Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PHARMACOLOGY > Neurology and Psychiatry > Flashcards

Neurology and Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

This is a long-acting cholinesterase inhibitor and muscarinic modulator, was the first drug shown to have any benefit in Alzheimer’s disease.

A

Tacrine (tetrahydroaminoacridine, THA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Drug for Alzheimer’s Disease that binds to NMDA receptor channels in a use-dependent manner and produces a noncompetitive blockade.

A

Memantine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This is an inhibitor of beta-site amyloid precursor protein cleaving enzyme (BACE1), reduces the production of amyloid β.

A

Verubecestat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2 newer drugs for the treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) that appear to have spasm reducing effects, possibly through inhibition of glutamatergic transmission in the CNS.

A

Idrocilamide and riluzole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3 MAO inhibitors that increase dopamine stores and are used as adjunct for levodopa in PD therapy

A

Rasagiline
Selegiline
Safinamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This is a non-ergot derivative for mild Parkinsonism that may ameliorate affective symptoms. A possible neuroprotective effect has been suggested by its ability to scavenge hydrogen peroxide and enhance neurotrophic activity in mesencephalic dopaminergic cell cultures.

A

Pramipexole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What receptors do pramipexole bind?

A

D3 family of receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Another nonergoline derivative that is a relatively pure D2 receptor agonist that is effective as monotherapy in patients with mild disease and as a means of smoothing the response to levodopa in patients with more advanced disease and response fluctuations.

A

Ropinirole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This dopamine agonist is delivered daily through a skin patch, is approved for treatment of early Parkinson’s disease. It supposedly provides more continuous dopaminergic stimulation than oral medication in early parkinsonism

A

Rotigotine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lithium ion, used in treatment of bipolar (manic-depressive) disorder, affects the cellular metabolism of:

A

phosphoinositides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This prototypical sodium channel-blocking antiseizure drug is also effective for the treatment of trigeminal and glossopharyngeal neuralgia, and mania in bipolar disorder

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This sodium channel-blocking antiseizure drug effective for the treatment of focal and generalized tonic-clonic seizures can also improve depression in patients with epilepsy and reduce the risk of relapse in bipolar disorder

A

Lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Aripiprazole, quetiapine, and olanzapine were the first-line drugs known as _________ for nearly all phases of bipolar disorder across guidelines

A

Atypical antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Some of the intramuscular antipsychotics, like haloperidol, have been approved for the control of _________ associated with bipolar disorder and schizophrenia.

A

agitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Catatonic forms of schizophrenia are best managed by intravenous:

A

benzodiazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The most commonly used off-label symptomatic medications for MS fatigue are:

A

amantadine and modafinil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

____________, the most commonly used PD medication with anticholinergic effects, is thought to reduce classic motor symptoms through its antimuscarinic effect, enhancement of dopaminergic transmission, and non-selective NMDA receptor antagonism.

A

Amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which antiseizure drug has gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism occur to some degree in most patients?

A

Phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the most common dose-related adverse effects requiring dosage adjustment for phenytoin?

A

Diplopia and ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What dose-dependent ADE of carbamazepine occurs first?

A

diplopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This sodium channel-blocking antiseizure drug either enhances a poorly understood type of sodium channel inactivation called slow inactivation or binds selectively to the fast inactivated state of sodium channels—as is the case for other sodium channel-blocking antiseizure drugs, except that the binding is much slower.

A

Lacosamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What congenital disorder is contraindicated for the use of lacosamide

A

PKU

The oral solution contains aspartame, which is a source of phenylalanine and could be harmful in people with phenylketonuria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

2 antiseizure drugs that contain sulphur and can cause kidney or renal stones

A

Zonisamide and Topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Long-term __________ therapy for seizures is often associated with significant weight loss, primarily due to a reduction in body fat mass.

A

topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Acute myopia and angle-closure glaucoma is an ADE of which anti-seizure drug?

A

topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Less common but more serious SE of this antiseizure drug are behavioral and mood changes, such as irritability, aggression, agitation, anger, anxiety, apathy, depression, and emotional lability

A

Levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The metabolism of levetiracetam occurs in the:

A

blood

There is no metabolism in the liver, and drug interactions are minimal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MS drug that downregulates the immune response to myelin antigens by induction and activation of suppressor T cells that migrate to the central nervous system.

A

Glatiramer acetate

29
Q

MS drug for activation of the NRF-2 pathway resulting in reduction of the oxidative stress that contributes to demyelination; it also appears to help protect the nerve cells from inflammation.

A

Dimethyl fumarate

30
Q

This is FDA-approved for the treatment of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. It is hypothesized to decrease the number of activated lymphocytes in the central nervous system.

A

Teriflunomide

31
Q

2 idiosyncratic ADEs of Valproate

A

hepatic toxicity and thrombocytopenia

32
Q

Valproate can cause lethargy associated with increased blood _____ concentrations

A

ammonia

Fatal hyperammonemic encephalopathy has occurred in patients with genetic defects in urea metabolism; the drug is contraindicated in these patients.

33
Q

Because of the risk of agranulocytosis, patients receiving clozapine must have weekly blood counts for the first __________ of treatment and every __________ thereafter.

A

6 months of treatment
3 weeks thereafter

34
Q

This is the most important unwanted effect of antipsychotic drugs.

A

Tardive dyskinesia

35
Q

This drug has relatively very little affinity for NET but potently binds SERT. This selectivity for the serotonin transporter contributes its known benefits in the treatment of OCD.

A

clomipramine (TCA)

36
Q

The ___________provide much more
rapid relief of both generalized anxiety and panic than do any of the antidepressants.

A

benzodiazepines

37
Q

This is a selective MT1 and MT2
agonist that is approved for the medical treatment of insomnia. This drug has no addiction liability (it is not a controlled substance), and it appears to be distinctly more efficacious than melatonin (but less efficacious than benzodiazepines) as a hypnotic.

A

Ramelteon

38
Q

This is a selective inhibitor of the GAT-1 GABA transporter, is a second-line treatment for focal seizures. It is contraindicated in generalized onset epilepsies.

A

Tiagabine

39
Q

This is considered a “rationally designed” antiseizure drug because it was developed with the understanding that potentiation of GABA action in the brain is a possible antiseizure mechanism.

A

Tiagabine

40
Q

Gabapentinoids bind avidly to ____, a protein that serves as an auxiliary subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels but may also have other functions.

A

α2δ

41
Q

These drugs are used in the treatment of focal seizures and various nonepilepsy indications, such as neuropathic pain, restless legs syndrome, and anxiety disorders.

A

Gabapentinoids (gabapentin and pregabalin)

42
Q

The chemical structure of tiagabine consists of the active moiety—__________—and a lipophilic anchor that allows the molecule to cross the blood-brain barrier.

A

nipecotic acid

43
Q

This differs from other SSRIs in
some important respects as it’s metabolized to an active product which may have greater plasma concentrations. The elimination half-life of this active product is about three times longer than the drug itself and contributes to the longest half-life of all the SSRIs.

A

Fluoxetine

44
Q

Fluoxetine has to be discontinued _____________ before an MAOI can be administered to mitigate the risk of serotonin syndrome.

A

4 weeks or longer

45
Q

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs): [P] Fluoxetine and paroxetine inhibit _________ and increase concentrations of timolol, propranolol, metoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol

A

CYP2D6

46
Q

Thus, clozapine should never be discontinued abruptly unless clinically needed because of adverse effects such as _______ or ________, which are true medical emergencies.

A

myocarditis or agranulocytosis

47
Q

This is the only second-generation antipsychotic drug approved to reduce the risk of suicide in patients with history of schizophrenia

A

Clozapine

48
Q

__________ dried leaf extract is usually standardized to contain 24% flavone glycosides and 6% terpene lactones. The daily dose most commonly studied and associated with a benefit in clinical trials of dementia is 240 mg daily of the dried extract in two divided doses.

A

Ginkgo biloba

49
Q

Peptide deposits in the cerebral cortex in Alzheimer’s disease, which eventually forms extracellular plaques and cerebral vascular lesions

A

amyloid beta (Aa)

50
Q

Proteins that form intra- and interneuronal fibrillary tangles in Alzheimer’s disease

A

tau protein

51
Q

Pharmacologic doses of ____________ enhance the extracerebral metabolism of levodopa and may therefore prevent its therapeutic effect unless a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor is also taken.

A

pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

52
Q

Levodopa + MAO-A inhibitors can cause:

A

hypertensive crisis

53
Q

This is a calcium channel blocker used in Europe, has been reported in clinical trials to effectively reduce the severity of the acute attack and to prevent recurrences of migraine

A

Flunarizine

54
Q

___________, a 5-HT1a agonist and 5-HT2A antagonist, is approved for treatment of hypoactive sexual desire disorder in women.

A

Flibanserin

55
Q

A drug that inhibit
microtubule disassembly that may be helpful in Alzheimer’s disease

A

epothilone-D

56
Q

If the patient improves with edrophonium, a/an (increase or decrease) in cholinesterase inhibitor dosage may be indicated

A

increase

57
Q

Drug for long-term therapy of myasthenia gravis

A

pyridostigmine

58
Q

If the patient has myasthenia
gravis, an improvement in muscle strength that lasts about ________ minutes with 2-8 mg IV injection of edrophonium
can usually be observed

A

5 minutes

59
Q

The short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor edrophonium was used to treat arrhythmias, particularly:

A

paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (supraventricular tachyarrhythmias)

60
Q

This is an oxazoline derivative of prednisolone with anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive activity for the treatment of DMD

A

Deflazacort

61
Q

Selective COMT inhibitors such as ________ and ________ also prolong the action of levodopa by diminishing its peripheral metabolism

A

tolcapone
entacapone

62
Q

The commercial preparation named _______ consists of a combination of levodopa with both carbidopa and entacapone. It is available in three strengths: 50, 100, 150

A

Stalevo

63
Q

Subcutaneous injection of _________ , a potent nonergoline dopamine agonist that interacts with post-synaptic D2 receptors in the caudate nucleus and putamen, is effective for the temporary relief (“rescue”) of off-periods of akinesia in patients on optimized dopaminergic therapy.

A

apomorphine hydrochloride (Apokyn)

64
Q

Apomorphine + Serotonin antagonists can cause

A

severe hypotension

65
Q

Overdosage of amantadine for PD can produce what adverse effect?

A

acute toxic psychosis

66
Q

COMT inhibitor for PD that may cause an increase in liver enzyme levels and has been associated rarely with death from acute hepatic failure

A

Tolcapone

67
Q

A humanized IgG4 that inhibits the α4-mediated adhesion of leukocytes to their cognate receptor. It is indicated for patients with multiple sclerosis and Crohn’s disease who have not tolerated or had inadequate responses to conventional treatments.

A

Natalizumab

68
Q
A

PHARMACOLOGY (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions