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Physiology > Neurophysiology > Flashcards

Neurophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

Nerve type

A

Afferent

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2
Q

Nerve type

A

Efferent nerve

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3
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

Visceral motor (involuntary) function

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4
Q

Somatic nervous system

A

Somatic motor (voluntary) function

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5
Q

Glial cells

A
  • Non-neuronal cells
  • Provide support + nutrition
  • Form myelin
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6
Q

What characterises a neuron?

A
  • Electrical excitability
  • Presence of synapses
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7
Q

Name the three parts of a typical neuron

A
  • Soma/body
  • Dendrites
  • Axon
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8
Q

The axon leaves the soma at the…

A

Axon hillock

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9
Q

Give the 5 functions of glial cells on neurons

A
  • Secure
  • Supply oxygen + nutrients
  • Insulate between neurons
  • Destroy pathogens
  • Remove dead neurons
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10
Q

Resting membrane potential

A
  • Potential gradient
  • Between IC space and EC space
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11
Q

The potential of the IC space is…

A

Negative

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12
Q

Steps toward depolarisation of a cell

A
  1. Positive IC charge
  2. Decreased PD between IC and EC
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13
Q

Give the potential difference found between the IC + EC space of a neuron

A

-75mV

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14
Q
A
  • Na+: 140
  • K+: 5
  • Ca2+: 2.5
  • Cl-: 100
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15
Q
A
  • Na+: 14
  • K+: 95
  • Ca2+: μmol/l
  • Cl-: 3
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16
Q
A

ATPase pump

  • Na+ out
  • K+ in
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17
Q
A

K+

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18
Q
A

Na+

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19
Q

RMP is a result of…

A

Outflow of K+ ions

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20
Q

Give the aim of the ATPase pump in the neuron cell membrane

A

Maintain concentration gradient

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21
Q

Which equation is used to calculate the change of permeability of a neuron

A

Goldman-Hodgkin-Kats (GHK) equation

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22
Q

EK

A

Potassium equilibrium potential

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23
Q

The lipid bilayer of a cell functions as an electrical…

A

Insulator

Ions pas via the channels

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24
Q

1

A

Channel domains

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25
Q

2

A

Outer vestibule

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26
Q

3

A

Selectivity filter

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27
Q

5

A

Phosphorylation site

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28
Q

Hyperpolarisation never evokes…

A

Action potential

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29
Q

Local response

A

A potential change remaining under a threshold

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30
Q

What is conduction with decrement?

A
  • The farther the recording electrode from the stimulation site
  • The smaller the potential change which reaches the electrode
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31
Q

Give the types of synaptic signals?

A
  • Excitatory
  • Inhibitory
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32
Q

Source of action potential

A

Voltage-dependent ion channels

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33
Q

Sodium influx persist until depolarization reaches…

A

15-30mV

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34
Q

Give the process

A
  1. MP at -70mV (RMP)
  2. Stimulus → MP raised to -55mV (Threshold potential)
  3. MP raises to +40mV
  4. Potential drops + overshoots to -90mV
  5. MP at -70mV (RMP)
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35
Q

‘All or nothing’ law

A

The strength at which a nerve responds to a stimulus is independent from stimulus strength

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36
Q

Tetrodotoxin (TTX)

A
  • Fish toxin
  • Blocks voltage-dependent sodium channel
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37
Q

The specific blocker of the voltage-dependent K+ channel

A

Tetraethyl ammonium (TEA)

Channel is either closed or open (no inactive state)

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38
Q

Title the figure

A

Phase 0: Stimulation

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39
Q

Title + Annotate the figure

A

Phase 1: Threshold potential

  • Voltage-dependent Na+ channel opens
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40
Q

Title + Annotate the figure

A
  • Phase 2: Overshoot, Na+ channel inactivates
  • Phase 3: Plateau, slow Ca2+ influx
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41
Q

Title + annotate the figure

A

Phase 4

  • Repolarisation, K+ efflux
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42
Q

Title + Annotate the figure

A

Phase 5: Posthyperpolarisation

  • Voltage dependent Na+ + K+ channels close
  • ATPase pump restores conc. gradient
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43
Q

Describe propagation of AP in naked fibres

A
  • AP propagates step-by-step
  • Channel activates the next channel
  • Slow process
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44
Q
A

AP decreases

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45
Q
A

AP regeneration

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46
Q

Fast conduction with myelinated fibres is made possible by the fact that…

A

Only the nodes of Ranvier contain the TTX-sensitive sodium channels

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47
Q

Conduction velocity of myelinated fibres is proportional to…

A

Diameter of the myelin sheet

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48
Q

What are the classifications of nerve fibres?

A
  • Erlanger-Gasser
  • Lloyd-Hunt
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49
Q

Give the steps of axonal transport

A
  1. Peptides/neurotransmitters produced in the soma of the neuron
  2. These are then transported to the presynaptic nerve ending
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50
Q

Which motor proteins are involved in the movement during axonal transport?

A
  • Kinesin
  • Dynein
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51
Q

Dynein + kinesin are powered by…

A

Hydrolysis of ATP

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52
Q

Kinesin transports substance…

A
  • From the centre to the periphery
  • Known as anterograde transport
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53
Q

Dynein transports substance…

A

Toward the negative end of microtubules

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54
Q

Compared with chemical synapses, electrical synapses are…

A
  • Fast reflex arches
  • Often bidirectional

Used to give fast responses, such as defensive reflexes

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55
Q

Chemical synapses usually communicate with…

A

Muscles or glands

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56
Q

Name the connection of an electrical synapse between two neurons

A

Gap junction

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57
Q

Metabotropic effect

A

Long term changes by activating signalling cascades

(Via chemical synapses)

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58
Q

Give the steps of metabotropic effect

A
  1. Binding of ligand to the receptor
  2. IC second messenger
  3. IC metabolic (metabotropic) effect
  4. Long lasting depolarisation or hyperpolarisation
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59
Q

Give the synaptic processes of metabotropic effect

A
  • Facilitation
  • Inhibition
  • Disfacilitation
  • Disinhibition
  • Spatial summation
  • Temporal summation
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60
Q

The synaptic processes of metabotropic effect can lead to which kinds of potential?

A
  • EPSP (Excitatory postsynaptic potential)
  • IPSP (Inhibitory postsynaptic potential)
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61
Q

Which transmitters are involved in metabotropic effect?

A

Metabotropic transmitters

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62
Q

How do ion channels alter the flow of cations/anions?

A

By augmenting/attenuating ion permeability

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63
Q

List the types of ligand-dependent ion channels

A
  • n-ACh
  • Glutamate
  • Anion
  • G-protein mediated
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64
Q

List the types of ion channel

A
  • Leaking Na+, K+ and Cl-
  • Voltage-dependent Na+ and K+
  • Ligand-dependent non-selective Na+, K+ and Cl-
  • Mechano receptive
  • Energy sensor
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65
Q

What acts as a stimulus of mechanoreceptive ion channels?

A

Deformation of an axon terminal

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66
Q

What acts as a stimulus of energy sensor ion channels?

A

ATP concentration of a cell

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67
Q

Describe the structure of the voltage-dependent Na+ channel

A
  • IC, EC and transcellular parts
  • Domains I-IV
    • These join to form a closed channel
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68
Q

Which ion channel segment changes its conformation when the membrane potential is detected

A
  • 4th Membrane segment of each domain
  • Causes an open state of the channel
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69
Q

n-Ach channel is located…

A
  • Neuromuscular junction
  • CNS
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70
Q

n-Ach delta subunit binds…

A

d-tubocurarine

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71
Q

Give the stimulators and inhibitors of n-Ach

A
  • Nicotine (+)
  • Curare (-)
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72
Q

Summarise: Glutamate-dependent cation channels

A
  • Important excitatory system
  • Depolarisation after a small Na+ influx
  • LTP (Long-term potentiation) found here
    • Basis of learning
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73
Q

The opening of anion channels causes

A

Hyperpolarisation

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74
Q

Give the mediators of Anion channels

A
  • GABA
  • Glycine
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75
Q

In ryanodine channels, the T-tubulus/ triad is blocked by…

A

Dihydropyridine (DHP)

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76
Q

The pore-forming part of the DHP receptor acts only as a…

A

Voltage sensor

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77
Q

Title the figure

A

Calcium channel in the skeletal muscle

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78
Q
A

Ryanodine channel in the SR membrane

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79
Q
A

DHP channel (=voltage sensor) in the T-tubulus

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80
Q

IP3 receptor function

A

Mobilises Ca2+ from IC stores

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81
Q

Describe Energy sensor ion channels

A
  • Low ATP = Open channel
  • High ATP = Closed
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82
Q

Describe the mechanism of high ATP levels on energy sensor channels

A
  1. Regulator subunit - Conformational change
  2. Pore-forming subunits - Conformational change
  3. K+ efflux terminates
  4. IC K+ increases
  5. Depolarisation
  6. Ca2+ influx
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83
Q

The electrical stimuli applied to tissue can be described by…

A
  • Potential
  • Length of time it is applied
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84
Q

Adaptation

A
  • Stimulation potential reached slowly
  • The opening of Na+ channels
  • Inactivation of Na+ channels
  • Inhibition of Na+ influx
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85
Q

Summation

A
  • Sub-threshold stimuli applied frequently
  • AP may be triggered by this weaker-than-threshold potential
  • (Accumulation of cations)
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86
Q

Rheobase

A

The minimal stimulus strength that is able to generate a response

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87
Q

Chronaxie

A

The time necessary to elicit a response if the stimulus strength is set to double the value of rheobase

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88
Q

Give the layers of a nerve, starting from the inside

A
  1. Axon
  2. Endometrium
  3. Perineurium
  4. Epineurium
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89
Q

Give the classifications of neurons

A
  • Unipolar
  • Bipolar
  • Multipolar
  • Pseudounipolar
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90
Q

Unipolar neuron

A

Dendrite + axon emerges from the same process

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91
Q

Bipolar neuron

A

Axon + single dendrite on opposite ends of the soma

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92
Q

Multipolar neuron

A

Two or more dendrites separate from the axon

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93
Q

Pseudounipolar neuron

A

Unipolar, but with one divided axon

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94
Q

Neural network

A
  • Organised for complex tasks
  • The function of one neuron may be influenced by the functions of others (Convergence)
  • Axons of one neuron may to many other neurons (Divergence)
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95
Q

Function of interneurons

A
  • May inhibit/excite collaterals between neural pathways
  • May generate returning signals (Reverberation)
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96
Q

Types of reflexes

A
  • Monosynaptic: One synapse responsible
  • Polysynaptic: More than two neurons responsible
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97
Q

Presynaptic inhibition

A

Inhibition acts on the region before the second neuron

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98
Q

Postsynaptic excitation

A

The second neuron is influenced by the excitatory or inhibitory effects

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99
Q
A

Disfacilitation

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100
Q
A

Disinhibition

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101
Q

The spinal cord is split into which elements?

A
  • Consciously perceived
  • Somatic
  • Subconscious, automatic
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102
Q

The simplest unit of a function is the…

A

Reflex

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103
Q

White matter + Grey Matter

A
  • White matter: Nerve fibres
  • Grey matter: Nerve cells
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104
Q

In a cross-section of a grey matter, what can be distinguished?

A

Rexed’s zones

(With the exception of the lateral horn)

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105
Q

Give the Rexed’s zones/fields

A
  • I-VI = Upper horn
  • VII-IX = Lower horn
  • II-III → Mostly interneurons
  • IX → Large motor neurons
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106
Q

In Rexed’s zones, motor cells show what kind of arrangement?

A

Somatotopic arrangement

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107
Q

Describe the size principle of zones in the ventral horn

A
  • Postural, tonic muscles are innervated by a low threshold, small neurons
  • Neurons associated with complicated movements are large
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108
Q

Cells leaving the vertebral canal are called…

A

Radicular cells

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109
Q

List the types of radicular cell

A
  1. Somatosensory cells
  2. Somatomotor cells
  3. Sympathetic cells
  4. Parasympathetic cells
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110
Q

Give the cells inside the grey matter

A
  • Excitatory interneurons
  • Inhibitory interneurons
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111
Q

Segments of the skin associated with a sensory nerve

A

Dermatomes

Important for determination of the origin of skin sensitivity disturbances

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112
Q

Skin zones belonging to a visceral organ are called…

A

Head-zones

Known as referred pain

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113
Q

Give the types of reflex

A
  • Spinal cord reflex
  • Cranial nerve reflex
  • Primitive reflex
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114
Q

Steps of a reflex arc

A
  1. Stimulus
  2. Sensory neuron activated
  3. Processing in CNS
  4. Motor neuron activated
  5. Response by effector
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115
Q

Reflex when the receptor is found in the same organ/muscle as the effector

A

Proprioceptive reflexes

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116
Q

Give the main types of proprioceptive reflex

A
  • Myotatic
  • Inverse myotatic
  • Stretch evoked flexor reflexes
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117
Q

How does the proprioceptive reflex differ from the exteroceptive reflex

A
  1. Reflex arc is monosynaptic
  2. No latency
  3. Immediate response
  4. No fatigue
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118
Q

Common features of the proprioceptive reflexes + exteroceptive reflexes

A
  • The response has a local character
  • Response intensity is proportional to stimulus
  • Reciprocal innervation is typical
  • Higher brain levels modulate the reflex
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119
Q

Myotatic (stretch) reflex receptors are located…

A
  • 2 sites in the intrafusal fibre:
    • Nuclear bag
    • Nuclear chain
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120
Q

The receptors of the myotatic reflex synapse directly + through excitatory interneurons to the…

A
  • Alpha motor neuron of the corresponding extrafusal fibre
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121
Q

Antigravitational musculature

A

Extensor/flexor reflex (seen in sloth)

Reflectorial contraction

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122
Q

The most important connections of afferents coming from the muscle spindle…

A

Alpha motorneurons

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123
Q

Fine tuning of the myotatic reflex is completed by…

A

Recurrent inhibition

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124
Q

The function of Renshaw cells

A

Cause retrograde inhibition

Strong afferent effects are smoothed

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125
Q

Inverse stretch/inverse myotatic reflex

A
  1. Passive stretching of Muscle → Contraction (Fusimotor system)
  2. Further stretching → Sudden relaxation (lengthening)
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126
Q

Which organs are activated in the inverse myotatic reflex?

A

Golgi tendon organs

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127
Q

The function of the inverse myotatic reflex

A
  • Protection against overstretching and rupture
  • Fine-tuning roll in normal movement
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128
Q

Beside Golgi tendon organs, what else can explain the myotatic reflex?

A

Active muscle contraction → Antagonising the fusimotor system

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129
Q

Flexor stretch reflex

A

Extension both in extensor and flexor muscles

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130
Q

Extensor thrust

A
  • Pressing the sole of the foot on the ground extends the limb
  • Ensures a reliable support during stepping
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131
Q

Exteroceptive reflexes

A

Reflex arc found outside of the effector organ

  • Averting
  • Nociceptive
  • Pain avoiding behaviour
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132
Q

How does the exteroceptive reflex differ from the proprioceptive reflex?

A
  • Tactile + pain receptor
  • Polysynaptic
  • Very long latency
  • Slow response
  • Easily fatigues
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133
Q

Give the pathway of an exteroceptive reflex

A
  1. Nociceptive/thermoreceptors → Grey matter
  2. Afferent activation:
    1. Relaxes ipsilateral extensor muscles
    2. Activated ipsilateral flexor muscles
  3. Every muscle of the joint participates
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134
Q

As well as the ipsilateral muscles, the exteroceptive reflex also affects…

A

Contralateral muscles

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135
Q

How can reflexes be clinically used in the case of lesions?

A
  1. Size of the lesion can be localised
  2. Location of the lesion in the spinal cord can be localised
  3. Lesions can cause a change in the pattern of the reflex
136
Q

Babinski sign in a diseased animal

A
  1. Plantar reflex (efferent has no modulating influence)
  2. Forelimb is withdrawn by the animal
  3. On the digits, instead of plantar flexion, dorsiflexion is seen
137
Q

Give the reflexes in the ‘movement patterns’ category

A
  • Walking
  • Scratch reflex
138
Q

Movement patterns

A
  • Stereotype
  • They extend to more segments
  • Rhythmically repeated
  • They last longer than the stimulus
139
Q

0

A

Stimulus arrives from the sensory ganglion

140
Q

1

A

Adaptation to excitatory effects

141
Q

2

A

Spontaneous release from inhibitory effects

142
Q

3

A

Running toward the extensor motor neuron

143
Q

4

A

Running toward the flexor motor neuron

144
Q

5,6

A

Excitatory interneurons send collaterals to inhibitory interneurons

145
Q

Sensory ascending pathways

A
  • Travel toward the CNS
  • Consist of three neurons
146
Q

Motor, descending pathways contain which systems?

A

Somatic locomotor systems:

  • Pyramidal system
  • Extrapyramidal system
147
Q

Give the most important ascending pathways

A
  • Goll-Burdach
  • Flechsig
  • Gowers
  • Lateralis et ventralis
148
Q

Goll-Burdach

A
  • Light tactile sensation, motor afferents
  • Fasciculus gracilis (Goll)
  • Fasciculus cuneatus (Burdach)
149
Q

Flechsig

A

Cerebellar muscle afferents: Dorsal spinocerbellar tract

150
Q

Gowers

A

Cerebellar muscle afferents: Ventral spinocerebellar tract

151
Q

Lateralis et ventralis spinothalmic tracts

A

Thermal and nociceptive sensory afferents

152
Q

Pyramidal tracts

A

Lateral corticospinal tract + Ventral corticospinal tract

153
Q

List the extrapyramidal tracts

A
  • Rubro-spinal tract
  • Vestibulo-spinal tract
  • Reticulo-spinal tract
  • Tectos-pinal tract
154
Q

Rubrospinal tract

A
155
Q

Vestibulospinal tract

A
156
Q

Reticulospinal tract

A
157
Q

Tectospinal tract

A
158
Q

Autonomic nervous system (ANS)

A
  • Automated control of metabolic processes
  • Connection between the organism and the external environment
  • Controlling:
    • Smooth muscles
    • Exocrine/endocrine glands
159
Q

Efferentation of the ANS is practically independent from…

A

The somatic motor system

160
Q

Why is the ANS: Autonomic?

A

Essentially involuntary actions

161
Q

Why is the ANS: Vegetative?

A

It controls the metabolism required to maintain the life of the organism

162
Q

What are the ANS elements in the CNS?

A

Supraspinal regions

163
Q

Function of the supraspinal regions

A
  • Perception of the actual state (Afferentation)
  • Processing
  • Efferentation:
    • Activating sympathetic, parasympathetic endocrine systems
    • Responses of the behaviour
164
Q
A
  • Processing of external stimuli
  • Initiating behavioural responses
165
Q
A

Behavioural and emotional responses

166
Q
A
  • Integration of internal stimuli
  • Connection to the endocrine system
167
Q
A
  • Respiration
  • Circulation
  • Digestion
168
Q

The frontal and parietal association cortex influences…

A

Behavioural responses related to autonomic functions

169
Q

Which cranial nerves contain afferent and autonomic neurons?

A
  • III
  • VII
  • IX
  • X
170
Q

The PNS is built upon which features?

A
  1. Ach transmitters
  2. Postganglionic neurons
  3. Sympathetic neurons transmission by norepinephrine
  4. Signals can cause opposite effects on target cells (dependent on cell surface receptors)
171
Q

Postganglionic neurons receive information from…

A
  • Preganglionic neurons
  • Collaterals
172
Q

Fate of ACh

A
  • Binds to the receptor
  • Metabolised by the present acetylcholinesterase enzyme
173
Q

Function of the sympathetic nervous system

A
  • Mobilisation
  • Redistribution of blood
  • Dilation of smooth muscle + vessels
  • Redistribution of circulating blood
174
Q

Title and annotate the figure

A

Sympathetic postganglionic transmission

  1. Fibre reaches tissue
  2. Neurotransmitters are released in varicosities along the tissue
175
Q

Main neurotransmitter for sympathetic postganglionic fibres

A

Norepinephrine

  • Released via peptidergic synaptic co-transmission
176
Q

What occurs at the varicosity?

A

Place of final transmission of norepinephrine

177
Q

Location of the sympathetic nervous system

A

Thoracolumbar spine segments

178
Q

Paravertebral switch: Figure

A
179
Q

Prevertebral switch: Figure

A
180
Q

Functions of the parasympathetic nervous system

A
  • Increase substance + energy stores

​​Effects are restricted to a defined area

181
Q

Give the parts of the parasympathetic system

A
  • Cranial part
  • Sacral part
182
Q

The longest fibres of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Preganglionic fibres of the vagus nerve

183
Q

The spinal parasympathetic division originates from the…

A

…preganglionic cells in the intermediomedial region of the sacral spinal cord

Via splanchnic nerve

184
Q

Parasympathetic postganglionic transmission

A
  1. ACh release from postganglionic fibre
  2. Muscarinic target cell receptor receives ACh
  3. The effect of the ACh depends on the type of receptor (M1/2/3)
185
Q

Give the steps of sensory signal in the CNS

A
  1. Reception
  2. Spinal cord
  3. Transmission through ascending pathway
  4. Signal modulation
  5. Perception in the cortex
186
Q

Pain stimuli can pass to the spinal cord via which pathways?

A
  • Fast (A-Delta) reception
  • Slow (C-fiber) (unmyelinated) reception
187
Q

Pain sensation is based on which nerve endings?

A

Nociceptive free nerve endings

188
Q

What explains the fact that slow fibres are arranged in multisynaptic connections?

A

Slow spreading of pain in emotional states

189
Q

Rapid pain mainly elicits…

A

Flexor reflexes

190
Q

What symptoms can be seen in slow pain responses?

A
  • Decrease BP
  • Sweating
  • Nausea
191
Q

Pain sensors receive which stimuli from an injury?

A
  • Noxious stimulus (wound)
  • Histamine (from basophil)
  • Stretch stimulus (from blood vessel oedema)
192
Q

SP =

A

Substance pain

193
Q

Give the effect of SP

A

Multiplies the discharge of its own axons in many ways

E.g Oedema

194
Q

How can pain be decreased/controlled?

A

With Descending (opiate-mediated) pathways

  • Pain stimulus is the same, only effect on pain-sensing structures decreases
195
Q

Signal modulation

A
  1. Nucl. gracilis et cuneatus
  2. Cross to the opposite side to thalamic nuclei
  3. Received by the relay (synaptic) nuclei
196
Q

Give examples of relay nuclei

A
  • VPL (Ventro postero-lateral) nucleus
  • VPM (Ventro postero-medial) nucleus
197
Q

VPL (Ventro postero-lateral) nucleus shows which organised arrangements?

A
  • Somatotopy
  • Co-localisation according to the modality of sensation
198
Q

VPM (Ventro postero-medial) nucleus function

A

Receptors of the head send impulse patterns through CN-V

199
Q

Nuclei which non-synapsin afferents run through are known as…

A

Bypass nuclei

200
Q

Specific/relay system nuclei are involved in…

A

Relaying signals to the third order sensory neuron

  • Allows the enhancement of a stimulus
201
Q

Non-specific/bypass system function

A

Determination of the pain sensation and activation state

  • Less important in the exact localisation of pain
202
Q

The non-specific/bypass system receives fibres from…

A

Collaterals from axons travelling to the frontal cortex

203
Q

From the thalamus, which two kinds of afferentation reach the cortical areas?

A
  • Somatotopically + sensation specifically arranged fibres
  • Fibres from the reticular formation
204
Q

What is the basic unit of cortical representation?

A

The column of grey matter

205
Q

Brodmann areas

A

Regions of the cerebral cortex in the human brain defined by its structure and organisation of cells

206
Q

Cortical somatotopy is proportional to…

A

The relative importance of the given area in sensation

Not necessarily the size of the area

207
Q

The secondary sensory area

A

Sylvian fissure

208
Q

In dogs + cats, 90% of sensory formation is occupied by…

A

Lips, cheek and limbs

209
Q

Columnar functional system

A
  1. Impulse is relayed to the cells of the columnar functional unit (usually Cajal’s double dendritic cell)
  2. Information is transmitted to large pyramidal cells
  3. Information leaves through two pathways:
    1. Fibres to near-by columns
    2. Fibres to the periphery
210
Q

The column that forms a functional unit contains how many cells?

A

2500 cells

5% are pyramidal cells

211
Q

The origin of posture and movement control are based on…

A

Heirarchical organisation

212
Q

Neurons in the spinal cord that are involved in posture are under the control of…

A

Local regulatory systems supplimented by an additional supervisor, director system

213
Q

The most important afferentation of posture

A

Vestibular apparatus

214
Q

The main function of the vestibular apparatus

A

Support the body against gravitation

215
Q

Give the order of voluntary movement hierarchy (upper motor system)

A
  1. Movement initiation
  2. Movement planning
  3. Movement plan reconsideration
  4. Movement execution
216
Q

The control of both the posture and the voluntary movement can be divided into which levels?

A
  • Upper motor system
  • Spinal/lower motor system
217
Q

The spinal/lower motor system is modulated by…

A

The upper system

It is capable of independent work

218
Q

Postural reflexes are composed of…

A
  • Spinal (LMS) reflexes
  • Upper/supraspinal (UMS) reflexes
219
Q

Postural reflexes perform which tasks?

A
  1. Antigravitational support
  2. The stabilisation of the centre of mass
  3. Stabilise the relative position of body parts (controlled by vermis of cerebellum)
220
Q

Which nuclei control postural reflexes?

A

In the brain stem:

  • Nucl. ruber
  • Nuclei of reticular formation
  • Deiters nucleus
221
Q

Deiter’s nucleus and nuclei of reticular formation increase activity of…

A

Motor sensors of the spinal cord

222
Q

What is the effect of cutting the connection between nucl**. ruber and Deiter’s nucleus?

A

Disinhibition of the effects of Deiter’s nucleus

  • Leads to a drastic increase in extensor tone in the whole body (Increase of alpha and gamma motor neuron activity)
  • Known as Decerebration rigidity
223
Q

Give the symptoms of spinal shock

A
  • Areflexia
  • Hypotension
  • Poikilothermia
  • Irreversible loss of sensory & voluntary functions
224
Q

Recovery from areflexia

A

Somatic restitution

225
Q

Recovery from anaesthesia

A

Vegetative restitution

226
Q

Give the reflex types in the UMS

A
  1. Tonic reflexes
  2. Supporting reflexes (Reflexes maintaining the upright position)
  3. Statokinetic reflexes
  4. Placing & hopping reflexes
227
Q

Tonic reflexes

A

Stabilisation of centre of mass/maintain antigravitational posture

228
Q

Deiter’s nucleus receives inhibitory afferentation from…

A
  • Cerebellum
  • Cortex
  • Nucl. ruber
229
Q

Give the typical example of supporting reflexes

A

Cat being dropped whilst upside-down, landing on its feet

230
Q

Give the steps of the cat supporting reflex example

A
  1. Turning back of the head (by labyrinth-eye-muscle reflex)
  2. Head in the normal position
  3. Stimulation of the receptors of the neck
  4. Turning of the neck and back
231
Q

Statokinetic reflexes

A

Positional reflexes evoked by movement stimuli

Accomplished by the integration of the eye, labyrinth and otolith organ

E.g: ‘Gimble’ effect of a chicken’s head when the body is moved

232
Q

Placing and hopping reflexes

A

At the moment of arriving at the ground, extremities always move into the optimal position

  • Uses a series of posture reflexes
233
Q

The vestibular nucleus is innervated by…

A

Pseudounipolar sensory neurons of Scarpa’s ganglion

234
Q

The most important efferentations of Scarpa’s ganglion

A
  • Oculomotor nuclei
  • Cerebellum
  • Reticular formation
  • Alpha & gamma motor neurons of the spinal cord
235
Q

During intentional movement, which afferents play the main role?

A
  • Those that directly innervate the motor cortex
  • Originating from the thalamus and sensory cortex
236
Q

What are the most important movement initiative areas of the brain?

A
  • Limbic system
  • Orbital cortex
  • Hypothalamus
  • System of basal ganglia
237
Q

Brodmann area 6 is known as the…?

A

Pre-motor area

238
Q

Brodmann area 4 is responsible for…?

A

Final execution of movement

239
Q

Give the order of processes in the motor cortex

A
  1. Supplementary: Movement intention
  2. Pre-motor: Sequence of movements
  3. Primary motor: Execution
  4. Movement
240
Q

Give the different areas of the motor cortex

A
  • Primary motor cortex
  • Brodmann 6:
    • Pre-motor area
    • Supplementary area
241
Q

Half of the pyramidal tracts originate from the…

A

Primary motor cortex

242
Q

Pre-motor cortex function

A
  • Determines the sequence of movements following each other
  • Investigation nd determination of movement order
243
Q

Motor pathways originate from…

A
  • Pyramidal tract
  • Extrapyramidal system
244
Q

Axons from the pyramidal tract leave the neocortex as…

A

Corticospinal & Bulbospinal tracts

245
Q

Transection of the pyramidal tracts at one side results in…

A

Paralysis of muscles on the opposite side

246
Q

Informed movements are afferented from the cortex to the…

A
  • Basal ganglia
  • Cerebellum
247
Q

Function of the basal ganglia and cerebellum

A
  • Compare the existing movement patterns within a plan
  • Send them back to the cortex in a modified form
248
Q

The sensory function of the thalamus continuously provides the cortex with…

A

Excitatory impulses

249
Q

If the activity of an inner regulatory circuit increases…

A

The basic inhibitory tone is enhanced significantly

The loop causing this is maintained by an increase in excitatory tone

250
Q

Parkinson’s disease is caused by

A

The substantia nigra contains a vast number of dopaminergic neurons

  • These affect the thalamus activating/inhibiting loops
251
Q

The cerebellum is the organ of…

A
  • Movement coordination
  • Movement learning
  • Attention
  • Language
  • Accurate timing
252
Q

Give the main functions of the cerebellum

A
  • Correction and refinement of the movement plan
  • Learning and storing complex movement plans
253
Q

Give the parts of the cerebellum

A
  1. Archicerebellum
  2. Paleocerebellum
  3. Neocerebellujm
254
Q

The afferentation of the cerebellum is integrated by…

A

Purkinje cells

  • Although no direct connection to the spinal cord
255
Q

Afferents arrive at the cerebellum from which locations?

A
  • Vestibular apparatus
  • Collaterals of the visual pathway
256
Q

The main role of the vestibulocerebellum

A
  • Eye movement
  • Balance of the body
257
Q

Give the efferentation of the vestibulocerebellum

A
  1. Alpha + Gamma neurons of spinal cord
  2. Nucleus fastigii
  3. Then to:
    1. Deiters nucleus
    2. Reticular formation
    3. Nucleus ruber
258
Q

Spinocerebellum is composed of…

A
  • Spinocerebellar tracts
  • Paleocerebellum
259
Q

The main function of the spinocerebellum

A

Finely adjust the strength of the muscle according to the actual status

260
Q

In the spinocerebellum, the original movement plan is modulated through which loops?

A
  • Thalamus-motor cortex-spinal cord loop
  • Nucleus ruber-spinal cord loops
261
Q

Give the afferentations of the cerebrocerebellum

A
  • Brodmann 4
  • Brodmann 6
  • Gyris postcentralis
262
Q

The afferentations of the cerebrocerebellum switch in the pons allowing…

A

Comparison of:

  • The cortical movement plan
  • Cerebellar movement pattern
263
Q

Give the efferentation of the cerebrocerebellum

A
  1. Dentate nucleus
    1. Nucleus ruber
    2. Thalamus
    3. Motor cortex loop
264
Q

Function of the cerebrocerebellum

A
  • Movement planning
  • Timing of movements
265
Q

Give the most important cell types in the cerebellar module

A
  • Inhibitory cells
  • Facilitating cells
266
Q

Title the figure

A

The cerebellar module

267
Q
A

Deep cerebellar nuclei

268
Q
A

Purkinje cell

269
Q

Function of the basal activity of the Purkinje cell

A

Inhibition of the firing of deep nuclei

270
Q

Releasing deep cerebellar nuclei from Purkinje inhibition can lead to…

A

Increased main discharge frequency of the afferents originating here

271
Q

Decreasing the activity of the Purkinje cell leads to…

A

Disinhibition - facilitation of the deep nuclei

272
Q

The main efferentation centre of the cerebellum

A

Area of cerebellar deep nuclei:

  • Nucl. fastigii
  • Interpositus nuclei
  • Dentate nucleus
273
Q
A
  • Climbing fibre
  • Mossy fibre
274
Q

In the cerebellar module, an increase in the activity of granular cells leads to…

A

Activation of Purkinje cells in parallel with the inhibition of the Purkinje cells of the neighbouring zone

275
Q

Consequences of removal of the cerebellum

A

Loss of refined coordinated movements

  • Ataxia: Poor coordination
  • Hypotonia
  • Dysmetria
  • Tremor
276
Q

During sleep, … predominance is found

A

Parasympathetic

277
Q

Give the phases of sleep

A
  • SWS (Slow-wave sleep)
  • REM/Paradoxical sleep
278
Q

Sleep is measured with which equipment?

A

Electroencephalography (EEG)

279
Q

REM accounts for …% of total sleep time

A

20-25%

280
Q

Which figure shows the sleep cycles

A

A hypnogram

281
Q

Give the graph showing physiological changes during the phases of sleep

A
282
Q

Give the EEG waves seen during sleep stages

A
  • Stage 1: Theta waves
  • Stage 2: Sleep spindles and K-complexes
  • Deep sleep: Delta waves
  • REM sleep: Sawtooth waves
283
Q

Title and annotate the figure

A

Features of an early night sleep cycle

  • NREM reaches its greatest depth at stage III and IV
284
Q

Title and annotate the figure

A

Late-night cycle

  • NREM descends only to stage III
285
Q

During sleep, the mean activity of the cortex…

A

Is not significantly decreased

286
Q

Slow wave sleep is seen in phase numbers…

A

3 and 4

287
Q

As well as reticular formation, sleep-wake cycles are also determined by the…

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

288
Q

Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) function

A
  • Receives external stimuli by vision
  • Biological clock - 24 hour circadian rhythms
289
Q

Circadian rhythms are adjusted by…

A

Zeitgebers (such as daylight)

290
Q

SCN is located in the…

A

Hypothalamus

291
Q

How is sleep generated?

A

Serotonin facilitating synchronisation

292
Q

What causes the shift to the REM phase?

A

Locus coeruleus produces norepinephrine

293
Q

The reticular formation is formed by which Afferents?

A
  • Viscerosomatic sensory system
  • Afferent cranial nerves
  • Sensory cortex
  • Motor cortex
  • Thalamus
  • Hypothalamus
294
Q

The reticular formation is formed by which efferents?

A
  • Descending reticular formation (reticulospinal tract)
  • Efferents to the upper brain areas
    • Thalamus
    • Cortex
    • Limbic system
    • Cerebellum
    • Hypothalamus
295
Q

Functions of the descending reticular system

A
  • Inhibition of myotatic reflexes
  • Increases intensity of the motor processes
296
Q

Function of the ascending reticular system

A

Gears up the activity of all the upper centres

297
Q

Title the figure

A

The norepinephrine system

298
Q

Title the figure

A

Serotonin (5-HT) system

299
Q

Title the figure

A

Dopamine system

300
Q

Title the figure

A

The histamine system

301
Q

Title the figure

A

The cholinergic system

302
Q

The limbic system supports which functions?

A
  • Integration of primitive cortical mechanisms:
    • Emotional, sexual and visceral function
  • Adrenaline flow
  • Emotion
  • Behaviour
  • Motivation
  • Long-term memory
  • Olfaction
303
Q

The limbic system is divided into…

A
  • Medial limbic ring
  • Amygdalic/basolateral limbic ring
304
Q

The two main afferents of the limbic system

A
  • Spinothalamic tract
  • Olfactory tract
305
Q

Give the main efferent of the limbic system

A

Pepez-circuit

306
Q

The papez-circuit has efferent fibres to…

A
  • Hypothalamus
  • Thalamus + tectal nuclei
  • Cingulate gyrus
307
Q

Why is the pepez-_circuit_ named as such?

A

The efferent fibres reach the limbic system again

308
Q

Mesopallium function

A
  • Stimulation of amygdala - Attacking reaction
  • Extirpation of the amygdala - Tame behaviour
  • Septal nuclei - Evokes fear
309
Q

Archipallium function

A
  • Learning + Control of cortical memory processing
  • Emotional reactions
310
Q

Give the types of behavioural pattern group

A
  1. Ordinary
  2. Signalling
  3. Exploratory
311
Q

Give the three basic forms of instinctive behaviour

A
  1. Reflexes
  2. Taxes - Orientation instincts
  3. Modal series of action - Defence, attack, mating
312
Q

Instinctive behavioural patterns are evoked by…

A

Releasers

313
Q

Motor response to a stimulus can either be…

A

Hereditary or acquired

-Pavlov

314
Q

Unconditioned reflex example

A

Saliva production when meat is placed in a dogs mouth

315
Q

Define an unconditioned reflex

A

Congenital motor or secretory responses to external stimuli

316
Q

Conditional reflex

A

Neutral stimulus becomes connected to the unconditioned stimulus

  • Evoking the same reflex as the unconditioned stimulus
  • E.g the bell in Pavlov’s experiments
317
Q

Positive/negative reinforcement

A

To build up a conditional reflex of pleasant/unpleasant stimuli

318
Q

If the reinforcement is not caused by the experimenter but by the animal, it is known as…

A

Operant reflex

319
Q
A

Increase behaviour

320
Q
A
  • Remove noxious stimuli following correct behaviour
  • Pressing the snooze button on an alarm clock
321
Q
A
  • Behaviour avoids noxious stimulus
  • Studying to avoid a bad grade
322
Q
A

Decrease behaviour

323
Q
A
  • Add noxious stimuli following behaviour
  • Spanking a child for swearing
324
Q
A
  • Remove appetitive stimulus following a behaviour
  • Telling a child to go to his room for cursing
325
Q

What are the three main stages of memory formation and retrieval?

A
  • Encoding
  • Storage
  • Retrieval, recall and recollection
326
Q

Procedural memory

A

The memory of performance of an action

  • Residing below the level of conscious awareness
327
Q

Declarative memory

A

Memories that can be consciously recalled, such as facts and knowledge

Divided into:

  • Episodic memory
  • Semantic memory
328
Q

Short-term memory

A
  • Reverberation circuits
  • Linked with the frontal lobe and association cortex
329
Q

Middle-term memory

A
  • Memory store for hours/days and longer
  • Hippocampus, amygdala - Emotions and vegetative functions
  • LTP - long-term potentiation
330
Q

Long-term memory

A
  • Not associated with one anatomical structure
  • ‘Whole association cortex’
  • Engrams: Morphological changes caused by repeated stimuli
331
Q

During habituation experimentation with a gastropod’s syphon, Ca2+ open as well as…

A

Ca2+-activated inhibitory K+ channels

332
Q

After repeated touching of the gastropod syphon, a gentle touch on the syphon results in…

A

Strong retraction of the gill

  • Caused by the serotonergic axon terminating the syphon afferent
333
Q

The gill muscle motorneuron is constantly stimulated by…

A

The syphon afferent

334
Q

NMDA glutamate receptors can only be stimulated by…

A
  • Significant depolarisation
  • Transmission of a large amount of glutamate
335
Q

In the hippocampus: A single/less intensive stimulation results in…

A

The opening of the non-NMDA glutamate receptor

  • Therefore only a short-term AP transmission occurs
336
Q

In the hippocampus: A long-lasting stimulation causes…

A
  • Prolonged depolarisation
  • Releasing NMDA-linked cation (Na+ and Ca2+)
  • Evokes a long-lasting Ca2+ signal
  • Generation of retrograde signals
337
Q
A

Physiology (18 decks)

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