascularization is planned
51
ABI ranges peripheral arterial disease
normal = 0.9 - 1.3 ABI > 1.3 is due to non compressible vessels and indicates severe dz claudication when ABI < 0.7 rest pain when ABI < 0.4
52
sx of chronic venous insufficiency
leg pain worsened with prolonged standing and sitting with feet dependent leg pain improved with ambulation and leg elevation stasis dermatitis - eczematous rash and brownish/purple rash (hemosiderin deposition) ulcers on medial malleolus PITTING leg edema
53
what vein most commonly affected in chronic venous insufficiency
greater saphenous vein
54

ER EOR (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions