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Most common Flashcards

Lee and Sagel

1
Q

Most accurate window mean to precisely measure diameter of bronchial lumen

A

-150 HU

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2
Q

Mean window setting to best determine bronchial wall thickness

A

-450 HU

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3
Q

Tumors most likely to involve the brachial plexus include?

A

superior sulcus (Pancoast tumor) bronchogenic tumors and metastatic breast ca

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4
Q

Best define the anatomy of the brachial plexus

A

T1 (sag plane most diagnostic)

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5
Q

Most constant hilar structures

A

bronchi

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6
Q

Most difficult bronchi to recognize

A

lingular bronchus (superior and inferior) and basilar segmental bronchi - those that course obliquely

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7
Q

Most cephalad recognizable bronchus

A

apical segment of RUL

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8
Q

In the left hilum, the most prominent lobulation occurs where?

A

where the descending left pulmonary artery branches posterior and caudal to the origin of the left upper lobe bronchus

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9
Q

MC abnormal variation in the configuration of the trachea

A

saber sheath trachea

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10
Q

Location of majority of mediastinal lymph nodes

A

right paratracheal region (adjacent to the tracheobronchial tree)

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11
Q

Locations of largest LN size normally encountered

A

right tracheobronchial, aortopulmonary, and subcarinal

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12
Q

Most commonly seen accessory fissure (please check!) / MC anomaly affecting the mediastinal veins

A

azygos fissure

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13
Q

MC accessory fissure

A

inferior accessory fissure - most are on the right and incomplete (2nd MC: left minor fissure)

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14
Q

MC type of situs

A

situs solitus

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15
Q

MC congenital anomaly of the aorta

A

ARSA (originating from a normal left aortic arch)

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16
Q

MC right aortic arch anomaly

A

right aortic arch w/ an aberrant left subclavian artery

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17
Q

MC primary neoplasm of the anterior mediastinum

A

thymoma

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18
Q

MC location of thymomas

A

prevascular anterior mediastinal compartment

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19
Q

MC location of recurrent thymomas

A

surgical bed and pleural cavity

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20
Q

MCC of anterior mediastinal mass of soft tissue attenuation in children

A

lymphoma (Hodgkin disease - 3-4x more freq than NHL)

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21
Q

MC location of lymphomatous masses in Hodgkin disease

A

anterior mediastinum (lymphadenopathy or infiltration and enlargement of the thymus)

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22
Q

MC type of thymic lymphoma

A

nodular sclerosing Hodgkin disease

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23
Q

Fibrotic tissue within nodes are most commonly seen in?

A

nodular sclerosing Hodgkin disease

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24
Q

2nd MCC of anterior mediastinal mass in children / MCC of a fat-containing lesion

A

GCTs

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25
Q

MC cell type of (extragonadal) GCTs / MC mediastinal GCT

A

mature teratomas

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26
Q

MC malignant GCT

A

seminomas

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27
Q

Most likely etiology of an anterior mediastinal mass in patients w/ Cushing syndrome and suspicion of ectopic ACTH

A

thymic carcinoid

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28
Q

Diagnosis of thymic ca is made after excluding the possibility of mets from primary tumor elsewhere, most frequently the?

A

lung

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29
Q

MC location of thymolipomas

A

anteroinferior mediastinum, abutting the heart

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30
Q

MC type of thymic cysts

A

congenital

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31
Q

MCC of true thymic hyperplasia

A

rebound thymic hyperplasia

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32
Q

MCC of thymic hyperplasia in childhood

A

rebound hyperplasia associated w/ chemo, particularly therapy w/ corticosteroids

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33
Q

MC type of foregut cyst / Accounts for almost 2/3 of mediastinal cysts

A

bronchogenic cysts

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34
Q

MC location of bronchogenic cysts / MC location of mediastinal bronchogenic cysts

A

subcarinal or right paratracheal area / right paratracheal region or adjacent to the carina

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35
Q

2nd MC type of mediastinal cyst after the bronchogenic type

A

thymic cyst

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36
Q

Typical location of esophageal duplication cysts

A

posterior mediastinum adjacent to or within the wall of the esophagus, usually distal thoracic esophagus

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37
Q

MC location of neuroenteric cysts

A

cephalad to the carina, on the right side

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38
Q

MC location of pericardial cysts

A

right cardiophrenic angle

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39
Q

MC location of pericardial cysts and diverticula

A

right anterior cardiophrenic angle

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40
Q

MC location of mediastinal liposarcomas

A

posterior mediastinum

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41
Q

MC benign mediastinal vascular tumor (90%, but rare)

A

hemangioma

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42
Q

MC location of lymphatic malformations

A

neck (75%) (2nd MC?: axilla - 20%)

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43
Q

MC site of origin of lymphangiomas

A

neck

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44
Q

MC location of intrathoracic lymphangiomas

A

right paratracheal area

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45
Q

Most neurogenic tumors in adults are?

A

nerve sheath tumors

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46
Q

MC site of origin of neurogenic tumors / nerve sheath tumors

A

intercostal nerves

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47
Q

MC tumor of peripheral nerves

A

schwannomas

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48
Q

MC primary sarcoma of the mediastinum

A

malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors

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49
Q

MC location of ganglioneuromas

A

posterior mediastinum

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50
Q

MC location of neuroblastoma and ganglioneuroblastoma after the adrenal gland and extraadrenal retroperitoneum

A

posterior mediastinum

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51
Q

MC etiologic agents of infectious spondylitis

A

Staph, TB, fungus

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52
Q

MC esophageal abnormality

A

hiatal hernia

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53
Q

MCC of acute mediastinitis

A

esophageal rupture or cardiothoracic surgery

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54
Q

MCC of a hilar or mediastinal mass

A

lymphadenopathy

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55
Q

MCC of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

solitary functioning adenoma

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56
Q

MC infectious diseases causing mediastinal and/or hilar LN enlargement

A

TB and fungal

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57
Q

LNs involved most frequently in TB

A

right paratracheal and tracheobronchial LNs

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58
Q

MC source of mediastinal and hilar LN mets

A

primary thoracic neoplasm, most commonly bronchogenic ca

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59
Q

MC extrathoracic tumors associated with intrathoracic nodal mets

A

GU (renal and testicular), H&N, breast, and melanoma

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60
Q

Most commonly involved nodal group in intrathoracic nodal mets

A

hilar and right paratracheal nodal groups

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61
Q

MC lung manifestations of AIDS-related lymphoma

A

pleural effusions and parenchymal nodules/infiltrates

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62
Q

MCC of saccular aneurysms

A

atherosclerosis

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63
Q

MCC of aneurysms in children

A

Marfan syndrome (most aneurysms in children are fusiform)

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64
Q

MC location of thoracic atherosclerotic aneurysms

A

proximal descending aorta

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65
Q

MC location of mycotic aneurysms

A

descending aorta and thoracoabdominal junction, above the renal arteries

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66
Q

Most commonly involved segment in syphilitic vasculitis

A

ascending aorta

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67
Q

MC location of posttraumatic localized false (pseudo) aneurysms

A

near the aortic isthmus, at the undersurface of the proximal descending aorta / immediately distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery, in the region of the aortic isthmus

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68
Q

MC location of false aneurysms

A

aortotomy site for valve replacement, cannulation site for bypass grafting, or near the site of a bypass graft

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69
Q

Annuloaortic ectasia is seen most frequently with?

A

Marfan

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70
Q

MC way of contamination in mycotic aneurysm/infected aortic aneurysm/aortic endarteritis

A

hematogenous dissemination

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71
Q

MC location into which thoracic aneurysms rupture

A

left hemithorax (especially the left pleural space) or mediastinum

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72
Q

MC site for juvenile aortic coarctation

A

isthmic region

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73
Q

MC method used in the repair of thoracic aortic aneurysms

A

graft interposition technique (aka open or exclusion)

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74
Q

MC acute emergency affecting the aorta

A

aortic dissection

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75
Q

Usual locations of the entry points of aortic dissections

A

ascending aorta, most frequently the right lateral wall, or descending aorta b/n origin of left subclavian artery and ligamentum arteriosum

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76
Q

Most important factor in management of aortic dissection

A

whether ascending aorta is involved

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77
Q

MC locations of aortic pulsation artifact in the ascending aorta (maximally at the aortic root)

A

left anterior and right posterior margin of the aorta (sa journal 12-1:00 and 6-7:00 position due to the pendular motion of the aorta)

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78
Q

Best MRI sequence to distinguish thrombus from slowly flowing blood

A

gradient echo images (steady state free precession “white blood” - under gradient echo?) - basta not spin echo

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79
Q

MC causes of aortic stenosis

A

congenital aortic coarctation and acquired post inflammatory stenosis (most frequently the result of Takayasu arteritis)

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80
Q

Aortic stenosis affects primarily what segments of the aorta?

A

descending thoracic aorta and thoracoabdominal junction

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81
Q

MC coexisting anomaly in adolescent and adult patients with COA

A

bicuspid aortic valve

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82
Q

Only aortitis that may result in aortic stenosis

A

Takayasu arteritis

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83
Q

MCC of SVC obstruction

A

malignant neoplasms, predominantly bronchogenic ca

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84
Q

MC aneurysm of saphenous vein grafts

A

pseudoaneurysm occuring at the proximal anastomotic site

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85
Q

MC focal disease of the trachea

A

benign stricture

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86
Q

MCC of tracheal strictures

A

injury from an endotracheal or tracheostomy tube

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87
Q

MC location of benign focal strictures from thermal injury/postinhalational burns

A

subglottic area

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88
Q

MCC of postinfectious tracheal stenosis

A

TB

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89
Q

MC primary malignant tracheal neoplasms

A

SCC and adenoid cystic carcinoma

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90
Q

2 major types of tracheal carcinomas

A

squamous cell (55%) and adenocystic (18%)

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91
Q

MC location of malignant tracheal neoplasms

A

posterior and lateral wall

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92
Q

MC malignant neoplasms to directly involve the trachea

A

carcinomas of the lung, larynx, thyroid, and esophagus TELL

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93
Q

Extrathoracic tumors that most commonly metastasize to the trachea

A

melanoma, breast ca, and RCC

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94
Q

Cartilages most commonly involved/destroyed in relapsing polychondritis

A

ear, nose, joints, and tracheobronchial tree

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95
Q

MCC of death in relapsing polychondritis

A

airway involvement

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96
Q

MC site of well differentiated neuroendocrine carcinomas/typical carcinoid

A

central airway
-most typically the right upper
-middle lobe bronchi

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97
Q

MC type of lung cancer to present with clinically palpable metastatic deep cervical/supraclavicular LNs

A

SCC

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98
Q

MC sites of occult extrathoracic mets

A

brain > bone > liver > adrenals
🧠. 🦴. .

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99
Q

Link w/ smoking as a predisposing cause is weakest w/ this type of lung ca

A

bronchioloalveolar cell ca (subsgroup of adenoca)

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100
Q

MCC of compressive/passive atelectasis

A

fluid or air within the pleural space

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101
Q

MC location of rounded atelectasis

A

basal and dorsal, esp in the paraspinal region

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102
Q

Cardinal sign of bronchiectasis

A

dilatation of the bronchus

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103
Q

MC inciting allergen in bronchial asthma in patients with bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

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104
Q

Most of the pulmonary masses/lesions >3 cm / Most malignant solitary pulmonary nodules are?

A

bronchogenic ca

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105
Q

In the patient with a known extrapulmonary primary lesion, the pulmonary nodule most likely represents a metastasis if the primary site was a

A

SMT
1.sarcoma
2. melanoma
3. testicular ca.

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106
Q

A pulmonary nodule is likely a _____ if the primary tumor was in the breast or head and neck.

A

new bronchogenic carcinoma

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107
Q

MC location of pulmonary mets resulting from hematogenous dissemination

A

peripheral third of the lung, frequently in a subpleural location

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108
Q

MC location of calcified granulomas

A

periphery of the lung

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109
Q

MCC of false-positive results in PET

A

active granulomatous disease (TB, fungal, and sarcoidosis) or lipoid pneumonia

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110
Q

Most typical location of exogenous lipoid pneumonia

A

middle or lower lobe or lingula

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111
Q

MC form of pulmonary arteriovenous malformations

A

single form - dilated vascular sac connected to one supplying artery and draining vein

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112
Q

Most of the pulmonary arteriovenous malformations occur in association with?

A

hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome)

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113
Q

MC systemic arterial supply parasitized in intralobar sequestration

A

distal thoracic aortic branches to the visceral pleura near the inferior pulmonary ligament

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114
Q

MC primary of multiple cavitary metastases

A

SCC, most frequently of the head and neck or the cervix (other causes: sarcomas and colorectal ca)

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115
Q

Most specific and helpful CT feature in radiation pneumonitis

A

confinement of the radiation changes to the irradiated lung volume

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116
Q

Only reliable abnormality highly correlated w/ embolization

A

area of consolidation adjacent to a pleural surface that is wedge-shaped (triangular, tetrahedral) or with convex border bluging toward the hilum

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117
Q

MCC of poor opacification of the PAs resulting to suboptimal/inadequate technique

A

poor cardiac output (CHF)

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118
Q

MCC of fluid causing smooth, interlobular septal thickening

A

pulmonary edema

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119
Q

MC airspace process acounting for a ground-glass appearance

A

pneumonitis

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120
Q

MC type of chronic interstitial pneumonia

A

usual interstitial pneumonia

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121
Q

Honeycombing is most commonly a feature of

A

UIP

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122
Q

MC of the connective tissue disorders

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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123
Q

MC pulmonary manifestation of Sjogren syndrome

A

lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia (LIP) 25%
mid to lower zone predominant bilateral reticular opacification
deep, thinwalled and scattered cysts
medisstinal LAD

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124
Q

MC (thoracic) manifestation of sarcoidosis

A

mediastinal lymphadenopathy

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125
Q

Most commonly involved lung zones in pulmonary sarcoidosis

A

mid- and upper lung zones, esp along the central bronchovascular bundles

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126
Q

MC occupation involved in silicoproteinosis

A

sandblasting

silicoproteinosis - crystalline silica in thelung creates fibrotic nodules and scarring around silica particles

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127
Q

MC pulmonary manifestation of Wegener granulomatosis (granulomatosis with polyangitis)
(noncaseating granulomatous anca + vasculitis of small amd med sized vessels -lungs, urt and kidneys

A

peripheral, variable-sized usually irregular, pulmonary nodules 2-4 cm up to 10, frequently w/ shaggy internal cavitation

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128
Q

MC superinfection in pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (Young and middle aged), strongly rt smoking male 2:1, thymic alymphoplasia if pedia

A

Nocardia

2: smooth thickening interlobular and intra septal lines and ggo - crazy paving
batwing opacities (edema, adult) miliary diffuse smsll opacities (child)

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129
Q

MC primary in pulmonary lymphangitic spread

A

adenoca of the breast, lung, stomach, colon, and pancreas BLSCP

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130
Q

MC form of emphysema

A

centrilobular / centriacinar / proximal acinar emphysema

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131
Q

MC fungal infection in non-AIDS immunocompromised patients, due to BM transplantation or leukemia or lymphoma

A

Aspergillus

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132
Q

MC offenders in fungal infections in AIDS patients

A

Aspergillus and Cryptococcus

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133
Q

MC radiologic pattern in bacterial pneumonias

A

consolidation

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134
Q

CMV pulmonary infection is most frequent in?

A

patients following organ or BM transplantation, on cyclosporine or similar immunosuppressants

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135
Q

MC virus causing morbidity and mortality in AIDS patients

A

CMV

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136
Q

MC appearance of septic emboli

A

multiple pulmonary nodules, many of which exhibit cavitation
klebsiella, staph aureys, pseu aeroginosz, e coli, salmonella

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137
Q

MC pleural abnormality

A

pleural effusions

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138
Q

MC traumatic cause for chylothorax

A

surgery

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139
Q

MC nontraumatic etiology for chylothorax

A

lymphoma dt obstruction of thoracic duct or collaterals; NHL

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140
Q

MC etiologies of pseudochylous (chyliform) pleural effusion

A

tuberculous empyema (TB pleurisy) and rheumatoid disease (all dt chroni inflammation), cholesterol rich

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141
Q

Most dependent portion of the pleural space

A

posteromedial

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142
Q

MCC of empyemas

A

infected parapneumonic effusion following pyogenic bacterial pneumonia

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143
Q

MC malignancies associated with chronic empyemas

A

lymphoma> SCC, mesothelioma, and various sarcomas

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144
Q

MCC of pleural calcifications/plaques

A

asbestos exposure

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145
Q

MC manifestation of asbestos exposure

A

focal plaque formation

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146
Q

Rounded atelectasis is most commonly associated with?

A

prior asbestos exposure

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147
Q

MC benign pleural neoplasm

A

fibrous tumors of the pleura

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148
Q

MC benign tumors involving the pleura

A

localized fibrous tumors and lipoma

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149
Q

MC site of origin of fibrous tumors

A

visceral pleura

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150
Q

MC soft tissue tumors involving the chest wall

A

lipoma

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151
Q

MC form of malignancy involving the pleura

A

metastases

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152
Q

MC cell type to metastasize to the pleura

A

adenocarcinoma

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153
Q

Most carcinogenic and fibrogenic form of asbestos

A

crocidolite

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154
Q

Most cases of postpneumonectomy syndrome occurs following?

A

right pneumonectomy, or left pneumonectomy in patients with a right aortic arch

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155
Q

MC location of recurrent bronchogenic ca

A

near the bronchial stump or in mediastinal LNs

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156
Q

MC affected joint in SAPHO syndrome

A

sternoclavicular region

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157
Q

MC neoplasms involving the sternum

A

MM and hematogenous mets from lung, breast, prostate, thyroid, or renal ca

malignant: chondrosarcoma>osteosarc>myeloma>malignant lymphoma

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158
Q

MCC of empyema necessitans

A

TB

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159
Q

MC benign tumor of cartilage and bone

A

osteochondromas / exostoses

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160
Q

Only reliable CT sign of chest wall invasion by a mass contacting the parietal pleura

A

rib or spine destruction

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161
Q

Most specific indicator of parietal pleural invasion

A

clinical presence of focal chest wall pain

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162
Q

MCC of a destructive lesion in the rib or sternum in adults

A

metastatic disease followed by MM

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163
Q

MC primary malignant tumor of the chest wall

A

chondrosarcoma

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164
Q

Chondrosarcoma more frequently arises from

A

anterior ribs (near the costal cartilage junction) > sternum, clavicle, or sapula

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165
Q

Radiation therapy is most commonly administered for

A

breast ca

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166
Q

Most reliable means of distinction of recurrent tumor from radiation fibrosis

A

focal mass

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167
Q

MCC of pseudomeningocele

A

motorcycle accidents

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168
Q

MC site of lateral arcuate ligaments resembling nodules or tumor implants

A

right side adjacent to the posterior pararenal space, along the lateral aspect of the lateral arcuate ligament, w/c extends from the transverse process of L1 to the middle of the 12th rib

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169
Q

MC injuries associated with diaphragm rupture in motor vehicle trauma

A

liver or spleen injury, rib and pelvic fractures (Berbquist’s triad), and pulmonary contusion

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170
Q

Unilateral or bilateral anterior diaphragmatic lymphadenopathy is most often associated with?

A

lymphoma or lung, breast, or colon ca

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171
Q

MC malignant process to involve the retrocrural lymph nodes

A

lymphoma

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172
Q

MC malignant primary tumors of the diaphragm

A

sarcomas of fibrous or muscular origin

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173
Q

MC arrhythmia

A

atrial fibrillation

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174
Q

MC complication of percutaneous catheter ablation

A

PV stenosis

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175
Q

MC of all infiltrative restrictive cardiomyopathies in the Western world

A

amyloid

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176
Q

MC benign cardiac tumor

A

myxoma (usually left atrium, attached by a thin stalk at the fossa ovalis)

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177
Q

Usual location of lipoma

A

right atrium

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178
Q

MC malignant cardiac tumor

A

angiosarcoma (right atrium)

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179
Q

MC cardiac tumor in children

A

rhabdomyoma

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180
Q

MC tumors of cardiac valves

A

fibroelastomas

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181
Q

MC site of fibroelastomas

A

aortic valve > mitral valve (usually atrial side)

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182
Q

MC secondary tumors of the heart

A

metastatic disease as an extension from tumors of the adjacent lung or mediastinal structures

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183
Q

MC underlying malignancy in direct invasion

A

lung ca

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184
Q

MC primary tumor in patients with cardiac mets

A

bronchogenic ca (36%) > nonsolid primary malignancies (leukemia, lymphoma, and Kaposi sarcoma) (20%) > breast (7%) > esophagus (6%)

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185
Q

MC source of hematogenous metastases to the heart

A

melanoma

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186
Q

MC mass of the heart in general

A

thrombus (most frequently involving the LA or LV)

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187
Q

MCC of chest injuries that occur in civilian populations

A

blunt chest trauma

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188
Q

MC associated injuries in patients with blunt trauma

A

head trauma, extremity fractures, and intraabdominal injuries

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189
Q

Most commonly fractured ribs in patients w/ significant chest trauma

A

4th through 9th ribs

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190
Q

Most commonly involved in thoracic spine fractures

A

lower thoracic spine (T9 through T11)

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191
Q

MC injury resulting from blunt chest trauma

A

pulmonary contusion

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192
Q

MC type of pulmonary lacerations on CT

A

Type 1

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193
Q

MC complaint in the immediate postinjury period after traumatic aortic laceration

A

retrosternal or interscapular pain

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194
Q

Among radiographic findings, the most sensitive predictor of aortic injury and the MC indication for aortography

A

widening of the mediastinum w/ loss of the aortic contour

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195
Q

MCC of mediastinal hemorrhage

A

disruption of small arteries and veins in the mediastinum (rather than aortic injury)

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196
Q

MC manifestation of cardiac trauma

A

myocardial contusion

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197
Q

Most frequently injured cardiac chamber

A

RV (majority of the exposed anterior surface of the heart directly behind sternum)

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198
Q

More common laterality in pericardial rupture / rupture of the diaphragmatic pericardium and/or pleuropercardium

A

left

*left pleuropericardium, followed by the diaphragmatic and right pleuropericardium. *

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199
Q

Most tracheobronchial tears involve the?

A

distal tracheal (15%) or proximal mainstem bronchi (80%), w/ >80% of all tears occurring within 2.5 cm of the carina

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200
Q

MC site of diaphragmatic rupture

A

area of the central tendon or at its transition to the muscular portion of the diaphragm

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201
Q

Most commonly involved segments in diaphragmatic rupture

A

posterior and posterolateral diaphragmatic segments

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202
Q

MC airspace disease

A

pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

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203
Q

MC location of tracheal or pig bronchus

A

right side of the trachea and usually within 2 cm of the carina

204
Q

MC location of accessory cardiac bronchus

A

inferior medial wall of the right main or intermediate bronchus

205
Q

MCC of intalobular lines / thickening of intralobular interstitium

A

fibrosis

206
Q

MC forms of spina bifida aperta

A

myelocele and myelomeningocele

207
Q

Deep end of the dermal sinus/stalk most commonly ends at the?

A

conus (64%)

208
Q

MC skeletal location of epidermoids

A

lumbar

209
Q

MC location of dermoids

A

thoracic (25%) or thoracolumbar (75%)

210
Q

MC type of occult spinal dysraphism

A

spinal lipomas

211
Q

MC newborn tumor / MC tumor of the sacrococcygeal region in childhood / MC sacrococcygeal GCT

A

sacrococcygeal teratoma

212
Q

MC sites of unfused spinous processes

A

L5 and S1 > C1, C7, T1, and lower thoracic

213
Q

MC site of block vertebrae

A

lumbar spine > cervical > thoracic

214
Q

MC location of fusions in (type II) Klippel-Feil syndrome

A

C2-C3 - most rostral tapos cumulative kasi ang fusion dito nag-start ang pag-add (next mc: C5-C6)

215
Q

Largest avascular substance in the body

A

disc

216
Q

Most lumbar disc herniations extend through defects in what portion of the posterior annulus?

A

posterolaterally or midline

217
Q

Hallmark of herniated disc

A

focal contour abnormality along the posterior disc margin w/ a ST mass displacing the epidural fat, nerve root, epidural veins, or thecal sac

218
Q

Hallmark of disc herniation (in the cervical spine)

A

focal protuberance of the disc margin

219
Q

MC degenerative process of the spine

A

spondylosis deformans

220
Q

MCC of central canal stenosis in the cervical spine

A

spondylosis deformans (osteophytosis) and ligamentous thickening

221
Q

About 90% of all focal disk abnormalities in the lumbar spine occur at?

A

L4-L5 / L5-S1

222
Q

Central canal stenosis in the lumbar spine is MC at what levels?

A

L2-L3, L3-L4, and L4-L5

223
Q

Degenerative form of spondylolisthesis that occurs secondary to degenerative disease of the facet joints most commonly occurs at what level?

A

L4-L5

224
Q

About 90% of all focal disk abnormalities in the cervical spine occur at?

A

C5-C6 and C6-C7

225
Q

MC locations of posttraumatic cervical disc herniations

A

C4 - C7 (cervical and thoracic - more common than lumbar in posttraumatic disc herniations)

226
Q

Procedure of choice for evaluating pars interarticularis defects

A

CT

227
Q

MC diagnosis in the scenario of a lesion occupying 2 compartments

A

neurofibroma extending into both the extradural and intradural extramedullary spaces

228
Q

MC pattern in patients w/ low back pain or radiculopathy after surgery for disc disease

A

presence of both scar and recurrent herniated disc material in the epidural space

229
Q

MC finding in arachnoiditis

A

clumping of nerve rootlets in the thecal sac

230
Q

MC location of vertebral hemangiomas

A

thoracic region (60%)

231
Q

MC location of osteochondromas (most common noncancerous bone growth)

A

thoracic or lumbar (posterior elements - spinous processes)

232
Q

MC location of osteoid osteoma

A

lumbar (posterior elements - laminae)

233
Q

MC location of osteoblastoma

A

lumbar (posterior elements)

234
Q

MC frequently affected site in aneurysmal bone cysts

A

lumbar (posterior elements - neural arch)
(long bones eccentric metaphysis, femur, prox tibia, fibula, humerus)

235
Q

MC location of chordomas

A

sacrum

236
Q

MC location of Chordomas in the spine

A

cervical > lumbar > thoracic

sacrococcygeal>sphenooccipital> vert body

mc -conventional
best prognosis -chondroid chordoma
poorly differentisted - least common worst prognosis

237
Q

Most frequently involved spine in neuroblastomas (most immature modt malignant), ganglioneuroma (most benign mature ganglion cells ), and ganglioneuroblastoma(mature gangliocytes immature neuroblasts)(all peripheral neuroblastic tumors)in Sns

A

thoracic and lumbar

238
Q

MC location of osteosarcomas in the spine

A

thoracic (33%) > lumbar (32%) - posterior elements

239
Q

MC site of epidural tumor

A

thoracic
epidural mets spinal> lumbar>cervical

240
Q

MC tumor with intradural extramedullary location

A

nerve sheath tumors

241
Q

MC location of nerve sheath tumors

A

cervical

242
Q

MC location of spinal meningiomas

A

thoracic

243
Q

Usual location of meningiomas within the canal

A

posterolateral, except in cervical - anterior

244
Q

Most often affected segments within the cervical spine, excluding the foramen magnum

A

C3 and C4

245
Q

MC lesion in the differential diagnosis w/ a spinal meningioma

A

nerve sheath tumor

246
Q

MC location leptomeningeal tumor

A

lumbosacral (due to gravity)

247
Q

MC location of spinal asTrocyTomas (intramedullary)

A

thoracic cord > cervical>
2nd mc SC tumor,
mc sc tumor for children
peak at 3rd decade 3:2 MF
1/3 of all spinal glial tumors
Inc incidence in NF1
T1 iso to hypo T2 hyper Gad patchy enhancemnet

248
Q

MC location of myxopapillary ependymomas

A

filum
slow growing benign tumors, 30-50,ependyms of the filum, medullary conus and cauda

249
Q

MC location of spinal hemangioblastomas

A

thoracic - most are intramedullary
3rd mc intramedullary spinal neoplasm
rt VonnHippel Landau syndrome -SAH or hemstomy3lia
densely enhancing nidus with assoc dilated arteries prominent draining veins

250
Q

MC primary of all intramedullary cord metastases

A

lung ca > melanoma, lymphoma, colon, and kidney

251
Q

MC location of inTramedullary cord meTasTases

A

thoracic

252
Q

MC location of spinal lipomas

A

lumbosacral

253
Q

MC location of spinal cord arteriovenous malformations

A

thoracolumbar region, posterior, and EXTRAmeduloary or outside the spinal cord

mc spinal vascular malformatiom,

254
Q

MC benign bone tumor

A

osteochondroma

255
Q

MC sign of osteoid osteoma

A

focal tenderness
found in long bones shin bones
near cortex
children (adolescents)>
lucent nidus <1.5 or 2 cm with osteoclastic rxn
nsaids –> night pain

256
Q

Traditionally the primary modality for evaluation of suspected osteoid osteomas

A

CT

257
Q

MC location of giant cell tumors

A

knee

258
Q

MC benign spinal column tumor, excluding hemangiomas / MC tumor to involve the sacrum

A

GCT

259
Q

MC among neuroblastomas, ganglioneuroma, and ganglioneuroblastoma

A

neuroblastoma

260
Q

Most well differentiated among neuroblastomas, ganglioneuroma, and ganglioneuroblastoma

A

ganglioneuroma

261
Q

Excluding CNS tumors, the MC solid tumor of children

A

neuroblastoma

262
Q

MC primary malignant bone tumor in the pediatric population

A

osteosarcoma

263
Q

2nd mc primary malignant bone tumor after osteosarcoma in younger individuals

A

Ewing sarcoma

264
Q

2nd mc location for metastatic disease to the CNS in patients w/ systemic cancer, after the brain

A

spine

265
Q

MC tumor affecting the vertebrae

A

myeloma

266
Q

MC primary intracranial neoplasms causing LeptoMeningeal tumor

A

medulloblastoma (48%) (2nd mc: glioblastoma and high-grade astrocytomas (III and IV - 14%)

267
Q

MCC of leptomeningeal tumors among the systemic tumors

A

breast ca > lung, melanoma, GU, H&N, or colon
GBM and anaplastic astrocytoma

268
Q

MC primary of all intramedullary cord metastases

A

lung ca > melanoma, lymphoma, colon, and kidney

269
Q

MC location of intramedullary cord metastases

A

thoracic

270
Q

MC intramedullary cord tumor in adults / MC primary cord tumor of the lower spinal cord, conus medullaris, and filum terminale

A

ependymoma

271
Q

MC intraduraL mesenchymal mass

A

lipoma

272
Q

MC location of spinal cord hemorrhage

A

within the central gray matter

273
Q

MC spinal vascular lesion / MC spinal vascular malformation / MC spinal vascular anomaly in the older adult

A

dorsal intradural AVF / spinal dural AVF (SDAVF) / type 1 AVF
thoracolumbar regionradiculomeningeal artery into the radicular vein

274
Q

MC type of SDAVF

A

type A - single feeding artery

275
Q

MC location of SDAVFs

A

thoracolumbar, usually b/n T5 and L3

276
Q

MC symptom of SDAVF

A

progressive LE weakness

277
Q

MC spinal vascular malformation with arteriovenous shunting

A

SDAVMs / shunts

278
Q

MC type of a spinal intradural arteriovenous shunt

A

single, sporadic spinal intradural AVM

279
Q

MC location of SCAVMs

A

thoracolumbar

280
Q

May be the MCC of ischemic damage to the spinal cord

A

spontaneous aortic dissection

281
Q

MC location of childhood discitis

A

lumbar - L2-L3 and L3-L4

282
Q

MC site affected in RA after the MCP joints

A

cervical spine

283
Q

MC seronegative spondyloarthritis

A

ankylosing spondylitis

284
Q

Most characteristic spinal involvement in spondyloarthritis

A

enthesitis (inflammatory process affecting the insertions of the vertebral ligaments)

285
Q

MC location of spinal epidural abscess

A

lower thoracic and lumbar spine > cervical and upper thoracic spine

286
Q

MC location of spinal subdural abscess

A

thoracolumbar

287
Q

MCC of arachnoiditis

A

iatrogenic

288
Q

MC site of acute transverse myelitis

A

thoracic spine > cervical spine

289
Q

MC worldwide cause of acute flaccid paralysis

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

290
Q

MC presentation of syphilis in the spine

A

gummas

291
Q

MC location of tuberculous spondylodiscitis

A

thoracolumbar junction

292
Q

MC opportunistic bacterial infection in AIDS patients

A

M. avium complex

293
Q

MC causes of human opportunistic mycotic infections

A

Candida and Aspergillus

294
Q

MC systemic and CNS fungal infection in immunocompromised populations

A

cryptococcosis neoformans
ct - cns , diffuse cerbral atrophy, hydrocephalus, diffuse edema, mass lesions
pulmo- single, multiple pulmo nodules, segmental or lobar consolidation
hiv, leukemia, cancer, steroids

295
Q

MC parasitic infection of the CNS

A

cysticercosis

296
Q

MC location of intramedullary cysticerci

A

thoracic (highest blood flow - hematogenous route)

297
Q

MCC of focal brain lesions in patients w/ AIDS

A

toxoplasmosis

298
Q

MC viral cause of transverse myelitis

A

family Herpesviridae

299
Q

MC manifestation of herpesviridae infection

A

encephalitis

300
Q

MC chronic myelopathy associated w/ HIV infection

A

vacuolar myelopathy

301
Q

MC opportunistic infection that affects the intraspinal content

A

CMV

302
Q

MC site of traumatic diastasis (in children) as it typically does not ossify completely until the mid teens

A

sphenooccipital synchondrosis (other common sites: petrooccipital and occipitomastoid)

303
Q

MC site of epidural hematoma

A

squamous portion of the temporal bone

304
Q

Most commonly injured artery in epidural hematoma

A

middle meningeal artery

305
Q

Most commonly affected CN in clival epidural hematomas (most often occuring in children and presenting with multiple cranial neuropathies)

A

abducens (VI) nerve (followed by the glossopharyngeal [IX] and hypoglossal [XII] nerves)

306
Q

MC etiology of acute subdural hematoma

A

tearing of bridging cortical veins as they cross the subdural space to enter a dural venous sinus (usually the SSS)

307
Q

2nd MC extraaxial hematoma

A

acute subdural hematoma

308
Q

MC of the intraaxial injuries / parenchymal lesions seen in TBI

A

cerebral/cortical contusions (2nd MC: DAI)

309
Q

MC locations of contusions

A

temporal tips, as well as the lateral and inferior surfaces and the perisylvian gyri / anteroinferior frontal, temporal lobes

310
Q

MC locations of DAI

A

corona radiata and along compact white matter tracts such as the corpus callosum (esp the genu and splenium), fornix, and internal capsule / subcortical and deep white matter (cortex is typically spared)

311
Q

MCC of pneumocephalus

A

trauma in text (but in the Osborn table, surgery)

312
Q

MC compartment where intracranial air exists

A

subdural space (MC site: frontal)

313
Q

MC intracranial location of extramedullary hematopoiesis

A

subdural space

314
Q

MC result of shaking in abusive head trauma

A

diffusely distributed acute subdural hematoma

315
Q

MC intracranial imaging finding in confirmed cases of abusive head trauma

A

subdural hematoma

316
Q

MCC of subdural hygroma in a child <2 yrs

A

trauma, both accidental and inflicted

317
Q

MC secondary manifestation of any expanding intracranial mass, regardless of etiology

A

herniations

318
Q

2nd MC type of intracranial herniation syndrome / MC brain herniation that causes secondary cerebral infarction

A

descending transtentorial herniation

319
Q

MC posterior fossa herniation

A

tonsillar herniation

320
Q

MCC of acquired tonsillar herniation

A

expanding posterior fossa mass

321
Q

MC complication of ascending transtentorial herniation

A

acute intraventricular obstructive hydrocephalus - compression of cerebral aqeuduct

322
Q

MCC of posttraumatic cerebral ischemia

A

vascular compression secondary to herniation

323
Q

Most commonly affected vessel in intracranial traumatic dissection

A

vertebral artery (usually between the skull base and C1) - anterior circulations typically involve the supraclinoid ICA (Google: supraclinoid=between ophthalmic and PCOM)

324
Q

Most frequently involved site of intracranial dissections / MC site of dissecting aneurysms

A

vertebral artery

325
Q

MC location of vertebral dissections

A

skull base to C1 and C1 to C2

326
Q

MC sites of traumatic pseudoaneurysm

A

vertebral artery > distal ACA

327
Q

MC site of dissection in the head and neck

A

extracranial ICA

328
Q

MC sites of posttraumatic encephalomalacia

A

anteroinferior frontal lobes and anterior temporal lobes - areas with high incidence of cortical contusions

329
Q

MC nontraumatic cause of spontaneous intraventricular hemorrhage in neonates >34 gestational weeks

A

dural venous sinus thrombosis (pag <34 weeks, GMH)

330
Q

MC site of intracranial dural AVFs

A

transverse/sigmoid sinus junction (2nd MC: indirect CCF)

331
Q

MC site of dural venous sinus thrombosis in older children and adults

A

transverse sinus

332
Q

MC sites of dural venous sinus thrombosis in infants

A

straight sinus > SSS

333
Q

2nd MCC of unexplained intracerebral hemorrhage in young adults

A

1 vascular malformations

drug abuse

334
Q

MC site of ectasias

A

posterior circulation

335
Q

MCC of nontraumatic, nonaneurysmal SAH

A

perimesencephalic nonaneurysmal SAH

336
Q

MC site of posterior circulation saccular aneurysms

A

basilar artery bifurcation (2nd MC: PICA)

337
Q

MC cranial neuropathy as a presentation of saccular aneurysms

A

CN III palsy (pupil) from a PCoA aneurysm

338
Q

MC location for an infundibulum

A

PCoA

339
Q

MC site of blood blister-like aneurysm

A

anterosuperior (dorsal) wall of the supraclinoid ICA

340
Q

MC location of capillary telangiectasia

A

medulla

341
Q

MC extracardiac cause of high-output cardiac failure in newborns

A

vein of Galen aneurysmal malformation

342
Q

MC location of DVAs (developmental venous anomaly or cerebral venous angioma)

A

adjacent to frontal horn (2nd MC: next to 4th ventricle)

343
Q

MC histologically mixed cerebral vascular malformation

A

cavernous-venous

344
Q

MC component in mixed vascular malformations

A

cerebral cavernous malformation

345
Q

MC site of sinus pericranii

A

frontal lobe
(abn communication bet intracranial dural sinuses and extracranial venous structures via transosseous vein) (low flow vascular malformation, involves Sss)
blue rubber bleb nevus syndrome

346
Q

MC scalp mass in middle-aged and older adults

A

sebaceous (trichilemmal) cyst

347
Q

1st and 2nd MC cerebral vascular malformation

A

1 AV shunt and cavernous malformatiom
2 brain capillary telangiectasias

348
Q

MC circle of Willis variant

A

absent or hypoplastic PCoA

349
Q

Most likely source of calcified embolus

A

(“at-risk” ulcerated atherosclerotic plaque in the) cervical or cavernous ICA

350
Q

MC findings of GM-WM blurring

A

insular ribbon sign and disappearing basal ganglia sign

351
Q

MC site of ASCVD in the craniocervical vasculature (atherosclerotic cvd)

A

carotid bifurcation, followed by the cavernous ICA

352
Q

MCC of blooming black dots in older patients

A

chronic hypertension or amyloid angiopathy

353
Q

2 MC etiologies of unexplained spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage in eldery patients

A

hypertensive hemorrhage/chronic hypertension with arteriolar lipohyalinosis and amyloid angiopathy

354
Q

MC causes of multiple ICHs in middle-aged and older adults

A

HTN, amyloid angiopathy, hemorrhagic mets, and impaired coag

355
Q

MC causes of multiple microbleeds in children and young adults

A

cavernous malformations or hematologic disorders

356
Q

MCC of cerebral microbleeds in children and young adults

A

trauma with hemorrhagic axonal injury

357
Q

MC location of petechial hemorrhages from hemorrhagic transformation

A

basal ganglia and cortex

358
Q

Most commonly affected location in embolic infarcts

A

GM-WM interface

359
Q

MC locations of prominent PVSs

A

inferior third of the basal ganglia (clustered around the anterior commisure), subcortical WM (including the external capsule), and midbrain

360
Q

MC locations of lacunae

A

basal ganglia (putamen, globus pallidus, caudate nucleus), thalami, internal capsule, deep cerebral WM, and pons

361
Q

MC locations of arachnoid granulations

A

transverse sinus and superior sagittal sinus

362
Q

MC site of cervicocephalic involvement of fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD)

A

ICA

363
Q

MC type of fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD)

A

type 1 / medial fibroplasia

364
Q

MCC of ischemic stroke in young and middle-aged adults

A

craniocervical arterial dissection

365
Q

MCC of severe cerebral vasoconstriction

A

vasospasm with multifocal foci of arterial constriction and dilatation

366
Q

MC worldwide cause of childhood stroke

A

sickle cell disease

367
Q

MC monogenic heritable cause of lacunar stroke and vascular dementia in adults / MC inherited cerebral small vessel disease

A

CADASIL

368
Q

MC form of thrombotic microangiopathy

A

DIC

369
Q

Most globally common of the congenital infections / Leading cause of nonhereditary deafness in children / MCC of congenital brain infection in developed countries

A

congenital CMV infection

370
Q

2nd mc congenital infection

A

toxoplasmosis

371
Q

MC location of cerebral parenchymal calcifications in Zika virus infection

A

cerebral hemispheric GM-WM junction

372
Q

Most striking and consistent finding in congenital HIV

A

atrophy, particularly frontal lobes

373
Q

MC imaging findings in congenital syphilis

A

hydrocephalus and meningitis w/ leptomeningeal enhancement

374
Q

MC route of meningitis

A

hematogenous (2nd MC: direct extension from sinusitis, otitis, or mastoiditis)

375
Q

MCC of meningitis

A

acute pyogenic (bacterial) infection

376
Q

Leading cause of newborn meningitis in developed countries

A

group Bß-hemolytic streptococcal meningitis

377
Q

Leading cause of newborn meningitis in developing countries

A

enteric, gram-neg organisms (typically E. coli, less commonly Enterobacter or Citrobacter)

378
Q

MCC of childhood bacterial meningitis now (because of significant decrease in H. influenzae meningitis due to vaccination)

A

Neisseria meningitidis

379
Q

Most commonly involved in meningitis

A

basal cisterns and SAS (followed by cerebral convexity sulci)

380
Q

MCC of acute febrile encephalopathy

A

pyogenic meningitis

381
Q

MC location of postmeningitis reactive effusions

A

subdural - frontal, parietal, and temporal convexities

382
Q

MC agents of abscess in immunocompetent adults

A

Strep, Staph aureus, and pneumococci

383
Q

MC opportunistic infections in patients w/ HIV/AIDS

A

toxoplasmosis and tuberculosis

384
Q

MC CT finding in early cerebritis

A

poorly marginated cortical/subcortical hypodense mass

385
Q

Infection of the ventricular ependyma most often occurs when?

A

pyogenic abscess ruptures through its thin, medial capsule into the adjacent ventricle

386
Q

MC pathogens causing ventriculitis

A

Staph, Strep, and Enterobacter

387
Q

MCC of empyemas in infants and young children

A

bacterial meningitis

388
Q

MCC of empyemas in older children and adults

A

extension of infection from paranasal sinus disease

389
Q

MC organisms in empyemas

A

Staph and Strep

390
Q

MC locations of (subdural) empyemas

A

frontal and frontoparietal convexities

391
Q

MCC of Pott puffy tumor

A

untreated frontal sinusitis

392
Q

Most frequently affected locations in herpes simplex encephalitis

A

anterior and medial temporal lobes, insular cortex, subfrontal area, and cingulate gyri

393
Q

MC location of extralimbic HSE

A

parietal cortex

394
Q

MC worldwide cause of sporadic (ie nonepidemic) viral encephalitis

A

HSV-1

395
Q

MC finding in TB meningitis on NECT

A

hydrocephalus

396
Q

MC site of CNS mycoses

A

meninges

397
Q

MC cerebral complication following BM transplantation

A

Aspergillosis

398
Q

MC CNS site of T. solium larvae (neurocysticercosis)

A

intracranial subarachnoid spaces

399
Q

MC site of intraventricular neurocysticercosis

A

fourth

400
Q

2nd MC acquired idiopathic inflammatory demyelinating disease

MC idiopathic

A

ADEM (acute disseminated encephalomyelitis)

Multiple sclerosis

401
Q

MC imaging pattern of autoimmune encephalitis

A

limbic encephalitis (one or both medial temporal lobes)

402
Q

MC affected segment of the spinal cord in NMOSD (neuronyelitis optic spectrum disorder) (Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder is a rare inflammatory disease that most often affects the optic nerves and spinal cord. Less often, it affects the brain. It often leads to sudden vision loss, paralysis or both. Symptoms after a first attack usually improve.)

A

cervical

403
Q

Most commonly involved CNs in neurosarcoidosis

A

II and VII

404
Q

MC of all solid neoplasms in children and adolescents (0-19 yo) / MC cancer among those aged 0-19 years

A

primary CNS tumors / brain and CNS tumors

405
Q
  1. MC anatomic location of all intracranial tumors in adults
  2. According to ScienceDirect Topics, the most common locations for intracranial tumors are:
  3. Brain tumors in adults are often found ___ the tentorium, while brain tumors in children are often found ____ the tentorium.
  4. The most common site of primary CNS tumors is
A
  1. meninges > cerebral hemispheres, sellar region, CNs, brainstem, and cerebellum
  2. Posterior fossa: 70% of cases
    Supratentorial region: 30% of cases
  3. Brain tumors in adults are often found above the tentorium, while brain tumors in children are often found below the tentorium.
  4. The most common site of primary CNS tumors is brain parenchyma, followed by the meninges, sellar region, and nerves.
406
Q

MC histologic subtype of primary CNS neoplasm

A

meningiomas > gliomas, pituitary adenomas

407
Q

MC primary brain tumor in adults / MC of all intracranial neoplasms / MC of all brain tumors / Most frequently diagnosed primary tumor

A

meningioma

408
Q

MC radiation-induced neoplasm

A

meningioma

409
Q

MC malignant CNS neoplasm / MC congenital astrocytoma

A

glioblastoma

410
Q

MC overall malignant brain tumor

A

glial neoplasms

411
Q

Most frequently reported intracranial tumors in children age 0-4 yo

A

embryonal neoplasm (MEDULLOBLASTOMA)

412
Q

MC location of intracranial GCTs

A

pineal region, around the 3rd ventricle - midline

413
Q

MC intracranial GCT

A

germinomas

414
Q

Account for majority of sellar/suprasellar masses in adults / 3rd mc overall intracranial neoplasm in adults

A

pituitary adenoma

415
Q

MC intracranial parenchymal cysts

A

enlarged perivascular spaces and hippocampal sulcus remnants > porencephalic (encephaloclastic) cysts

416
Q

MC intraventricular cyst

A

chroroid plexus cyst

417
Q

2nd mc intraventricular cyst but the most important to diagnose

A

colloid cyst - can suddently and unexpectedly obstruct -> hydroceph and even death

418
Q

MC overall childhood cancers (0-19 yo)

A

pilocytic astrocytoma and embryonal tumors (2/3 of which are medulloblastoma)

419
Q

MC malignant CNS neoplasm of childhood / 2nd mc overall pediatric brain tumor (after astrocytoma) / MC malignant posterior fossa childhood neoplasm

A

medulloblastoma

420
Q

MC primary brain tumor in children

A

pilocytic astrocytoma

421
Q

MC sites of childhood astrocytomas (after 1-2 yo)

A

cerebellum and brainstem (> half are infratentorial)

422
Q

MC location of pilocytic astrocytomas

A

cerebellum

423
Q

2nd MC site of pilocytic astrocytomas

A

in and around optic nerve/chiasm and hypothalamus/third ventricle - 1/4 to 1/3 of all PAs (3rd MC: pons and medulla)

424
Q

2nd mc overall astrocytoma site in children

A

clusters around 3rd ventricle, hypothalamus, and optic chiasm

425
Q

MC appearance of a posterior fossa pilocytic astrocytoma

A

well-delineated cerebellar cyst w/ mural nodule (other sites: tend to be solid, infiltrating, less well marginated)

426
Q

Least common site of astrocytomas in children

A

cerebral hemispheres - MC seen is diffuse astrocytoma (II)

427
Q

Worst survival of all pediatric brain tumors

A

H3 K27M-mutant diffuse midline glioma

428
Q

MC sites of H3 K27M-mutant midline glioma

A

brainstem, thalamus, and spinal cord

429
Q

The only finding sufficient to diff SEGA from SEN

A

progressive enlargement - SENs remain stable

430
Q

MC site of pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma

A

temporal lobe

431
Q

MC of all primary CNS neoplasms in patients 18-30 yo (young adults)

A

IDH-mutant diffuse astroctyoma

432
Q

MC location of IDH-mutant diffuse astrocytomas

A

frontal or temporal lobes - hemispheric white matter

433
Q

MC overall site of IDH-mutant diffuse astrocytomas

A

cerebral hemispheres w/ preferential location in frontal lobes

434
Q

In contrast to IDH-wild-type GBMs, what is the MC location of IDH-mutant GBMs?

A

frontal lobe, just like diffuse astrocytomas (wild type - anywhere in hemispheres)

435
Q

MC and most malignant of all astrocytomas

A

IDH-wild-type GBM

436
Q

MC malignant brain tumor in adults / MC primary CNS neoplasm that causes “brain-to-brain” metastases

A

GBM

437
Q

MC route of GBM spread

A

white matter tracts (such as corpus callosum, fornices, anterior commissure, and corticospinal tract)

438
Q

3rd MC type of glial neoplasm (after GBM and anaplastic astrocytoma) / 3rd MC primary brain tumor

A

oligodendroglioma

439
Q

MC site of oligodendrogliomas

A

frontal lobe - G-W matter junction

440
Q

MC subtype of those tumors that exhibit ependymal differentiation / 3rd MC posterior fossa tumor of childhood (after medulloblastoma and astrocytoma)

A

ependymoma

441
Q

MC location of ependymomas

A

fourth ventricle (infratentorial)

442
Q

MC location of subependymoma

A

frontal horn of the lateral ventricle, near the foramen of Monro, where they are often attached to the septi pellucidi (2nd mc 4th ventricle) [Note: pero sa box, posterior fossa (4th ventricle) > supratentorial (frontal horn) !!!]

443
Q

MC and most benign primary choroid plexus tumor / MCC of overproduction hydrocephalus

A

choroid plexus papilloma

444
Q

5th mc congenital brain neoplasm (after teratoma, astrocytoma, craniopharyngioma, and PNET)

A

choroid plexus papilloma

445
Q

MC overall site of choroid plexus papillomas

A

trigone (lateral ventricle -50%, usually children) (fourth ventricle -40%, usually adults)

446
Q

MC location of choroid plexus papilloma in infants

A

atrium of the lateral ventricle

447
Q

MC mixed glioneural tumor / MC histologically mixed glioneural neoplasm

A

ganglioglioma

448
Q

MC location of gangliogliomas

A

temporal lobe - superficial

449
Q

2 MC long-term epilepsy-associated tumors

A

ganglioglioma and DNET

450
Q

MC site of DNET

A

temporal lobes (45-50%)

451
Q

MCC of temporal lobe epilepsy

A

ganglioglioma (2nd MCC: DNET)

452
Q

MC location of rosette-forming glioneural tumor

A

4th ventricle and/or cerebellar vermis - infratentorial midline (2nd mc: pineal)

453
Q

Mc location of supratentorial gangliocytomas

A

temporal lobe (3/4)

454
Q

MC primary intraventricular neoplasm of young and middle-aged adults

A

central neurocytoma

455
Q

Most tumors of the pineal gland are?

A

germ cell neoplasms

456
Q

MC pineal parenchymal tumor

A

pineacytoma - 15-60% (pero sa text 13-15% lang and pineacytomas samantalang 2/3 ang PPTID)

457
Q

MC pineal parenchymal tumor

A

pineal parenchymal tumor of intermediate differentiation (PPTID) - 1/2 to 2/3 of cases

458
Q

MCC of death in pinealoblastomas

A

CSF dissemination

459
Q

MC location of intracranial germinomas

A

pineal (2nd mc: suprasellar)

460
Q

MC off-midline sites of intracranial germinomas

A

basal ganglia and thalami

461
Q

MC combination of multiple intracranial germinomas

A

pineal + suprasellar (bifocal or double midline) germinoma

462
Q

MC intracranial GCT / MC of the germ cell neoplasms

A

germinoma

463
Q

MC presentation for suprasellar germinoma

A

central diabetes insipidus

464
Q

MC prenatally detected parenchymal brain tumors

A

teratomas

465
Q

MC site of intracranial teratomas

A

pineal or suprasellar region

466
Q

Rarest, most malignant of all the intracranial GCTs

A

primary intracranial choriocarcinoma (PICCC)

467
Q

MC parenchymal posterior fossa mass in adults / MCC of enhancing posterior fossa intraaxial (parenchymal) mass

A

mets

468
Q

MC extracranial solid cancer in childhood / MC overall cancer in infants

A

secondary/metastatic neuroblastoma

469
Q

Excluding CNS tumors, the MC solid tumor of children

A

neuroblastoma

470
Q

MC manifestation of metastates in neuroblastomas

A

skeletal mets

471
Q

MC of all intracranial neoplasms / MC of all brain tumors / Most frequently diagnosed primary tumor / MC dura-based neoplasm in children

A

meningioma

472
Q

MC cytogenetic alteration in meningioma

A

monosomy of chromosome 22 (related ba sa NF2?)

473
Q

MC location of meningiomas

A

convexities or parasagital / parasagittal/convexity

474
Q

MC infratentorial site of meningiomas

A

CPA > jugular foramen and foramen magnum (usually from clivus or craniocervical junction)

475
Q

Most important site for CSF turnover

A

dura mater/pachymeninx

476
Q

MC benign mesenchymal tumors that occur within the CNS

A

osteocartilaginous tumors such as chondroma, osteochondroma, and osteoma

477
Q

MC site of intracranial benign mesencymal tumors

A

falx (supratentorial)

478
Q

Overall MC benign osteocartilaginous tumor of the skull base

A

chondroma/enchondroma

479
Q

MC site of chondromas and enchondromas

A

central skull base, especially the sella/parasellar region (kasi they usually arise from cartilaginous synchondroses in the skull base which develops by enchondral ossification)

480
Q

MC benign osseous tumor of the calvaria

A

osteoma

481
Q

MC sites of osteomas

A

paranasal sinuses (mas MC) and calvaria (kasi osteomas arise from membranous bone eh and calvaria ay nagdedevelop by membranous ossification)

482
Q

MC benign tumor of infancy

A

hemangioma

483
Q

MC intracranial site of hemangiomas

A

diploic space of the calvaria

484
Q

MC primary intracranial nonmeningothelial mesenchymal neoplasm, although rare

A

solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma

485
Q

MC location of solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma

A

occipital region (often straddles the transverse sinus)

486
Q

2nd MC infratentorial parenchymal mass in adults (after mets)

A

hemangioblastoma

487
Q

MC primary posterior fossa tumor in the adult

A

hemangioblastoma

488
Q

MC site of hemangioblastomas

A

cerebellum (80%) > vermis (15%)

489
Q

MC basic imaging pattern of hemangioblastomas

A

nonneoplastic peritumoral cyst w/ solid nodule (2nd MC: solid w/o cysts)

490
Q

MC ocular motor nerve palsy

A

simple/isolated abducens palsy

491
Q

Only tongue muscle not innervated by hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

A

geniohyoid muscle - innervated by C1 spinal nerve

492
Q

MC intracranial site of schwannomas

A

vestibulocochlear nerve (2nd mc: trigeminal) (3rd mc: jugular foramen) ( > VII > XII (?) - rarest daw and XII)

493
Q

MC site of schwannomas

A

skin and subcutaneous tissues (outside CNS)

494
Q

MCC of unilateral sensorineural hearing loss

A

vestibulochochlear schwannoma

495
Q

MCC of multiple enhancing CNs

A

mets

496
Q

MC cerebellopontine cistern mass

A

vestibular schwannoma

497
Q

MC of all Meckel cave tumors

A

schwannomas

498
Q

MC jugular foramen schwannoma but still rare

A

glossopharyngeal schwannomas (IX)

499
Q

MC site of facial nerve schwannomas

A

geniculate fossa

500
Q

Bulging fissure sign in imaging is due to what etiology of pneumonia

A

Klebsiella Pneumoniae

501
Q

What sign differentiates anterior and posteriro mediastinal
mass

A

Cervicothoracic sign

502
Q

List types of non small cell lung carcinoma

A
  1. Adeno ca
  2. Large cell ca
  3. SCC
503
Q

List two types of bronchogenic ca

A
  1. Small cell lung ca
  2. Nonsmall cell lung ca
504
Q

MCC HRCT finding of lipoid pneumonia

A

Negative attenuation values within areas of consolidation

505
Q

MCC of metastatic intracerebral hemorrhage

A

Melanoma
RCC
Choriocarcinoma

Most common (9 decks)

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