OB final review 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the physiologic status of prepuberty

A

premenarche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The superficial layer of glans and stroma of the endometrium is called the

A

Funtional layer Zona functionalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The release of an egg from the ruptured follicle is

A

ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The ovary receives its primary blood supply from the

A

ovarian arteries and uterine artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The blood supply to the fallopian tube is received by

A

tubal branch and ovarian arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A mature follicle is known as a follicle

A

graffian follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A mature follicle typically is cm in size right before ovulation

A

2 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The retrouterine space is also known as

A

pouch of Douglas and the posterior cul-de-sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Abnormally heavy or long menses is termed

A

menorrhagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The inner lining of the uterine cavity that appears echogenic to hypoechoic on ultrasound depending on the menstrual cycle is the

A

endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Menarche may be defined as

A

state after reaching puberty in which menses occurs normally every 28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

These are small vessels found along the periphery of the uterus

A

arcuate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The thickness of the endometrium should be measured in the

A

Long Axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The middle layer of the uterus is

A

myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The thin outer layer of the uterus is separated from the immediate layer by the

A

arcuate vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nabothian cysts are found near the

A

cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The most common site for a leiomyoma to occur is

A

intramural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Complications in delivery may occur with pregnancy if a fibroid is located

A

near the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A benign invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium is known as

A

adenomyosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A small percentage of leiomyomas are located in the

A

Cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An acquired condition with obstruction of the cervical canal is most likely a result of

A

cervical stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which leiomyoma location is most likely to cause heavy irregular uterine bleeding

A

submucosal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Irregular, acyclic bleeding is defined as

A

Metrorrhagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where might you find a Gartner’s duct cyst

A

vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In a posthysterectomy patient, the normal vaginal cuff should not exceed cm

A

2.1 Cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A small endocrine structure that develops within a ruptured ovarian follicle and secretes progesterone and estrogen is a

A

corpus luteum cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The dermoid tumor typically is associated with which ultrasound sign

A

Dermoid plug

Tip of the iceberg…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The most common adnexal mass found during early pregnancy is a

A

corpus luteum cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Simple ovarian cysts in postmenopausal women are not likely malignant when measuring less than cm.

A

5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The most common benign tumor of the ovary is a

A

dermoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This rare benign ovarian neoplasm is most often seen in postmenopausal women

A

Thecoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A common condition in which functioning endometrial tissue is present outside of the uterus is

A

endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Partial or complete rotation of the ovarian pedicle on its axis defines

A

torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which pelvis organ is more involved with metastatic disease

A

ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

An infection that involves the fallopian tube and the ovary is called

A

tubovarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Risk factors in pelvic inflammatory disease include

A

early sexual contact, history of STD, use of IUD, previous PID, douching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is an infection within the fallopian tube called

A

salpingitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The most common etiology of PID is

A

STD’s

multiple partners

early sexual contact

history of PID

douching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Sonographic findings of PID include

A

endometritis, periovarian inflammatoin, salpingitis, pyo or hydrosalpinx, tubo-ovarian abcess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A dominant follicle grows at a rate of

A

2 mm per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A human fertilization technique in which fertilized ova are injected through a laparoscope into the fimbriated ends of the fallopian tubes is known as

A

ZIFT

42
Q

Fertilization takes place within the woman?s body in

A

ampulla of the fallopian tube

43
Q

The cavity in which the fetus exists is called the

A

amniotic cavity

44
Q

This laboratory test indicates pregnancy when the values are elevated

A

beta hCG

45
Q

The first site of formation of red blood cells that will nourish the embryo is the

A

yolk sac

46
Q

This refers to the length of time calculated from the first day of the last normal menstrual period to the point at which the pregnancy is being assessed

A

gestational or menstrual age

47
Q

The beta hCG levels plateau and subsequently decline, whereas the gestational sac continues to grow after

A

9-10 weeks

But if we see 8 weeks on the test pick that….

48
Q

The fusion of the chorion and amnion occurs between

A

16 weeks

49
Q

To calculate the mean sac diameter of a gestational sac, the following formula should be used

A

L+W+H/3

50
Q

Using an endovaginal approach, the first structure visualized within a gestational sac is the

A

Secondary yolk sac

51
Q

In the first trimester, herniated bowel with return within the abdominal cavity by the

A

12th week

52
Q

A sonogram of a 10-week gestation demonstrates a cystic area within the posterior cranium. This most likely represents

A

rhombencephalon

53
Q

The blastocyst typically enters the uterus

A

4-5 days after fertilization

54
Q

Implantation of the blastocyst into the endometrium occurs at

A

within 12 days post fertilization

55
Q

The crown-rump length measurement may be used up to the gestational week

A

12th week

56
Q

What is the most common pelvic mass seen in 1st trimester pregnancy

A

corpus luteum cyst

57
Q

An ovum without an embryo is known as

A

anembryonic or blighted

58
Q

A hemorrhage located between the gestational sac and the placenta represents

A

Subchonionic Hemorrage

59
Q

Ectopic pregnancy most commonly occurs in the

A

fallopian tubes

60
Q

There is an increased risk of complete hysterectomy when an ectopic pregnancy is located in the

A

interstitial part of the fallopian tube bleeding out

Cervix highest risk of hysterectomy

61
Q

The most common cause of vaginal bleeding in the 1st trimester is

A

subchorionic hemorrhage/ implantion bleed

62
Q

Poor prognosis is generally seen in embryos with heart rates below

A

90 bpm

63
Q

A heterotopic pregnancy is

A

one pregnancy in the uterus and one outside the uterus

64
Q

This structure carries oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava

A

ductus venosus

65
Q

This term indicates the fetal head is toward the fundus of the uterus

A

breech

66
Q

The total number of pregnancies is called

A

gravida

67
Q

This indicates the liver is on right, stomach on the left, and heart apex on the left

A

normal situs

68
Q

The three vessels found in the umbilical cord are

A

one vein and 2 arteries

69
Q

The cranial bones ossify by

A

12 weeks

70
Q

The cavum septum pellucidi is observed in front of the:

A

thalami

71
Q

Which of the following shunts blood away from the lungs

A

ductus arteriosis

72
Q

Beyond 20 weeks of gestation, a renal pelvis is considered abnormal when measuring greater than

A

8-10 mm

73
Q

The normal lateral ventricle measures less than

A

1 cm

74
Q

The abdominal circumference is the

A

circumference taken at the level of the spine, stomach and umb vein. Should be more circular than oval

75
Q

This is a sonographic sign that refers to the shape of the cerebellum when a spinal defect is present

A

banana sign

76
Q

The biparietal diameter is the measurement of the fetal head at the level of the

A

thalami

77
Q

The condition that shows the fetal head elongated in the transverse diameter and shortened in the anteroposterior diameter is known as

A

brachycephaly

78
Q

The most accurate measurement for determining gestational age is the

A

CRL

79
Q

Frontal bones of the cranium that collapse forward describes

A

lemon head

80
Q

Flattening of the fetal skull is called

A

platacepheli

81
Q

A condition in which the fetus is not growing as fast as normal is termed

A

IUGR

82
Q

Measurement of the biparietal diameter is taken from the

A

outside to inside of the skull

83
Q

The assessment of the fetus to determine fetal well-being, including evaluation of cardiac non-stress test, observation of fetal breathing movement, gross fetal body movements, fetal tone, and amniotic fluid volume, is known as the

A

Bio Physical Profile

84
Q

The normal amniotic fluid index (AFI) should range between

A

10-20 normal

5-10 LLN

20-24 ULN

85
Q

incorporates all fetal growth parameters, biparietal diameter, head circumference, abdominal circumference, femur.

A

Age Range Analysis

86
Q

IUGR is most commonly defined as a fetal birth weight

A

at or below 10 for given gestational age

87
Q

The chorionic plate is related to

A

the fetal side of the placenta

88
Q

The major functioning unit of the placenta is

A

the villi

89
Q

The placenta performs all of the following functions

A

respiration, nutrition, excretion, protection, storage, hormonal production

90
Q

The primary cause of placentomegaly is

A

maternal diabetes

91
Q

This is produced by the umbilical cord and membranes, the fetal lung, skin, and kidney

A

amniotic fluid

92
Q

Sonographic signs of polyhydramnios include all of the following

A

freely floating fetus, AFI greater than 24 cm,

93
Q

Which method is used for visual assessment of amniotic fluid volume

A

subjective assessment

94
Q

This technique is both valid and reproducible in assessment of amniotic fluid volume

A

AFI

95
Q

Persistent oligohydramnios in the second trimester, regardless of the cause, carries a

A

poor prognosis

96
Q

reverse

Broad ligaments

A

Ligaments that contain uterine blood vessels and nerves

97
Q

reverse

round ligament

A

A Ligament between another ligament

98
Q

reverse

(A-B/mean), A=peak systolic, B=end diastolic

A

PI ratio

99
Q

reverse

(A-B/A) A=peak systolic, B=end diastolic

A

Pourcelot Resistive Index RI

100
Q

reverse

(A/B) A=peak systolic, B=end diastolic

A

S/D Ratio