Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Most common > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

Neuro

1
Q

Most sensitive standard sequence for detecting subacute subdural hematoma

A

FLAIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Rare case of chronic subdural hematoma densely calcifiying or even ossifying

A

armored brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CT appearance of brain with severe cerebral edema - hypodense brain makes circulating blood in arteries and veins look relatively hyperdense

A

pseudosubarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most severe manifestation of frank brain laceration

A

burst lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cutoff of abnormal tonsils below the foramen magnum especially if they are peg-like or pointed (rather than rounded)

A

> 5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Earliest sign of posttraumatic brain swelling

A

subfalcine herniation > or = 3 mm than width of epidural or subdural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What conditions do typically cause hemorrhages at gray-white matter interface?

A

mets, septic emboli, and fungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What intracranial hemorrhage is a common association with intracranial hypotension?

A

subdural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Posterior fossa neoplasms that frequently hemorrhage

A

ependymoma and rosette-forming glioneural tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Supratentorial tumors with a propensity to bleed

A

ependymoma and the spectrum of PNETs (malignant astrocytomas with hemorrhage are rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Convexal SAH in > or = 60 yo

A

think cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Convexal SAH in < or = 60 yo

A

think reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome (RCVS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What artifact is the major imaging mimic of classic superficial siderosis?

A

bounce point artifact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Giant saccular aneurysm size

A

2.5 cm or > (sa table 2 cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Aneurysm size associated with a significantly increased risk of rupture compared with 2-4-mm aneurysms

A

> or = 5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Other risks for aneurysmal rupture:

A

growth on surveillance imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Other risks for aneurysmal rupture:

A

nonsaccular (nonspherical) shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Other risks for aneurysmal rupture:

A

daughter sac (irregular wall protrusion) and increased aspect ratio (length compared to width) - independent predictors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Other risks for aneurysmal rupture:

A

vertebrobasilar and ICA-PCoA - highest risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Other risks for aneurysmal rupture:

A

MCA and ACA - modest risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Other risks for aneurysmal rupture:

A

prior history of SAH - independent risk factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Size of giant cerebral cavernous malformation (CCM)?

A

> 6 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What Zabramski type is the classic CCM appearing as a popcorn ball?

A

Zabramski type II (pag multiple microhemorrhages iyong appearance, type IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

7 ICA segments:

A

C1 - cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

8 ICA segments:

A

C2 - petrous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

9 ICA segments:

A

C3 - lacerum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

10 ICA segments:

A

C4 - cavernous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

11 ICA segments:

A

C5 - clinoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

12 ICA segments:

A

C6 - ophthalmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

13 ICA segments:

A

C7 - communicating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Only CN that lies inside the cavernous sinus itself?

A

abducens (CN VI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How many components do the the circle of Willis have?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In MS lesions especially large tumefactive lesions, where does the “open” nonenhancing segment of the horseshoe enhancement face?

A

cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

2010 McDonald criteria for MS:

A

Dissemination in space - ≥1 T2 hyperintense lesion(s) in at least 2 of these 4 areas (periventricular, juxtacortical, infratentorial, spinal cord)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

2016 MAGNIMS recommended modification:

A

Dissemination in space - ≥3 periventricular lesions, add optic nerve as additional location, make juxtacortical to cortical/juxtacortical

36
Q

SEGA virtually always occurs in the setting of?

A

tuberous sclerosis

37
Q

3 inherited cancer syndromes that demonstrate an enhanced propensity to develop IDH-wild-type GBMs?

A

NF1, Li-Fraumeni, and Turcot syndrome

38
Q

Choroid plexus papillomas occur with?

A

Aicardi, Li-Fraumeni, rhabdoid predisposition syndromes

39
Q

aka hypophysis cerebri?

A

pineal gland

40
Q

What is the rarest, most malignant of all intracranial GCTs?

A

primary intracranial choriocarcinoma

41
Q

*What brain tumor commonly presents with foraminal / lateral extension into the CPA?

A

ependymoma

42
Q

Most important site for CSF turnover

A

dura mater aka pachymeninx

43
Q

Only established environemental risk factor for meningioma

A

radiation

44
Q

Imaging triad that is present in most anaplastic meningiomas

A

extracranial mass, osteolysis, mushrooming intracranial tumor

45
Q

Where do chondrosarcomas classically arise from?

A

petrooccipital fissure

46
Q

What pathology causes a pupil-involving third nerve palsy?

A

PCoA aneurysm - located in close proximity to the cisternal segment of the nerve (pupilloconstrictor fibers of the nerve are located in the periphery of the nerve along its superolateral aspect)

47
Q

What pathology causes a pupil-sparing third nerve palsy?

A

microvascular infarction of the core of the nerve

48
Q

Which CN is especially vulnerable to injury during closed head trauma because of the long course of its cisternal segment and its proximity to the tentorium?

A

CN IV (symptom: torticollis/wry neck/head tilt)

49
Q

Which CN is vulnerable to apical petrocitis as well as increased ICP?

A

CN VI

50
Q

CN VII exits through what foramen?

A

stylomastoid foramen

51
Q

Which of the four nerves within the IAC is the most anterosuperior?

A

CN VII (“7 up, coke down” tapos sa likod iyong superior and inferior vestibular nerves)

52
Q

Which is the only CN with segments that may exhibit some enhancement?

A

CN VII

53
Q

Which of the segments of the INFRATEMPORAL facial nerve is not surrounded by a robust vascular plexus?

A

labyrinthine segment (therefore, kung nag-enhance baka always abnormal?)

54
Q

Which of the infratemporal facial nerve branches is affected first in the invasion of malignant parotid tumors through the stylomastoid foramen?

A

chorda tympani (kasi most distal; taste anterior 2/3) -> stapedius nerve (hyperacusis) -> greater superficial petrosal nerve (parasympathetic lacrimal gland)

55
Q

What bony bar separates the superior and inferior vestibular nerves?

A

falciform (transverse) crest

56
Q

In the coronal plane of the jugular tubercle and basiocciput, what structure represents the “eagle’s head”?

A

jugular tubercle

57
Q

In the coronal plane of the jugular tubercle and basiocciput, what foramen/canal lies superolateral to the “eagle’s head and beak”?

A

jugular foramen

58
Q

In the coronal plane of the jugular tubercle and basiocciput, what foramen/canal lies under the “eagle’s head and beak” / at the “neck” between the “beak” above and “body” below?

A

hypoglossal canal

59
Q

Which of the 3 CNs that exit through the jugular foramen lies in the pars nervosa (anterior part)?

A

CN IX (CN X and XI lies in the pars vascularis/posterior part)

60
Q

What are the 3 compartments involved in a 3-component trigeminal schwannoma?

A

Meckel cave, posterior fossa through the porus trigeminus, and masticator space through the foramen ovale

61
Q

Osseous mets are relatively rare in children except in what malignancy?

A

Neuroblastoma

62
Q

Upper normal limit of pituitary height (coronal T1)

A

6 mm - prepubescent children

63
Q

Upper normal limit of pituitary height (coronal T1)

A

8 mm - men and postmenopausal women

64
Q

Upper normal limit of pituitary height (coronal T1)

A

10 mm - puberty and young menstruating

65
Q

Upper normal limit of pituitary height (coronal T1)

A

12-14 - pregnant and postpartum lactating

66
Q

What is the rule of ninety in adamantinomatous craniopharyngiomas?

A

90% mixed cystic/solid, 90% calcified, and 90% enhance

67
Q

The only one of the nonadenomatous tumors that can present as a purely intrasellar mass

A

pituicytoma

68
Q

Single most impt risk factor for developing new primary CNS neoplasms

A

radiation therapy

69
Q

What is the typical topographical pattern or progression of normal myelination?

A

inferior to superior, central to peripheral, posterior to anterior (Is CP pa?)

70
Q

Obligatory hallmark of Joubert syndrome and JS-related disorders

A

molar tooth sign

71
Q

Virtually pathognomonic of NF1

A

plexiform neurofibromas

72
Q

Earliest manifestation of NF1

A

cafe-au-lait spots/macules

73
Q

Major feature of NF2

A

schwannomas

74
Q

Differentiate NF1 and NF2 in terms of their associated neoplasms

A

NF1=astrocytomas, NF2=ependymomas and meningiomas

75
Q

Second pathologic hallmark of NF2

A

multiple meningiomas

76
Q

Classic clinical triad of tuberous sclerosis complex

A

facial lesions (adenomata sebaceum), seizures, mental retardation

77
Q

Hallmark of type 2 VHL

A

adrenal pheochromocytoma

78
Q

Meaning of PHACE syndrome

A

Posterior fossa malformations, Hemangioma, Arterial cerebrovascular anomalies, Coarctation of aorta and cardiac defects, and Eye abnormalities (PHACES - Sternal clifting or supraumbilical raphe)

79
Q

Normal order of suture closure

A

metopic > coronal > lambdoid > sagittal

80
Q

Classification of craniosynostosis by head shape:

A
  1. scaphocephaly / dolicocephaly
81
Q

Classification of craniosynostosis by head shape:

A
  1. brachycephaly
82
Q

Classification of craniosynostosis by head shape:

A
  1. trigonocephaly
83
Q

Classification of craniosynostosis by head shape:

A
  1. plagiocephaly
84
Q

Other skull deformities:

A

turricephaly

85
Q

Other skull deformities:

A

oxycephaly

86
Q

Other skull deformities:

A

Kleeblattschadel

Most common (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions