Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Most common soft tissue tumor

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

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2
Q

Malignancy with the highest mortality?

A

PNET

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3
Q

Formerly known as partial seizure

Initial activation of neurons limited to part of 1 cerebral hemisphere

A

Focal seizures

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4
Q

Most common type of benign epilepsy stndrome with focal seizure

A

Benign childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spike

Rolandic seizure

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5
Q
3-10 years old
Outgrown during adolescence
Buccal and theoat tingling and tonic or clonic contraction 
Preserved consciousness 
EEG: broad based centrotemporal spike
A

Benign epilepsy syndrome with focal seizure

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6
Q

Treatment for benign epilepsy with focal seizure

A

AED such as carbamazepine

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7
Q

Seen in early childhood

Complex partial seizure with ictal vomiting

A

Benign epilepsy

Panayiotopoulus type

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8
Q

Seen in late childhood

Complex partial seizure with visual auras, migrain headache

A

Benign epilepsy

Gastaut type

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9
Q

Early myoclonic infantile encephalopathy starts during the 1st 2 months

Severe myoclonic seizures and burst suppression pattern on EEG

What is the usual cause

A

Inborn errors of metabolism

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10
Q

Similar onset with Early myoclonic infantile encephalopathy but manifests as tonic seizures

Caused by brain malformations or syntaxin binding protein mutation

A

Ohtahara syndrome

Early infantile epileptic encephalopathy

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11
Q

Starts as focal febrile status epilepticus and later as myoclonic and other seizure types

A

Dravet syndrome

Severe myoclonic epilepsy of infancy

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12
Q
Usually 2-12 months
Triad: 
infantile epileptic spasms
developmental regression
hypsarrhythmia on EEG

“As if doing sit ups”

A

West syndrome

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13
Q
2-10 years old
Triad:
Developmental delay
Multiple seizure type
Slow waves, polyspike bursts in sleep and slow background in wakefulness
A

Lennox-Gastaut

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14
Q

Treatment for focal seizure

A

Carbamazepine

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15
Q

Treatment for absence seizure

A

Ethosuximide

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16
Q

When to do lumbar tap?

A

Local guidelines: <18 months

All infants younger than 6 months who present with fever and seizure or at any age if there are symptoms of concern

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17
Q

Major risk factors for recurrence of febrile seizures

A

Age <1 year
Duration of fever <24 hours
Fever 38-39C

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18
Q

Most common seizure disorder during childhood

A

Simple febrile seizure

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19
Q

Febrile seizure becomes complex type when the duration is _____ and repeat seizures occur within ______

A

More than 15 mins

Less than 24 hours in between

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20
Q

Status epilepticus that has failed to respond to at least 2 medications

A

Refractory status epilepticus

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21
Q

Initial emergent therapy for status epilepticus usually involves

A

IV diazepam, lorazepam, midazolam

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22
Q

What viral infection is most commonly associated with febrile status epilepticus?

A

HHV 6 and 7

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23
Q

Greatest risk of occurrence of subsequent epilepsy when the child has

A

Neurodevelopmental abnormalities

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24
Q

Triad of Imaging Findings in TB Meningitis

A

Hydrocephalus
Basal enhancements
Infarcts

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25
Q

Usual cause of obstructive or non communicating type of hydrocephalus

A

Aqueduct stenosis

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26
Q

CSF flow pattern

A

Come Let Me Treat Sisa For Lunch Maybe Somewhere in Ayala

Choroid plexus
Lateral ventricle
Foramen of Monroe
Third Ventricle
Aqueduct of sylvius
Fourth ventricle
Lushka/Magendie
Sinus
Arachnoid
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27
Q

Prefrontal headache
High fever
Disturbance in smell
Swimming in warm water

A

Naegleria fowleri

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28
Q

Bell’s palsy
Systemic disease
Carditis
Cutaneous lesions

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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29
Q

Ascending paralysis with history of GI infection

A

Campylobacter

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30
Q

Ascending paralysis with history of respiratory infection

A

Hib

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31
Q

Lethargy and irritability
History of viral infection
Chicken pox
Asprin use

A

Reye syndrome

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32
Q

Ocular nerve palsies

History of TB or active TB

A

TB meningitis

33
Q
Indications for surgery in brain abscess include:
Presence of gas
Multiloculated
Fungal
Associated infection like mastoiditis
And in what location in the brain?
A

Posterior fossa

34
Q

Empiric treatment for brain abscess

A

3rd gen cephalosporin and metronidazole

35
Q

Neisseria meningitidis carriage is usually found in this organ

A

Nasopharynx

36
Q

Preferred treatment for Neisseria meningitis

A

Ceftriaxone

37
Q

Poor prognostic factors for meningitis

A

Petechiae <12 hours before admission
Absence of meningitis
Low or normal ESR

38
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis for meningitis

A

Rifampin

39
Q

Fulminant form of meningococcemia where there is adrenal hemorrhage without vasculitis, DIC, coma and death

A

Waterhouse - Friderichsen syndrome

40
Q

Drug of choice for meningococcemia

A

Penicillin G

41
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis in meningococcemia for children and adults

A

Children: rifampin 4 doses
Adults: Ciprofloxacin single dose

42
Q

Sepsis, seizure, irritability, lethargy, bulging fontanelles, rigidity, patient less than 2 months old

A

GBS

43
Q

Headahce, fever, confusion, lethargy, nuchal rigidity, vomiting

No proper vaccination
<5 years old

A

Hib

44
Q

Headahce, fever, confusion, lethargy, nuchal rigidity, vomiting

Properly vaccinated, abrupt onset, toxic looking rashes all over

A

N. meningitidis

45
Q

Headahce, fever, confusion, lethargy, nuchal rigidity, vomiting

Young adults

A

S.pneumonia

Pneumococcus

46
Q

Headahce, fever, confusion, lethargy, nuchal rigidity, vomiting

Renal transplant patient

A

Listeria

47
Q

Headahce, fever, confusion, lethargy, nuchal rigidity, vomiting

Gradual onset, not toxic looking

A

Enterovirus

48
Q

Headahce, fever, confusion, lethargy, nuchal rigidity, vomiting

RBC in CSF

A

HSV

49
Q

Most severe form of neural tube defect

A

Meningocele

50
Q

Meningocele results from the failure of the neural tube to close in the week of development

A

3rd and 4th

51
Q

Most common site of meningocele

A

Lumbosacral

52
Q

Meningocele is associated with what type of Arnold Chiari malformation?

A

Type 2

53
Q

Arnold Chiari malformation that includes elongation of cerebellar tonsils in the vertrebral canal

A

Type 1

54
Q

What type of Arnold Chiari malformation includes elongation of the posterior vermis and brainstem with myelomeningocele and hydrocephalus?

A

Type 2

55
Q

What type of Arnold Chiari malformation includes a bony defect at occipitocervical level with herniation of cerebellum into encephalocele?

A

Type 3

56
Q

Pathogenesis of aura in migraine is called

A

Cortical spreading depression

57
Q

Prophylaxis for migraine

A

Propanolol

58
Q

Neurocutaneous syndromes usually arise from a defect in differentiation of this embryonic structure

A

Primitive ectoderm

59
Q

Tuberous sclerosis has characteristic brain lesions called tubers that are usually present in what area of the brain?

A

Subependymal region

60
Q

In tuberous sclerosis, The tubers in the brain undergo calcification and produce this appearance in imaging

A

Candle dripping appearance

61
Q

Infantile spasm
Hypopigmented lesions -ash leaf
Shagreen patch- orange peel lesion in lumbosacral region
Subungual fibromas

Mulberry retinal tumors, rhabdomyosarcoma of the heart

A

Tuberous sclerosis

62
Q

Von recklinghausen disease is located on what chromosome?

A

Chromosome 17

63
Q

Most prevalent type of neurofibromatosis

A

NF 1

64
Q

Cafe au lait spots sparing the face are included in the criteria for diagnosis of neurofibromatosis. How many should be present?

A

6 or more that is >5mm in prepubertals and >15 mm in post pubertals

65
Q

How many criteria should be fulfilled for the diagnosis of neurofibromatosis?

A

2/7

66
Q

Hamartomas within the iris in neurofibromatosis is also called

A

Lisch nodules

67
Q

This finding is present in NF 2

A

Acoustic neuroma

68
Q

Infection usually implicated in the development of Guillain Barre syndrome

A

Campylobacter jejuni

HSV

69
Q

This is usually the last function to recover in GBS

A

tendon reflexes

70
Q

Usually the last symptom to resolve in GBS

A

Lower extremity weakness

71
Q

CSF finding in GBS

A

Increased protein
Normal glucose
Normal cells

72
Q

Most common site of medulloblastoma

A

Cerebellum

73
Q

Homer Wright rosettes

A

Medulloblastoma

74
Q

Most common infratentorial tumor and the best prognosis

A

Cerebellar astrocytoma

75
Q

Supratentorial
Solid and cystic areas that tend to calcify
Short stature
Pressure to optic chiasm- visual defects

A

Craniopharyngioma

76
Q

Most common cause of arterial ischemic stroke in children

A

Arteriopathy

77
Q

Type of intracranial hemorrhage associated with trauma

A

Epidural

78
Q

Type of intracranial hemorrhage associated with abusive trauma

A

Subdural

79
Q

Most common cause of childhood subarachnoid and intraparenchymal hemorrhagic stroke

A

AV malformation