Neuroanatomy Flashcards

0
Q

what cell layer forms primitive nervous system?

A

ectoderm

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1
Q

cells from which part of primitive nervous system form melanocytes, odontoblasts, and Schwann cells?

A

Neural crest

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2
Q

What folds and forms to form neural tube and neural crest?

A

neuroepithelium folds and fuses

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3
Q

When does neural tube close in development?

Anterior vs posterior and dz caused

A

4 weeks.
Anterior first at day 25 (failure encephalocele, anencephaly)
Posterior at day 27 (failure: Myelo)

Anterior closes then posterior closes

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4
Q

What induces ectoderm to form primitive nervous system?

A

notochord

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5
Q

Prosencephalon forms what? which in turn forms what?

A

telencephalon and diencephalon

  • telencephalon then forms hemispheres and lateral ventricles
  • diencephalon then forms thalamus and 3rd vent
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6
Q

Mesencephalon forms what which in turn forms what?

A

mensencephalon (itself) to form midbrain and aqueduct

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7
Q

Rhombencephalon forms what which in turn forms what?

A

Metencephalon and Myelencephalon which form:
Metencephalon: pons, cerebellum, upper 4th vent
Myelencephalon: medulla and lower 4th vent

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8
Q

How many neurons and glial cells *(name three types) in general?

A

neurons: 15 billion

Glial cells: 50 billion: oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, microglia

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9
Q

what makes up allocortex and what does it form?

A

Archicortex –> 3 layered hippocampus

Paleocortex –> olfactory cortex

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10
Q

Name 6 cortex layers in neocortex

A
Molecular
External granular
External pyramidal
Internal granular
Internal pyramidal
Polymorphic
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11
Q

role of astrocytes (4) and what they use for these

A
  1. anchors neurons to vessels
  2. vasoregulation via arachidonic acid
  3. removes K+ and nts from synaptic cleft
  4. modulates conduction by propagating calcium waves and releasing calcium
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12
Q

Role of oligodendrocytes

A

myelin production for saltatory conduction

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13
Q

What are the CNS immune cells?

A

microglia

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14
Q

Components of BBB?

A

tight junctions of vascular epithelial cells

Basement membrane

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15
Q

where is the operculum?

A

portion of inferior frontal gyrus: Broca’s

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16
Q

What is Gerstmann syndrome and where is the lesion?

A
  1. r/l confusion
  2. finger agnosia
  3. agraphia
  4. acalculia

DOMINANT parietal

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17
Q

Right way eyes:

seizure vs stroke

A

Eyes point to lesion in stroke and away from lesion in seizure
Applies to frontal eye fields only
(think of paddling ore and which way boat turns)

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18
Q

Damage to what frontal area causes executive function deficits?

A

dorsolateral frontal cortex

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19
Q

what area of frontal lobe causes akinetic mutism?

A

supplemental motor area and anterior cingulate gyrus

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20
Q

what area of frontal lobe causes disinhibition?

A

orbitofrontal

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21
Q

Visual WHERE system is in what lobe?

A

parietal lobe: spatial body and environment map

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22
Q

what causes constructional apraxia, dressing apraxia, anosognosia (denial of deficits)

A

Non dominant parietal

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23
Q

What is Balint’s and what causes it?

A
  1. optic ataxia: can’t guide hand to spot in space visually
  2. oculomotor apraxia: can’t direct eyes in space
  3. simultagnosia

B/l parieto-occipital damage

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24
Q

what is responsible for visual “what”

A

ventral pathway visual recognition in the temporal lobe

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25
Q

what causes prosopagnosia?

A

temporal lobe damage

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26
Q

what syndrome and what causes:

hyperphagia, hypersexuality, visual agnosia

A

Kluver bucy: bilateral temporal lobe damage

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27
Q

Where is the olfactory cortex?

When you get anosmia, what should you think about?

A

dementia, affects temporal lobes so may be presenting sign

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28
Q

What is Anton syndrome and what causes it?

A

cortical blindness w/ denial and confabulation caused by bilateral occipital lobe damage

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29
Q

what causes alexia without agraphia

A

lesion of left occipital lobe and splenium of corpus callosum.
Visual input can’t reach the left language center, but motor can reach it so can write (disconnection syndrome)

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30
Q

What is Foster Kennedy syndrome? What causes it?

A

Classic presentation of frontal lobe tumor

  1. compression of one optic nerve w/ VF loss
  2. compressed CN1: ipsilat anosmia
  3. incr ICP so papilledema in opposite eye
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31
Q

5 part path of olfactory nerve?

A

receptor –> bulb –> tract –> cortex –> amygdala

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32
Q

periphery of CN 3 carries what fibers?

A

the parasympathetics, so with compression, iris sphincter and ciliary muscle are impaired first: blown pupil!

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33
Q

Edinger Westphal nucleus is for what?

A

CN 3 parasympathetics: pupil constriction (miosis)

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34
Q

CN in back of midbrain?

A

trochlear CN 4

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35
Q

CN 4 and 6 makes eyes looks where

A

4: to nose (SO4)
6: to ears (LR6)

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36
Q

most common isolated nerve palsy?

A

CN 6 due to very long course

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37
Q

pupil sparing CN 3 palsy is likely what?

A

diabetic, atherosclerotic, vasculitic (inner fibers first damaged)

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38
Q

What is Mobius syndrome?

A

underdevelopment of CN VI and VII causing facial and eye paralysis

39
Q

What is Duane syndrome?

A

congenital absence of CN VI

40
Q

Localize: 3rd nerve palsy and contralat hemiparesis

A

Midbrain infarct: gets CN3 and CST in cerebral peduncle

41
Q

In CN 4 palsy, explain head tilt

A

down (chin tucked) and away from lesion to abduct affected eye

42
Q

Localize: CN 6 palsy with contralat hemiparesis

A

Pontine infarct: gets CN 6 and CST passing through

43
Q

Horners: PNS or SNS

Fibers travel with what?

A

SNS!!! Sympathetic NS! fibers travel with ICA

44
Q

Parasympathetic does what to eyes?

A

constricts: causes miosis

45
Q

What is light-near dissociation?

What is the syndrome and what causes it?

A

accomodate but don’t react to light (Argyll Robertson)

-neurosyphilis

46
Q

What is Adie’s myotonic pupil?

A

Mid-dilated pupil poorly reactive to light caused by degeneration of ciliary ganglion or post-ganglionic neurons

47
Q

What is Parinaud’s (4)? What causes it?

A
  1. sunsetting (upgaze paralysis)
  2. light-near dissoc
  3. convergence-retraction nystagmus
  4. eyelid retraction (Colliers)

Dorsal midbrain syndrome

48
Q

What is the ciliospinal reflex?

A

pinching side of neck causes ipsilat sympathetic activation –> pupil dilation

49
Q

Horners? (3)

A
  1. anhidrosis
  2. miosis (small pupil)
  3. ptosis
50
Q

what causes hypo-acusis?

A

Lesion of V3 (tensor tympani)

51
Q

Which way does jaw deviation go in lateral pterygoid (CN 5) weakness?

A

jaw deviates to weak side

52
Q

what causes hyperacusis?

A

stapedius muscle weakness (CN VII)

53
Q

Auditory 4 step pathway?

A
  1. receptors to cochlear nerve to cochlear nuclei (ventral and dorsal)
  2. inferior olivary nuclear complex
  3. inferior colliculi
  4. medial geniculate body
54
Q

What is MLF important for?

A

for vestibulo ocular reflex

55
Q

cold calorics rule?

A

COWS: cold pushes eyes to opposite side with fast nystagmus away
Warm pushes eyes to same side with fast nystagmus toward

56
Q

Sensation of external ear and auditory meatus?

A

CN IX

57
Q

Taste posterior 1/3 tongue

A

CN IX

58
Q

Ipsilateral scapular winging and can’t turn head to opposite side?

A

Trapezius and SCM weakness from CN XI lesion

59
Q

The only facial nuclei that when hit will cause a paralysis instead of weakness (not bilaterally innervated)

A

Hypoglossal and facial

60
Q

What is in the cavernous sinus?

A

3, 4, 5 (V1 and V1), 6, and Carotid artery

61
Q

what CN is not in the WALL but the lumen of the cavernous sinus?

A

6 - not protected

62
Q

What is talosa hunt?

A

granulomatous inflammation of cavernous sinus OR superior orbital fissure

63
Q

What makes up the striatum?

A

caudate and Putamen

64
Q

4 components of PD

Pathophys?

A

TRAP: 1. Tremor, 2. rigidity, 3. Akinesia (bradykinesia), 4. postural instability
Loss of DA in substantia nigra

65
Q

Pathophys of Huntington?

A

caudate degeneration

66
Q

Pathophys of hemiballismus?

A

Subthalamic nucleus damage

67
Q

What are the interposed nuclei? Where are they?

A

The emboliform and globose cerebellar nuclei:

Location is lateral to medial: DEGF (DIF): Dentate, Interposed, Fastigial

68
Q

Which nucleus in cerebellum is involved in motor planning, timing, cognition?

A

Dentate: most lateral w/ lateral hemispheres

69
Q

Type of tremor with cerebellar lesion?

A

intention overflow tremor

70
Q

Sensory Dorsal Column: What two sections and which is more medial?

A

Cuneate (lateral)

Gracile (medial)

71
Q

Dorsal column pathway and spinothalamic pathway synapse where in the thalamus?

A

VPL

72
Q

TAbes dorsalis from what and what does in effect?

A

syphilis

Posterior columns

73
Q

Subacute combined degeneration - from what and what does it affect?

A

Vit B12 def, affects lateral CST AND posterior columns: motor and sensory

74
Q

Ventral artery occlusion spares what part of the SC?

A

posterior columns

75
Q

Anterior vs posterior hypothalamus and autonomic functions?

A

Anterior: parasympathetic: excitatory
Posterior: sympathetic: excitatory

76
Q

Trigeminothalamic input and taste relay to what thalamic nuclei?

A

VPM

77
Q

LGN vs MGN of thalamus?

A

LGN: visual
MGN: auditory

78
Q

VL nucleus of thalamus is for what? Projections and purpose?

A

Cerebellum and BG input to motor/supplementary motor for smooth precise movements

79
Q

VA thalamic nucleus is for what?

A

Input from GP and SN to prefrontal and premotor cortex

80
Q

What is pulvinar for in thalamus?

A

integrates visual, auditory, somatosensory input

81
Q

What is Dorsomedial thalamic nuclei for?

A

limbic, affected in Wernicke Korsakoff

82
Q

What is anterior thalamic nuclei for?

A

hypothalamic input to cingulate and to limbic (emotion)

83
Q

Centromedian thalamic nuclei is for what?

A

basal ganglia relay to cortex

84
Q

Relationship between dopamine and prolactin?

A

dopamine inhibits prolactin

85
Q

What does somatostatin do?

A

inhibition of GH and TSH release from hypothal to pituitary

86
Q

What makes up the choroid plexus?

A

invagination of vascular pia and ependymal cells

87
Q

CSF flow path:

A
Lateral ventricles 
Foramen of monro
3rd V
aqueduct
4th v
Foramen of Magendie (medial) and Luschka (lateral)
subarachnoid space
arachnoid granulations --> dural sinus
88
Q

CSF volume
CSF pressure
CSF production

A

volume: about 200mL
Pressure: 100-180 supine, to 300 sitting
Production: 12-40cc/hr

89
Q

Name the 4 herniation syndromes:

A
  1. cingulate (subfalcine)
  2. Central from b/l uncal
  3. transtentorial w/ posterior fossa
  4. cerebellar tonsillar
90
Q

subdural hemorrhage from?

A

bridging veins

91
Q

What is arterial supply of basal ganglia?

A

Anterior choroidal off of the ICA

92
Q

Nerve for sensation of posterior cutaneous nerve of arm/forearm and dorsum of first three digits?

A

Radial

93
Q

SNS and PNS for penile erection/ejaculation

A

Erection: PNS
Ejaculation: SNS

94
Q

GEneral rules about CN and brainstem part:
Midbrain
Pons
Medulla

A

MB: 1-4
Pons: 5-8
Medulla: 9-12

95
Q

muscle and nerve responsible for the first 15 degrees of shoulder abduction and the rest of the abduction

A

supraspinatus nerve innervates suprascapular muscle : C5 and C6
Deltoids then take over