Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neuro online course > Neuroanatomy > Flashcards

Neuroanatomy Flashcards

0
Q

what cell layer forms primitive nervous system?

A

ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

cells from which part of primitive nervous system form melanocytes, odontoblasts, and Schwann cells?

A

Neural crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What folds and forms to form neural tube and neural crest?

A

neuroepithelium folds and fuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When does neural tube close in development?

Anterior vs posterior and dz caused

A

4 weeks.
Anterior first at day 25 (failure encephalocele, anencephaly)
Posterior at day 27 (failure: Myelo)

Anterior closes then posterior closes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What induces ectoderm to form primitive nervous system?

A

notochord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Prosencephalon forms what? which in turn forms what?

A

telencephalon and diencephalon

  • telencephalon then forms hemispheres and lateral ventricles
  • diencephalon then forms thalamus and 3rd vent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mesencephalon forms what which in turn forms what?

A

mensencephalon (itself) to form midbrain and aqueduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Rhombencephalon forms what which in turn forms what?

A

Metencephalon and Myelencephalon which form:
Metencephalon: pons, cerebellum, upper 4th vent
Myelencephalon: medulla and lower 4th vent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many neurons and glial cells *(name three types) in general?

A

neurons: 15 billion

Glial cells: 50 billion: oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what makes up allocortex and what does it form?

A

Archicortex –> 3 layered hippocampus

Paleocortex –> olfactory cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name 6 cortex layers in neocortex

A 
Molecular
External granular
External pyramidal
Internal granular
Internal pyramidal
Polymorphic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

role of astrocytes (4) and what they use for these

A
  1. anchors neurons to vessels
  2. vasoregulation via arachidonic acid
  3. removes K+ and nts from synaptic cleft
  4. modulates conduction by propagating calcium waves and releasing calcium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Role of oligodendrocytes

A

myelin production for saltatory conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the CNS immune cells?

A

microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Components of BBB?

A

tight junctions of vascular epithelial cells

Basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where is the operculum?

A

portion of inferior frontal gyrus: Broca’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Gerstmann syndrome and where is the lesion?

A
  1. r/l confusion
  2. finger agnosia
  3. agraphia
  4. acalculia

DOMINANT parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Right way eyes:

seizure vs stroke

A

Eyes point to lesion in stroke and away from lesion in seizure
Applies to frontal eye fields only
(think of paddling ore and which way boat turns)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Damage to what frontal area causes executive function deficits?

A

dorsolateral frontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what area of frontal lobe causes akinetic mutism?

A

supplemental motor area and anterior cingulate gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what area of frontal lobe causes disinhibition?

A

orbitofrontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Visual WHERE system is in what lobe?

A

parietal lobe: spatial body and environment map

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what causes constructional apraxia, dressing apraxia, anosognosia (denial of deficits)

A

Non dominant parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Balint’s and what causes it?

A
  1. optic ataxia: can’t guide hand to spot in space visually
  2. oculomotor apraxia: can’t direct eyes in space
  3. simultagnosia

B/l parieto-occipital damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is responsible for visual “what”

A

ventral pathway visual recognition in the temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what causes prosopagnosia?

A

temporal lobe damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what syndrome and what causes:

hyperphagia, hypersexuality, visual agnosia

A

Kluver bucy: bilateral temporal lobe damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where is the olfactory cortex?

When you get anosmia, what should you think about?

A

dementia, affects temporal lobes so may be presenting sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Anton syndrome and what causes it?

A

cortical blindness w/ denial and confabulation caused by bilateral occipital lobe damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what causes alexia without agraphia

A

lesion of left occipital lobe and splenium of corpus callosum.
Visual input can’t reach the left language center, but motor can reach it so can write (disconnection syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Foster Kennedy syndrome? What causes it?

A

Classic presentation of frontal lobe tumor

  1. compression of one optic nerve w/ VF loss
  2. compressed CN1: ipsilat anosmia
  3. incr ICP so papilledema in opposite eye
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

5 part path of olfactory nerve?

A

receptor –> bulb –> tract –> cortex –> amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

periphery of CN 3 carries what fibers?

A

the parasympathetics, so with compression, iris sphincter and ciliary muscle are impaired first: blown pupil!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Edinger Westphal nucleus is for what?

A

CN 3 parasympathetics: pupil constriction (miosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

CN in back of midbrain?

A

trochlear CN 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

CN 4 and 6 makes eyes looks where

A

4: to nose (SO4)
6: to ears (LR6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

most common isolated nerve palsy?

A

CN 6 due to very long course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

pupil sparing CN 3 palsy is likely what?

A

diabetic, atherosclerotic, vasculitic (inner fibers first damaged)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Mobius syndrome?

A

underdevelopment of CN VI and VII causing facial and eye paralysis

39
Q

What is Duane syndrome?

A

congenital absence of CN VI

40
Q

Localize: 3rd nerve palsy and contralat hemiparesis

A

Midbrain infarct: gets CN3 and CST in cerebral peduncle

41
Q

In CN 4 palsy, explain head tilt

A

down (chin tucked) and away from lesion to abduct affected eye

42
Q

Localize: CN 6 palsy with contralat hemiparesis

A

Pontine infarct: gets CN 6 and CST passing through

43
Q

Horners: PNS or SNS

Fibers travel with what?

A

SNS!!! Sympathetic NS! fibers travel with ICA

44
Q

Parasympathetic does what to eyes?

A

constricts: causes miosis

45
Q

What is light-near dissociation?

What is the syndrome and what causes it?

A

accomodate but don’t react to light (Argyll Robertson)

-neurosyphilis

46
Q

What is Adie’s myotonic pupil?

A

Mid-dilated pupil poorly reactive to light caused by degeneration of ciliary ganglion or post-ganglionic neurons

47
Q

What is Parinaud’s (4)? What causes it?

A
  1. sunsetting (upgaze paralysis)
  2. light-near dissoc
  3. convergence-retraction nystagmus
  4. eyelid retraction (Colliers)

Dorsal midbrain syndrome

48
Q

What is the ciliospinal reflex?

A

pinching side of neck causes ipsilat sympathetic activation –> pupil dilation

49
Q

Horners? (3)

A
  1. anhidrosis
  2. miosis (small pupil)
  3. ptosis
50
Q

what causes hypo-acusis?

A

Lesion of V3 (tensor tympani)

51
Q

Which way does jaw deviation go in lateral pterygoid (CN 5) weakness?

A

jaw deviates to weak side

52
Q

what causes hyperacusis?

A

stapedius muscle weakness (CN VII)

53
Q

Auditory 4 step pathway?

A
  1. receptors to cochlear nerve to cochlear nuclei (ventral and dorsal)
  2. inferior olivary nuclear complex
  3. inferior colliculi
  4. medial geniculate body
54
Q

What is MLF important for?

A

for vestibulo ocular reflex

55
Q

cold calorics rule?

A

COWS: cold pushes eyes to opposite side with fast nystagmus away
Warm pushes eyes to same side with fast nystagmus toward

56
Q

Sensation of external ear and auditory meatus?

57
Q

Taste posterior 1/3 tongue

58
Q

Ipsilateral scapular winging and can’t turn head to opposite side?

A

Trapezius and SCM weakness from CN XI lesion

59
Q

The only facial nuclei that when hit will cause a paralysis instead of weakness (not bilaterally innervated)

A

Hypoglossal and facial

60
Q

What is in the cavernous sinus?

A

3, 4, 5 (V1 and V1), 6, and Carotid artery

61
Q

what CN is not in the WALL but the lumen of the cavernous sinus?

A

6 - not protected

62
Q

What is talosa hunt?

A

granulomatous inflammation of cavernous sinus OR superior orbital fissure

63
Q

What makes up the striatum?

A

caudate and Putamen

64
Q

4 components of PD

Pathophys?

A

TRAP: 1. Tremor, 2. rigidity, 3. Akinesia (bradykinesia), 4. postural instability
Loss of DA in substantia nigra

65
Q

Pathophys of Huntington?

A

caudate degeneration

66
Q

Pathophys of hemiballismus?

A

Subthalamic nucleus damage

67
Q

What are the interposed nuclei? Where are they?

A

The emboliform and globose cerebellar nuclei:

Location is lateral to medial: DEGF (DIF): Dentate, Interposed, Fastigial

68
Q

Which nucleus in cerebellum is involved in motor planning, timing, cognition?

A

Dentate: most lateral w/ lateral hemispheres

69
Q

Type of tremor with cerebellar lesion?

A

intention overflow tremor

70
Q

Sensory Dorsal Column: What two sections and which is more medial?

A

Cuneate (lateral)

Gracile (medial)

71
Q

Dorsal column pathway and spinothalamic pathway synapse where in the thalamus?

72
Q

TAbes dorsalis from what and what does in effect?

A

syphilis

Posterior columns

73
Q

Subacute combined degeneration - from what and what does it affect?

A

Vit B12 def, affects lateral CST AND posterior columns: motor and sensory

74
Q

Ventral artery occlusion spares what part of the SC?

A

posterior columns

75
Q

Anterior vs posterior hypothalamus and autonomic functions?

A

Anterior: parasympathetic: excitatory
Posterior: sympathetic: excitatory

76
Q

Trigeminothalamic input and taste relay to what thalamic nuclei?

77
Q

LGN vs MGN of thalamus?

A

LGN: visual
MGN: auditory

78
Q

VL nucleus of thalamus is for what? Projections and purpose?

A

Cerebellum and BG input to motor/supplementary motor for smooth precise movements

79
Q

VA thalamic nucleus is for what?

A

Input from GP and SN to prefrontal and premotor cortex

80
Q

What is pulvinar for in thalamus?

A

integrates visual, auditory, somatosensory input

81
Q

What is Dorsomedial thalamic nuclei for?

A

limbic, affected in Wernicke Korsakoff

82
Q

What is anterior thalamic nuclei for?

A

hypothalamic input to cingulate and to limbic (emotion)

83
Q

Centromedian thalamic nuclei is for what?

A

basal ganglia relay to cortex

84
Q

Relationship between dopamine and prolactin?

A

dopamine inhibits prolactin

85
Q

What does somatostatin do?

A

inhibition of GH and TSH release from hypothal to pituitary

86
Q

What makes up the choroid plexus?

A

invagination of vascular pia and ependymal cells

87
Q

CSF flow path:

A 
Lateral ventricles 
Foramen of monro
3rd V
aqueduct
4th v
Foramen of Magendie (medial) and Luschka (lateral)
subarachnoid space
arachnoid granulations --> dural sinus
88
Q

CSF volume
CSF pressure
CSF production

A

volume: about 200mL
Pressure: 100-180 supine, to 300 sitting
Production: 12-40cc/hr

89
Q

Name the 4 herniation syndromes:

A
  1. cingulate (subfalcine)
  2. Central from b/l uncal
  3. transtentorial w/ posterior fossa
  4. cerebellar tonsillar
90
Q

subdural hemorrhage from?

A

bridging veins

91
Q

What is arterial supply of basal ganglia?

A

Anterior choroidal off of the ICA

92
Q

Nerve for sensation of posterior cutaneous nerve of arm/forearm and dorsum of first three digits?

93
Q

SNS and PNS for penile erection/ejaculation

A

Erection: PNS
Ejaculation: SNS

94
Q

GEneral rules about CN and brainstem part:
Midbrain
Pons
Medulla

A

MB: 1-4
Pons: 5-8
Medulla: 9-12

95
Q

muscle and nerve responsible for the first 15 degrees of shoulder abduction and the rest of the abduction

A

supraspinatus nerve innervates suprascapular muscle : C5 and C6
Deltoids then take over

Neuro online course (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions