Most common 3 Flashcards

LS

1
Q

MC site of intraosseous ganglion cysts

A

medial malleolus of the tibia

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2
Q

The proximal radius and ulna most often dislocate where?

A

posteriorly

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3
Q

Perilunate dislocations may be accompanied by fractures of the carpal bones, most commonly the?

A

scaphoid and/or capitate

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4
Q

MC acetabular injury

A

both-column fractures

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5
Q

A lucent lesion in the anterior calcaneus is most commonly a?

A

simple bone cyst

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6
Q

MC Satler Harris type in trauma of the skeletally immature distal tibial epiphysis

A

Salter-Harris type II

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7
Q

Least stable of all joints

A

shoulder

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8
Q

Only true articulation between the shoulder girdle and the axial skeleton

A

sternoclavicular joint

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9
Q

MC malignant soft tissue mass

A

rhabdomyosacroma

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10
Q

MC arthropathies in childhood

A

juvenile RA, hemophilia, and pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS)

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11
Q

After primary degenerative joint disease, the next most commonly encountered arthropathy in the forefoot

A

RA

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12
Q

Chondroblastomas are eccentric intramedullary
l esions with lobulated margins and endosteal
sclerosis most commonly seen in the?

A

proximal
tibial metaphysis

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13
Q

MC malignant osseous lesions in adults

A

mets

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14
Q

MC fracture of C2

A

traumatic spondylolysis of C2 (hangman’s fracture)

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15
Q

Hyperextension teardrop fracture, an avulsion fracture
of the anteroinferior margin of the vertebral body caused
by excessive stress on the ALL, occurs most
commonly at?

A

C2

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16
Q

Next mc site of spine fracture after the cervical spine

A

thoracolumbar junction (T12 to L2)

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17
Q

Most commonly involved in spinal mets

A

thoracic and lumbar regions

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18
Q

MC primary tumors to produce spinal metastases

A

ca of the breast, lung, prostate, and kidney > lymphomas

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19
Q

In the thoracic spine, what discs herniate most commonly?

A

T11 and T12 discs

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20
Q

Synovial cysts as consequence of facet joint degenerations are usually seen in?

A

lower lumbar spine, most commonly at L4-L5

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21
Q

MCC of acquired stenosis

A

degenerative change

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22
Q

Most cases of edidural lipomatosis involve the?

A

thoracic spine

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23
Q

Ossification of the LF is generally seen in the setting
of OPLL. It is found most commonly in?

A

cervical and thoracic regions

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24
Q

MC signs of arachnoiditis by MRI

A

nerve root clumping and enhancement

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25
Q

Erosion of the dens by inflammatory pannus (synovial hypertrophy) is common in RA and is most frequently found in the?

A

retrodental space

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26
Q

Vertebral hemangiomas are most often located in the?

A

thoracic or lumbar regions

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27
Q

MC benign cause of vertebra plana

A

LCH

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28
Q

MC CT manifestation of myeloma

A

diffuse osteopenia

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29
Q

MCC of epidural hematoma

A

trauma

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30
Q

Epidural hematomas are generally located in the dorsolateral aspect of the spinal canal and most commonly involve the?

A

upper thoracic region

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31
Q

Beam hardening is most commonly seen in

A

body CT between the dense bones of the hips

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32
Q

Most dependent portion of the peritoneal cavity

A

pelvis

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33
Q

MC tumors to spread by diffuse metastatic seeding of the peritoneal cavity

A

ovarian ca in females and stomach, pancreas, and colon ca in both sexes (abdominopelvic)

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34
Q

Tumors most likely to extend into the IVC as tumor thrombus

A

renal, hepatic, and adrenal ca

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35
Q

MC ventral hernia

A

umbilical hernia

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36
Q

Most frequently injured intraabdominal organ

A

spleen

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37
Q

MC liver injury

A

lacerations

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38
Q

2nd most commonly injured abdominal organ

A

liver

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39
Q

Most specific CT sign of bowel injury

A

discontinuity of the bowel wall

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40
Q

MC causes of pancreatic injuries

A

penetrating trauma, knife and gunshot wounds

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41
Q

MCC of pancreatitis in children

A

blunt abdominal trauma, often assoc w/ child abuse

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42
Q

MC location of renal artery occlusions in renal trauma

A

proximal 2 cm of the renal artery

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43
Q

Most specific CT sign of portal hypertension

A

visualization of patent paraumbilical collateral veins

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44
Q

MCC of tumor extending into the portal vein

A

HCC

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45
Q

MC findings in the liver in hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

A

telangiectasias

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46
Q

MC CT appearance of liver metastases

A

well-defined low-attenuation solid mass w/ vague peripheral enhancement producing a target appearance

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47
Q

MC hypervascular liver metastases

A

carcinoid, choriocarcinoma, melanoma, PNET, pheochromocystoma, RCC, and thyroid ca

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48
Q

MC primary hepatic malignancy

A

hepatoma / hepatocellular carcinoma

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49
Q

2nd MC focal mass lesion in the liver, exceeded in frequency only by mets / MC benign liver lesion

A

cavernous hemangioma

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50
Q

MC associated findings in pyogenic liver abscess

A

biliary obstruction and thrombophlebitis

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51
Q

MC etiologic agent of pyogenic liver abscess

A

E. coli

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52
Q

MC site of hydatid disease

A

liver

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53
Q

Gradual tapering of a dilated duct is seen most commonly with?

A

benign disease such as inflammatory stricture

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54
Q

Most commonly affected part of CBD in autoimmune pancreatitis-associated cholangitis

A

distal part

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55
Q

MCC of gas or contrast material in the biliary tree

A

iatrogenic

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56
Q

MC malignancy of the biliary system

A

gallbladder ca

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57
Q

MC anomaly of the pancreatic ductal system

A

pancreas divisum

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58
Q

Pancreatic calcifications occur most frequently in?

A

chronic pancreatitis because of alcoholism and hereditary pancreatitis

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59
Q

MC region of involvement of autoimmune pancreatitis

A

head or uncinate process

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60
Q

MC pancreatic involvement of lymphoma

A

direct extension from peripancreatic lymphadenopathy

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61
Q

MC lymphomas

A

non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma

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62
Q

MC primary tumors of metastases to the pancreas (unusual)

A

melanoma and ca of the kidney, lung, or breast

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63
Q

MC cystic lesion in and around the pancreas

A

pseudocyst

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64
Q

MC location of serous cystadenomas

A

head

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65
Q

MC location of mucinous cystic neoplasms

A

distal body and tail

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66
Q

MC location of branch-duct IPMNs

A

uncinate process

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67
Q

Most characteristic finding of splenic infarction

A

extension to the splenic capsule

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68
Q

MC malignant tumor of the spleen

A

lymphoma

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69
Q

MC sources of splenic metastases

A

melanoma and lung, breast, and ovarian ca

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70
Q

MC benign neoplasm of the spleen

A

hemangiomas

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71
Q

MC CT appearance of splenic angiosarcoma

A

multiple enhancing nodules w/ irregular and poorly defined contours

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72
Q

Involved lymph nodes in RCC are most common in

A

renal hilum, pericaval, and periaortic regions

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73
Q

Hematogenous mets in RCC are mc in?

A

lung, liver, and bone

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74
Q

MC sites of distant metastases from recurrent RCC

A

lungs, mediastinum, bone, liver, contralateral kidney or adrenal gland, and brain

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75
Q

MC late mets (>10 yrs after surgery) from RCC recurrence

A

lung, pancreas, bone, skeletal muscle, and bowel

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76
Q

Most commonly affected segment by ureteral uroepithelial tumors

A

distal ureter

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77
Q

MC lymphoma types to involve the kidney

A

B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma and Burkitt lymphoma

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78
Q

MC CT appearance of lymphoma

A

multiple bilateral renal masses

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79
Q

MC primary tumors to metastasize to the kidneys

A

lung, breast, and GI adenocarcinomas

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80
Q

MC CT pattern of renal metastasis

A

multiple bilateral low-attenuation renal nodules

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81
Q

Isolated solitary mets is seen most commonly with?

A

colon cancer and melanoma

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82
Q

MC location of multilocular cystic nephroma / simply cystic nephroma

A

upper pole

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83
Q

MC extrapulmonary site of infection of TB

A

urinary tract

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84
Q

MC anomaly of the urinary tract

A

duplication of the ureters

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85
Q

Most phleboliths are found in what veins?

A

perivesical veins, periprostatic veins in men, and periuterine and perivaginal veins in women

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86
Q

MC location of extra-adrenal myelolipomas

A

presacral space and retroperitoneum

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87
Q

MC finding in adrenal involvement by lymphoma

A

total encasement of the adrenal gland by retroperitoneal adenopathy

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88
Q

Most adrenal calcifications in both children and adults are sequelae of?

A

adrenal hemorrhage

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89
Q

Most (90%) pheochromocytoma arise in the?

A

adrenal medulla

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90
Q

MC location of extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas (10%)

A

organ of Zuckerkandl near the origin of the IMA

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91
Q

MC primary tumors of metastases to the adrenal glands

A

lung, breast, and colon adenoca, and melanoma

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92
Q

Most adrenal masses larger than __ cm are malignant.

A

5 cm

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93
Q

MC benign tumor of the esophagus

A

leiomyoma

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94
Q

MCC of nonerosive gastritis

A

H. pylori infection

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95
Q

MC location of wall thickening in gastritis? - often focal

A

antrum

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96
Q

Best CT sign of gastritis

A

thickened gastric folds

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97
Q

Nodes most likely to be involved in gastric ca

A

nodes near the celiac axis and in the gastrohepatic ligaments

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98
Q

MC location of nodal recurrence in gastric ca

A

along the course of the hepatic artery or in the paraaortic

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99
Q

MC mesenchymal tumor

A

GIST

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100
Q

Most GISTs arise in the __________ throughout the GIT.

A

muscularis propria (60-70% stomach, 20-30% small bowel)

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101
Q

MC sites of mets from malignant GIST

A

liver and peritoneal cavity

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102
Q

MC location of gastric varices

A

fundal region

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103
Q

MC location of small bowel lymphomas

A

ileum

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104
Q

MC primary tumors of metastases to the small bowel

A

malignant melanoma and breast, lung, and RCC

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105
Q

Most commonly involved segments in transient intussusception (in small bowels)

A

jejunojejunal

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106
Q

MC malignancy seen in the mesentery

A

lymphoma

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107
Q

MC site of desmoid tumor (mesenteric fibromatosis)

A

mesentery of the small bowel

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108
Q

MCC of acute abdominal pain

A

acute appendicitis

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109
Q

MCC of mucocele

A

obstructing benign or malignant neoplasm of the appendix

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110
Q

MC location of lipomas

A

colon > small bowel > stomach > esophagus and pharynx

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111
Q

Epiploic appendagitis are most numerous in which colonic segment?

A

sigmoid

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112
Q

MCC of occult GI bleeding

A

angiodysplasia

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113
Q

MC sites of hematogenous metastases from bladder carcinoma

A

liver, lungs, bones, and adrenal glands

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114
Q

MC cystitis

A

acute bacterial cystitis (usually E. coli)

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115
Q

MC site of recurrence in cervical ca

A

top of the vaginal cuff

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116
Q

MCC of adnexal torsion

A

benign cystic teratomas, hydrosalpinx, or functional cyst

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117
Q

2nd mc malignancy in males

A

prostate ca

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118
Q

Cysts most commonly found in the prostate gland

A

cysts associated with BPH - usually located laterally

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119
Q

MC pattern of spread in testicular cancer

A

lymphatic spread

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120
Q

MC testicular malignancy in men older than 60 yrs

A

B-cell lymphoma

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121
Q

MC example of a fluid collection originating within the space around the great vessels that can communicate with the retroperitoneum

A

aortic hemorrhage

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122
Q

MC clinical example for pancreaticoduodenal effusions

A

pancreatitis

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123
Q

MC location of esophageal duplication cysts

A

distal esophagus

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124
Q

MC mesencymal tumor of the esophagus / benign tumor of the esophagus

A

leiomyoma

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125
Q

MC benign mucosal neoplasm of the esophagus

A

papillomas

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126
Q

MC location of squamous cell carcinoma in the esophagus

A

proximal and mid

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127
Q

MC location of esophageal adenocarcinoma

A

distal (because assoc w/ chronic GERD)

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128
Q

MC distant metastatic sites of esophageal adenocarcinoma

A

lung and liver

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129
Q

MC metastatic cancer to the esophagus

A

gastric adenoca

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130
Q

Tracheoesophageal fistula is most commonly a complication of?

A

malignancy

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131
Q

MCC of esophageal perforation

A

upper endoscopy (iatrogenic)

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132
Q

MCC of gastric perforation

A

ulcer disease

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133
Q

MC site of traumatic esophageal tears

A

cervical and upper thoracic esophagus

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134
Q

Uphill varices are most commonly seen in the setting of?

A

cirrhosis and portal hypertension

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135
Q

Esophagectomy is most commonly performed for?

A

primary esophageal ca

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136
Q

Reconstruction in esophagectomy is most commonly via a?

A

gastric pullup

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137
Q

MC location for GIST

A

stomach

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138
Q

Majority of benign gastric tumors

A

hyperplastic polyps

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139
Q

MC malignancy in the stomach

A

adenocarcinoma

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140
Q

MC site for lymphoma in the GIT

A

stomach (still a rare disease)

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141
Q

MC site of involvement for primary GI lymphoma

A

stomach

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142
Q

MC gastric infection

A

H. pylori

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143
Q

MC etiology of infection with a gas-performing organism that may cause gastric pneumatosis

A

E. coli

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144
Q

MC causes of emphysematous gastritis

A

caustic ingestion and alcohol abuse

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145
Q

Most commonly performed weight loss surgery because of the increased weight loss when compared to other procedures

A

gastric bypass with Roux-en-Y gastrojejunostomy

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146
Q

Internal hernias w/ increased incidence in laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass are most commonly through the?

A

transverse mesocolon

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147
Q

MC location of duodenal diverticula (most are acquired)

A

2nd and 3rd portions

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148
Q

MC congenital abnormality in the GIT / MC congenital anomaly of the GIT

A

Meckel diverticulum

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149
Q

MC congenital anomaly of the GIT

A

Meckel diverticulum

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150
Q

MC presentation of Meckel diverticulum in the adult

A

obstruction

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151
Q

Small bowel diverticula are more common in the?

A

jejunum

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152
Q

MC benign tumor of the small bowel

A

GIST

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153
Q

MC site of malignant GISTs in the small bowel

A

distal small bowel

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154
Q

MC primary tumor in the small bowel / 2nd MC small-bowel malignancy

A

carcinoid / carcinoid (neuroendocrine) tumor

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155
Q

MC primary tumor of the duodenum

A

adenocarcinoma (rare in the remainder of small bowel)

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156
Q

Up to 70% of small bowel adenoca occur in the?

A

duodenum or jejunum

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157
Q

MC location of adenocarcinoma of the small bowel (rare)

A

duodenum, especially near the ampulla

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158
Q

MC appearance of hematogenous metastases in the small bowel (often from lung ca and melanoma)

A

round masses along the antimesenteric border of the small bowel

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159
Q

Peritoneal carcinomatosis is most commonly seen in?

A

ovarian, colon, gastric, and breast

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160
Q

Account for almost 75% of SBO

A

adhesions > hernias and tumor

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161
Q

2nd MCC of small-bowel obstruction, next to adhesions

A

hernias

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162
Q

MC lesions producing obstruction

A

adhesions, hernias, and intussusception

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163
Q

Strangulation is most commonly seen in the setting of?

A

closed-loop obstruction

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164
Q

MCC of closed-loop obstructions

A

internal hernias or an adhesive band

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165
Q

Mural edema (in vasculitis) can occur throughtout the GIT, most commonly in the?

A

small bowel

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166
Q

MC inflammatory condition of the small bowel

A

Crohn disease

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167
Q

MCC of intramural hematoma of the small bowel (?)

A

overanticoagulation

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168
Q

Most commonly affected site in GIT in patients with amyloidosis

A

small bowel

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169
Q

MC rotational abnormality

A

nonrotation of the bowel

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170
Q

MC benign tumor of the colon and rectum

A

adenoma

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171
Q

2nd MC benign tumor in the colon

A

lipoma

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172
Q

Segment involved in the majority of cavernous hemangioma of the colon

A

rectum

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173
Q

3rd MC cancer / 2nd MCC of cancer death in developed countries

A

colorectal ca

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174
Q

MC primary in metastatic disease involving the colon

A

ovarian (peritoneal seeding) (*hematogenous - lung and breast)

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175
Q

MC appendiceal tumor / MC neoplasm of the appendix

A

carcinoid / carcinoid tumor

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176
Q

MC location of carcinoid (neuroendocrine) tumors

A

appendix (50%) > mesenteric small bowel (20%)

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177
Q

MC location of carcinoid tumor of the appendix

A

distal third (most cause no symptoms)

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178
Q

MC site of diverticulitis

A

sigmoid colon

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179
Q

Most commonly involved site in Crohn colitis

A

right colon and rectum

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180
Q

Most widely accepted terminology in perianal fistulas

A

Parks classification

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181
Q

MCC of ischemic colitis

A

small vessel disease

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182
Q

Ischemic colitis occurs most commonly in the setting of?

A

low cardiac output in a patient with extensive but nonocclusive vascular disease

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183
Q

MC locations affected in ischemic colitis / Most commonly affected segments in ischemic colitis

A

splenic flexure (watershed between SMA and IMA) and rectosigmoid colon (watershed between IMA and inferior hypogastric arteries) / watershed areas at the splenic flexure and rectosigmoid

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184
Q

MCC of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clostridium difficile (in the setting of antibiotic therapy)

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185
Q

Toxic megacolon most commonly occurs in the setting of?

A

ulcerative colitis

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186
Q

Findings of radiation colitis are most commonly seen in the?

A

pelvis (cervical or prostate ca)

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187
Q

Cecum in cecal volvulus lies most often in what quadrant?

A

LUQ

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188
Q

2 MC variations in the hepatic arterial anatomy

A

origin of the left hepatic artery from the left gastric artery and origin of all or some right hepatic artery branches from the SMA

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189
Q

MC site of incomplete accessory hepatic fissures formed by invaginations of the diaphragm

A

right lobe superiorly

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190
Q

MC anomaly of the liver

A

Riedel’s lobe

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191
Q

Most important patient-related factor affecting the magnitude of hepatic ontrast enhancement

A

body weight

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192
Q

2nd MC benign hepatic tumor / Tumor most resembling fibrolamellar HCC

A

FNH

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193
Q

Most specific finding of focal nodular hyperplasia

A

normal or increased radionuclide uptake within the tumor on technetium-99m sulfur colloid-labeled liver scan

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194
Q

Most characteristic feature of an adrenal rest tumor

A

presence of fat

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195
Q

5th MC cancer worldwide / Accounts for 90% of primary malignant hepatic neoplasms

A

HCC (10% - intrahepatic cholangio)

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196
Q

MC pattern of HCC on gross pathology

A

nodular > massive > diffuse/diffusely infiltrating (least common)

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197
Q

Most sensitive pre-operative imaging test for detecting small HCCs / Most sensitive imaging method for pre-op staging of hepatic metastases

A

computed tomography arterial portography (CTAP)

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198
Q

MC enhancement pattern of hepatic metastases in arterial phase imaging

A

continuous ring-like enhancement at the periphery of the lesion

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199
Q

Calcification occurs most commonly in hepatic metastases from what primary?

A

mucinous colon carcinoma

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200
Q

MC complications after tumor ablation

A

pneumothorax, pleural effusion, hepatic abscess, intrahepatic or peritoneal hemorrhage, and bile duct injuries resulting in stricture, fistula, or intrahepatic biloma (less common: segmental hepatic infarction)

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201
Q

MC extraintestinal complication of amebiasis

A

hepatic abscess

202
Q

MC causative organism in fungal microabscesses of the liver / MC causative organism of fungal infection in the liver

A

Candida albicans

203
Q

MCC of microabscesses in the spleen

A

fungal infection (Candida, Pneumocystis jiroveci, Aspergillus, Cryptococcus, Histoplasma)

204
Q

MC site of involvement of hydatid disease

A

liver

205
Q

MC causes of cirrhosis

A

hepatitis C and B infection and excessive alcohol consumption

206
Q

MC physical finding in hemochromatosis / MC hepatic finding in patients with Gaucher disease / MC clinical manifestation of hepatic sarcoidosis / MC CT finding in hepatic sarcoidosis

A

hepatomegaly

207
Q

Secondary hemochromatosis is seen most commonly in?

A

patients with disorders of ineffective erythropoiesis such as thalassemia

208
Q

MCC of hepatitis

A

viral infection

209
Q

Sarcoidosis most commonly involves the?

A

pulmonary parenchyma and the mediastinal and hilar LNs

210
Q

MC abdominal CT findings in patients with hepatosplenic sarcoidosis

A

homogeneous hepatic and splenic enlargement

211
Q

Most frequently involved nodes in abdominal lymphadenopathy seen in sarcoidosis

A

porta hepatis, celiac axis, and paraaortic/paracaval nodes

212
Q

MCC of THAD

A

intrahepatic portal vein thrombosis

213
Q

MC causes of liver infarction

A

liver transplantation and laparoscopic cholecystectomy

214
Q

MC and most severe vascular complication after orthotopic liver transplantation

A

hepatic artery thrombosis

215
Q

MC complication after liver transplantation

A

bile leak (usually at T-tube site)

216
Q

MC sites of recurrence in patients who underwent liver transplantation for HCC or liver mets

A

lungs and liver allograft

217
Q

MC pattern of biliary tract anatomy

A

right anterior + right posterior = right hepatic

218
Q

2nd MC pattern of anatomy variation of the biliary tract

A

right posterior segmental duct empties directly into either CHD or left hepatic duct (3rd MC - almost as common as 2nd MC: right anterior and posterior ducts join the left hepatic duct at a single point)

219
Q

MC gallbladder anomaly

A

Phrygian cap

220
Q

Earliest anatomic change in the biliary tract in response to obstruction

A

increase in diameter of CBD

221
Q

Most commonly involved by pulsatility artifact from the hepatic artery which may simulate stricture

A

CHD and left hepatic duct

222
Q

Approx 70-80% of gallbladder stones are of what variety?

A

cholesterol (remainder: pigment, mixed, and calcium calcium - least common)

223
Q

Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis is most common in?

A

older women

224
Q

MC variant of adenomyomatosis

A

fundal

225
Q

Pathologically, most gallbladder malignancies are?

A

adenocarcinoma

226
Q

MC primary that metastasizes to the gallbladder

A

melanoma

227
Q

Majority of gallbladder carcinomas are?

A

infiltrating (remaining: polypoid)

228
Q

Most common site of gallbladder carcinomas

A

fundus

229
Q

Least common form of gallbladder ca

A

intraluminal mass

230
Q

MC CT appearance of choledocholithiasis

A

high-density calcification within the duct

231
Q

MC causative organism in AIDS cholangiopathy

A

cryptosporidium

232
Q

MC reason for diasgreement between MRCP and ERCP

A

stricture suspected on MRCP that is not identified on ERCP

233
Q

MCC of human helminthic infestation

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

234
Q

MC primary bile duct tumor

A

cholangiocarcinoma (vast majority are adenocarcinomas)

235
Q

Strongest association as predisposing factor for cholangiocarcinoma

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

236
Q

MC type of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma

A

perihilar cholangiocarcinoma / Klatskin tumor

237
Q

MC pattern encountered in peripheral cholangiocarcinomas

A

exophytic form

238
Q

MC benign tumors of the bile ducts

A

biliary adenomas or papillomas (uncommon)

239
Q

MC findings in postoperative biliary complications

A

biliary leak, retained biliary stones, and anastomotic stricture

240
Q

MC site of delayed bile leaks in liver transplantation

A

anastomotic site

241
Q

MC immediate complication in the recipient after liver transplantation

A

biliary leak

242
Q

MC complication when a biliary-enteric anastomosis is performed during living donor liver transplantation

A

biliary stenosis at the anastomosis

243
Q

MC complication of radiofrequency ablation

A

biliary stricture

244
Q

MCC of hematobilia

A

liver biopsy or percutaneous biliary drain placement

245
Q

MC clinical presentation of wandering spleen

A

mass with intermittent abdominal pain

246
Q

MC cardiac anomalies associated with polysplenia

A

ASD, VSD, malposition or transposition of the great vessels, and PS or atresia

247
Q

MCC of splenic cysts (2/3)

A

echinococcal infection

248
Q

MC splenic cyst

A

posttraumatic

249
Q

MC types of benign splenic tumors (uncommon)

A

hemangiomas and lymphangiomas

250
Q

MC benign splenic tumor

A

hemangioma

251
Q

Other structure most commonly involved with echinococcal involvement of the spleen

A

liver

252
Q

MC type of lymphangiomas in the spleen

A

cystic type

253
Q

MC locations of lymphangiomas

A

neck and axilla

254
Q

MC type of lymphangioma in the spleen

A

cystic (other types: capillary, cavernous)

255
Q

MC presenting symptom in primary splenic lymphoma

A

left upper quadrant pain/discomfort

256
Q

MC splenic malignancy

A

lymphoma (secondary splenic involvement in both Hodgkin and NHL)

257
Q

MC pattern of spread of splenic mets

A

hematogenous (direct invasion is unusual but can occur)

258
Q

MC primary sites of splenic metastases

A

breast and lung

259
Q

Primary ca w/c has the highest frequency of splenic involvement on a per primary basis

A

melanoma

260
Q

MC appearance of splenic metastases

A

multiple nodules

261
Q

MC organisms in splenic abscess

A

Staph and Strep

262
Q

MC associated infection in splenic abscess

A

endocarditis

263
Q

MCC of microabscesses in the spleen

A

fungal infection (Candida, Pneumocystis jiroveci, Aspergillus, Cryptococcus, Histoplasma)

264
Q

Gamna-Gandy bodies are most commonly associated with?

A

portal hypertension

265
Q

MC lysosomal storage disease

A

Gaucher disease

266
Q

Accumulation of Gaucher cells (lipid-laden macrophages) occurs most commonly in the?

A

liver, spleen, BM, and to a lesser degree lung

267
Q

MC abdominal visceral artery aneurysm

A

splenic artery aneurysm

268
Q

MC site of splenic artery aneurysm

A

mid to distal third of splenic artery

269
Q

MC entities associated with a symptomatic patient with multiple splenic nodules

A

lymphoma, granulomatous infection, and sarcoid

270
Q

MC entities associated with an asymptomatic patient with multiple splenic nodules

A

sarcoid, benign angiomatous tumor, and metastatic disease

271
Q

Most reliable indicator of pancreatic mass w/ respect to size and shape

A

abrupt focal change (rather than generalized variations from the range of normal dimensions)

272
Q

MC anatomic variant of the human pancreas

A

pancreas divisum

273
Q

Most of the islet cells are located in the __ of the pancreas.

A

tail

274
Q

9th mc malignancy but represents the 4th mcc of cancer-related death

A

cancer of the pancreas

275
Q

Tumor most likely to be spread beyond the organ of origin at diagnosis

A

adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

276
Q

MC sites of metastases from pancreatic adenoca

A

liver > regional LNs > other retroperitoneal and intraperitoneal structures > lungs

277
Q

MC cystic lesion of the pancreas

A

pseudocyst

278
Q

MC of the pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors

A

insulinomas and gastrinomas

279
Q

MC functioning neuroendocrine tumor

A

insulinoma (2nd MC: gastrinoma)

280
Q

MC location of gastrinomas

A

general vicinity of the head of pancreas including the pancreatic head itself, wall of duodenum and stomach, and LNs in an area termed the gastrinoma triangle

281
Q

Perhaps the most difficult neuroendocrine tumor to image

A

insulinoma (due to notoriously small size)

282
Q

MC primary of pancreatic mets

A

melanoma and ca of the breast, lung, kidney, prostate, and GIT

283
Q

MC presentation of pancreatic metastasis

A

single, localized mass

284
Q

Acute pancreatitis is most commonly associated with?

A

choledocholithiasis and ethanol abuse

285
Q

MCC of acute pancreatitis

A

passage of gallstone or alcohol abuse

286
Q

MCC of acute pancreatitis

A

gallstone passage/impaction

287
Q

Most important indicator of disease severity in acute pancreatitis

A

extent of pancreatic necrosis

288
Q

Smooth or beaded dilatation of the main pancreatic duct is most commonly associated with?

A

carcinoma (irregular dilatation - chronic pancreatitis)

289
Q

Pancreatico-pleural fistulas are most often associated with?

A

chronic alcoholic pancreatitis

290
Q

2nd mcc exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in children (MC: CF)

A

Schwachman-Diamond syndrome

291
Q

MCC of duodenal perforation during ERCP

A

endoscopic sphincterotomy

292
Q

MCC of pancreatic graft loss in the immediate perioperative period

A

vascular thrombosis

293
Q

MC finding in posttransplantation lymphoproliferative disorder

A

diffuse enlargement of the allograft

294
Q

MC type of external abdominal hernia / More common inguinal hernia

A

indirect inguinal hernia (lateral to inferior epigastric vessels)

295
Q

MC location of abdominal wall hematomas

A

sheath of the rectus abdominis muscle (MCC: anticoagulant therapy)

296
Q

MCC of inflammation in the abdominal wall

A

infection (MC: post-operative wound infection)

297
Q

MC location of desmoid tumors

A

musculoaponeurotic fascia of the anterior abdominal wall, usually in the rectus abdominis and internal oblique muscles and their fascial coverings

298
Q

MC primary malignant neoplasms of the abdominal wall

A

sarcomas

299
Q

Most dependent part of the subhepatic space

A

hepatorenal fossa / Morison’s pouch

300
Q

MC site of blood accumulation on CT after upper abdominal trauma

A

Morison’s pouch

301
Q

Most dependent peritoneal recess in the upper abdomen / MC site of blood collection seen on CT in upper abdominal trauma

A

Morison’s pouch / hepatorenal fossa / posterior subhepatic space

302
Q

MC lesser sac collection

A

ascites

303
Q

Most dependent portion of the peritoneal cavity in both the erect and supine position

A

pelvis - consists of lateral paravesical spaces and the midline pouch of Douglas (rectovaginal space in women, rectovesical space in men)

304
Q

MC sites of pooling of infected peritoneal fluid and thus for abscess formation

A

pelvis, right subhepatic space, and right subphrenic space

305
Q

MC sites for pooling of malignant ascites and subsequent fixation and growth of peritoneal metastases

A

pouch of Douglas, lower small bowel mesentery near the ileocecal junction, sigmoid mesocolon, and right paracolic gutter

306
Q

MC primary neoplasms that spread by intraperitoneal seeding

A

adenoca of the ovary, colon, stomach, and pancreas

307
Q

MCC of intaabdominal abscess

A

surgery (particularly that involving the stomach, biliary tract, and colon) - dati, perforated ulcer, appendicits, and biliary tract disease

308
Q

Most accurate single imaging test for diagnosing intra-abdominal abscess

A

CT

309
Q

MC procedures to cause lymphoceles

A

renal transplantation and retroperitoneal LN dissection

310
Q

MCC of diffuse mesenteric edema

A

hypoalbuminemia

311
Q

MCC of bowel loop separation in Crohn disease

A

fibrofatty mesenteric proliferation

312
Q

MC CT finding in patients w/ diverticulitis

A

inflammation of the pericolonic fat

313
Q

MC CT feature of tuberculous peritonitis

A

lymphadenopathy, predominantly in the mesenteric and peripancreatic areas

314
Q

MC common site of origin of mesenteric cysts/lymphangiomas

A

small bowel mesentery

315
Q

Most commonly recognized radiographic manifestation of Whipple disease

A

thickening of the valvulae conniventes of the small bowel

316
Q

MC site of metastases from desmoplastic round cell tumor of the abdomen

A

liver

317
Q

MC malignant neoplasms involving the peritoneum

A

metastatic ca and lymphoma

318
Q

MCC of extensive neoplastic infiltration of the omentum

A

metastatic ovarian ca

319
Q

Calcified peritoneal carcinomatosis is most commonly assoc w/?

A

serous adenocarcinoma of the ovary, colon, or stomach

320
Q

MCC of calcified omental or peritoneal mets from ovarian ca

A

serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma (histo: psammomatous calcifications)

321
Q

Rounded masses (one of the 4 general CT patterns of mesenteric involvement by intraperitoneally disseminated tumor) are seen most commonly with?

A

NHL

322
Q

Irregular ill-defined and cake-like massea are seen most often with?

A

ovarian ca

323
Q

MC neoplasms to spread as tumor emboli via the mesenteric arteries to the antimesenteric border of bowel where the cells implant and subsequently grow into intramural tumor nodules

A

melanoma and ca of the breast or lung

324
Q

MC site of PAUs

A

descending thoracic aorta

325
Q

Strongest risk factor in the development of AAA

A

smoking history

326
Q

MCC of occlusion and stenosis of the aorta or its primary branches

A

atherosclerotic change

327
Q

(In the USA) MCC of AAAs

A

atherosclerosis

328
Q

MC agent to cause mycotic aneurysms

A

bacteria, MC: Staph aureus

329
Q

MC causative organism in infected aneurysms

A

Salmonella

330
Q

MC site of atherosclerotic aneurysms / Location of vast majority of AAA

A

infrarenal aorta

331
Q

MC location of ruptured AAA

A

posterolateral

332
Q

In over half of cases, what is the involved bowel segment in (primary?) aortoenteric fistula

A

distal duodenum

333
Q

MC symptom of aortoenteric fistula

A

massive GI hemorrhage

334
Q

MCC of aortocaval fistulae

A

rupture of AAA into the adjacent IVC

335
Q

In the vast majority of cases, dissection begins where? / Most dissections begin in what segment of the aorta?

A

thoracic aorta

336
Q

Most serious complication of abdominal aortic graft surgery

A

graft infection

337
Q

Pseudothrombus artifact (flow) is most noticeable in the?

A

suprarenal cava

338
Q

MC location of IVC tumors

A

middle or lower section of the IVC below the hepatic veins

339
Q

MC growth pattern of IVC tumors

A

extraluminal

340
Q

MC solid tumor in men 15-34 yo

A

testicular neoplasms

341
Q

MC carcinomas assoc w/ retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy

A

testicular, prostatic, cervical, endometrial, and renal

342
Q

Most commonly involved area in retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

between the renal hila and the pelvic brim

343
Q

MC retroperitoneal ST tumors

A

lipoma and liposarcoma

344
Q

MC type of lipogenic (?) retroperitoneal tumors

A

myxoid tumors

345
Q

2nd MC type of retroperitoneal sarcoma

A

leiomyosarcoma (3rd MC: malignant fibrous histiocytoma)

346
Q

MC site of extragonadal GCTs

A

mediastinum (2nd MC: retroperitoneum)

347
Q

MC variant in renal venous drainage / MC variant of anomalous renal vein

A

circumaortic left renal vein - 2 tributaries of left renal vein encircle the aorta

348
Q

2nd MC variant in renal venous drainage / 2nd MC variant of anomalous renal vein

A

retroaortic left renal vein

349
Q

MC renal ectopia w/o fusion

A

pelvic kidney

350
Q

MC renal fusion anomaly

A

horseshoe kidney

351
Q

Most urinary calculi are? / MC urinary stones

A

calcium stones / calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate stones

352
Q

MC neoplasm which may occur in the horseshoe kidney

A

RCC

353
Q

More common laterality in crossed fused ectopia

A

right

354
Q

More common laterality in thoracic kidneys

A

left

355
Q

Slightly more common laterality in renal agenesis

A

left

356
Q

Slightly more common laterality in emphysematous pyelonephritis

A

left

357
Q

Slightly more common laterality in renal vein thrombosis

A

left - longer course of the left renal vein

358
Q

Characteristics of stone which are most reliable predictors of outcome

A

size and position

359
Q

MC site of milk of calcium? / MC cystic structure where milk of calcium is seen

A

calyceal diverticulum

360
Q

MC calcified renal mass / MC calcified enhancing mass

A

RCC

361
Q

Most commonly seen calcified old hematoma

A

lenticular subcapsular calcified lesion

362
Q

MC renal mass in the adult / Most small renal masses are

A

cyst / simple cysts

363
Q

Least common renal manifestation of TS

A

lymphangioleiomyomatosis (fluid-attenuating perinephric masses)

364
Q

MC benign tumor of the kidney

A

angiomyolipoma

365
Q

MC complication of angiomyolipoma

A

hemorrhage

366
Q

Presentation of the mc phenotype of vHL disease / MC renal lesions in vHL

A

retinal and CNS hemangioblastomas, renal cysts and cancers, and pancreatic cysts but not with pheochromocytoma

367
Q

Most sensitive technique for characterizing renal enhancement

A

CT (MRI - more sensitive for IVC thrombosis/IVC wall invasion)

368
Q

MC RCC type in acquired cystic disease

A

papillary RCC

369
Q

2nd MC renal neoplasm in adults

A

TCC

370
Q

2nd MC etiology of urothelial tumors

A

squamous cell ca (assoc w/ inflamm, nephrolithiasis, and leukoplakia)

371
Q

Initial detection of a urothelial lesion in a symptomatic patient has been most often made by

A

IV urography

372
Q

MC appearance of TCC on CT

A

small, hypodense lesion in the renal collecting system

373
Q

MC type of presentation of renal lymphoma

A

multiple focal renal lesions

374
Q

MC CT appearance of renal lymphoma in childhood

A

multiple bilateral nodules

375
Q

MC primary sites for renal mets excluding lymphoma and leukemia

A

lung, colon, and breast ca; melanoma; and reproductive organ malignancies such as testicular or ovarian ca

376
Q

MC appearance of renal metastatic disease

A

multifocal small renal masses

377
Q

Hemorrhagic renal mets are most closely associated with?

A

melanoma (other causes: pheochromo and leimyosarcoma)

378
Q

MC type of renal sarcoma

A

leiomyosarcoma

379
Q

Mets from Wilms tumor most commonly involve the?

A

lungs

380
Q

Malignant tumors of childhood that most frequently metastasize to the liver

A

Wilms tumor, neuroblastoma, and lymphoma

381
Q

MC syndrome associated with angiomyolipomas

A

tuberous sclerosis

382
Q

Most severe form of emphysematous pyelonephritis

A

parenchymal gas in a nonfunctioning kidney w/ no associated fluid (least severe: gas in the collecting system w/ no fluid)

383
Q

MCC of renal abscess

A

breakdown and coalescence of microabscesses due to acute pyelonephritis that is inadequately treated

384
Q

MC combination of renal TB findings on CT

A

hydronephrosis or hydrocalicoses with parenchymal scarring

385
Q

MC etiologic agent in malacoplakia

A

E. coli

386
Q

Most commonly injured urinary tract organ

A

kidney (MCC: MVA)

387
Q

MC grade in renal trauma

A

Grade 1

388
Q

MCC of renal artery aneurysms

A

medial fibroplasia / fibromuscular dysplasia (or atherosclerosis - 2nd MC?)

389
Q

MC locations of renal artery aneurysms

A

1st or 2nd branching of the main renal artery / branch points (MC type: saccular)

390
Q

MCC of arteriovenous communications in kidneys

A

iatrogenic (or penetrating trauma in the form of AVF)

391
Q

Renal vein thrombosis most commonly occurs in patients with?

A

nephrotic syndrome (esp that caused by membranous glomerulonephritis) and lupus

392
Q

MC complication after biopsy

A

localized hemorrhage in the retroperitoneal space

393
Q

Most severe of complications in the adjacent organs for CT-guided renal biopsy

A

perforation of the colon

394
Q

Most severe of all complications in renal transplants

A

renal artery thrombosis (extremely rare) - best imaged by ultrasosund in the emergent setting

395
Q

MC complications of ablation procedures

A

hematoma, pain, and paresthesia at the skin where the needle is placed

396
Q

MC appearance of adrenal hyperplasia

A

both adrenals are smoothly thickened

397
Q

MC endocrine disorder produced by adrenal carcinomas

A

Cushing syndrome

398
Q

MC appearance of adrenal carcinomas

A

large, irregularly shaped, heterogeneous masses in the adrenal region

399
Q

Most of the homogeneous adrenal masses w/ a nonenhanced CT attenuation value of 10 HU or less will be?

A

adenomas / lipid-rich adrenal adenoma (small fraction will be cysts)

400
Q

MC sources of adrenal metastases

A

lung and breast ca

401
Q

Most cost-effective method for screening and following patients with adrenal malignancies

A

CT

402
Q

MC type of adrenal cysts (rare)

A

endothelial cyst

403
Q

MC type of adrenal cysts that are detected by CT

A

pseudocyst - lack an endothelial lining; most often a sequela of remote adrenal hemorrhage

404
Q

MC chronic granulomatous diseases causing adrenal inflammation

A

TB and histoplasmosis

405
Q

MC appearance of granulomatous disease of the adrenals

A

bilateral enlargement of the adrenals

406
Q

MC presentation of active adrenal histoplasmosis

A

mild to marked symmetrical enlargement of both adrenals, w/c retain the noraml shape

407
Q

MC adrenal hemorrhage

A

neonatal hemorrhage - large fetal adrenal is prone to injury during birth trauma

408
Q

Lateral most soft tissue structures within the pelvis

A

psoas and iliacus muscles

409
Q

2 most important pulse sequences in the evaluation of benign gynecologic disease

A

sagittal and axial T2 that encompass the uterus and ovaries

410
Q

MC mullerian anomalies

A

those due to in utero exposure to DES

411
Q

2nd mc uterine anomaly

A

septate uterus

412
Q

MC group of fibroids using T2-weighted MRI and depending on their degree of cellularity

A

ordinary fibroids - relatively homogeneous low T2 (composed of collagenous material)

413
Q

Laterality of most asymptomatic dermoids smaller than 4 cm

A

left

414
Q

MC of the gynecologic malignancies / Gynecologic malignancy with the best prognosis

A

endometrial ca

415
Q

MC invasive gynecologic malignancy

A

carcinoma of the endometrium (90% are endometrioid adenocarcinomas)

416
Q

Preferred exam for staging of ovarian ca

A

CT

417
Q

MCC of fetal death

A

maternal death (2nd MC: placental abruption)

418
Q

MC indication of fetal MRI

A

myelomeningocele

419
Q

Most significant prostate cancers occur along the?

A

posterior portion of the gland at the 5 and 7 o’clock positions

420
Q

Majority of testicular tumors

A

mixed cell type with seminoma predominant

421
Q

Large lymphoceles most commonly occur following?

A

cystectomy or prostatectomy

422
Q

Accounts for the majority of injuries

A

blunt trauma aka wide impact trauma

423
Q

MCC of blunt trauma

A

MVAs

424
Q

Most commonly involved in multisystem trauma

A

extremities > head > chest > abdomen > pelvis

425
Q

Most useful finding in esophageal perforation

A

extraesophageal air

426
Q

Most frequently affected organ in blunt abdominal trauma

A

spleen

427
Q

2nd most frequently injured organ in blunt abdominal trauma / MC abdominal injury leading to death

A

liver

428
Q

MC location of splenic clefts - can mimic laceration

A

superomedial aspect of the spleen

429
Q

Most devastation of the infections after splenectomy

A

overwhelming postsplenectomy sepsis

430
Q

Most frequently involved site of traumatic liver injury

A

right lobe, particularly the posterior segment - readily accessible to blunt impact from the ribs and spine

431
Q

MC liver injury

A

lacerations

432
Q

MC location of subcapsular hematomas

A

parietal surface of the liver, particularly along the anterolateral aspect of the right lobe

433
Q

Gallbladder injury is usually assoc w/ injuries to other organs, most commonly the?

A

liver, spleen, and duodenum

434
Q

MC CT finding in traumatic injury to the GB

A

pericholecystic fluid

435
Q

MC location of pancreatic fractures

A

pancreatic neck or body where the pancreas overlies the spine

436
Q

Most commonly involved in bowel injuries

A

duodenum, usually the 2nd or 3rd portions

437
Q

Bowel segments most commonly injured

A

proximal part of jejunum near the ligament of Treitz, and distal part of ileum near the ileocecal valve

438
Q

MC site of pneumoperitoneum

A

subdiaphragmatic area, along the anterior peritoneal surfaces of the liver and spleen

439
Q

Most informative radiologic study in renal trauma

A

CT

440
Q

MCC of ureteral injury

A

iatrogenic trauma secondary to surgical procedures

441
Q

Most reported cases of ureteral trauma are?

A

hyperextension injuries sustained by children in motor vehicle collisions

442
Q

MC primary malignant renal tumor of childhood

A

Wilms tumor

443
Q

MC malignant abdominal tumor in children

A

neuroblastoma

444
Q

MCC of an adrenal mass in the neonate

A

hemorrhage - due to birth trauma, septicemia, or hypoxia

445
Q

MC adrenal tumor other than neuroblastoma

A

carcinoma (followed by adenoma) - rare in childhood

446
Q

MC malignant tumor of the retroperitoneum

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

447
Q

MC solid abdominal mass in children, following Wilms tumor and neuroblastoma

A

primary hepatic tumor (2/3 are malignant, with hepatoblastoma (<3yo) and HCC (older children) accounting for the majority)

448
Q

3rd mc primary malignant hepatic tumor in children after hepatoblastoma and HCC

A

undifferentiated embryonal sarcoma / mesenchymal sarcoma / embryonal sarcoma / malignant mesenchymoma

449
Q

Malignant tumors of childhood that most frequently metastasize to the liver

A

Wilms tumor, neuroblastoma, and lymphoma

450
Q

Majority of the benign hepatic tumors in children

A

vascular, usually hemangioendothelioma

451
Q

After the vascular lesions, the next mc benign hepatic tumor of childhood

A

mesenchymal hamartoma

452
Q

MC mass arising in the biliary ductal tree

A

choledochal cyst

453
Q

MC malignant neoplasm of the biliary tract in children

A

rhabdomyosarcoma of the biliary tract ( rare)

454
Q

MC site of origin of biliary tract rhabdomyosacromas

A

porta hepatis

455
Q

MC exocrine pancreatic neooplasm in young children

A

pancreaticoblastoma

456
Q

MC exocrine tumor in adolescents

A

solid and papillary epithelial neoplasm of the pancreas

457
Q

MC splenic neoplasm in children

A

lymphoma

458
Q

MC GI/mesentric masses

A

lymphangiomatous malformations aka mesenteric cysts, and enteric duplications

459
Q

MC malignant neoplasm of the bowel and mesentery

A

lymphoma

460
Q

Intra-abdominal lymphoma most often affects the?

A

retroperitoneal and mesenteric LNs, bowel, and mesentery

461
Q

MC causes of abdominal abscesses in children

A

appendicits, Crohn disease, and/or postop complications

462
Q

Most commonly injured abdominal organ

A

liver > spleen, kidney, adrenal gland, and pancreas

463
Q

MCC of acute pancreatitis in childhood

A

blunt abdominal trauma

464
Q

MC inflammatory condition affecting the small bowel in children

A

Crohn disease

465
Q

Aneurysms occur most frequently in association with?

A

Marfan syndrome, collagen vascular diseases, sepsis, or trauma

466
Q

MC ovarian masses in infant and adolescent girls

A

nonneoplastic functional cysts (resulting from exaggerated development of follicular or corpus luteum cysts)

467
Q

MC pediatric ovarian neoplams

A

mature teratomas or dermoid cysts

468
Q

MC malignant ovarian neoplasms

A

GCTs (dysgerminoma, immature teratoma, endodermal sinus tumor, embryonal ca, and choriocarcinoma)

469
Q

MCC of vaginal or uterine enlargement

A

hydrocolpos or hydrometrocolpos

470
Q

MC malignant uterine and vaginal tumor in childhood

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

471
Q

Accounts for most neoplasms of bladder and prostate in children

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

472
Q

MC presacral masses

A

sacrococcygeal teratoma, neuroblastoma, anterior meningocele, and lymphoma

473
Q

MC location of anterior meningoceles

A

sacral region and lumbosacral junction

474
Q

MC malignant lesion in the nasopharynx

A

nasopharyngeal ca

475
Q

2 most important interactions of the deep spaces and the skull base

A

parotid space - stylomastoid foramen - CN VII; masticator space - foramen ovale - CN V3

476
Q

MC lesion primary to the pharyngeal mucosal space

A

squamous cell carcinoma

477
Q

2nd MC malignancy of the PMS

A

non-Hodgkin lymphoma

478
Q

MC lesions of the masticator space

A

odontogenic abscess and sarcomatous tumors

479
Q

MC lesion seen in the MS

A

odontogenic abscess

480
Q

MCC of MS abscess

A

seeding from infected teeth or following dental manipulation

481
Q

MC salivary gland tumor (Som)

A

adenoid cystic ca > pleomorphic adenoma > mucoepidermoid ca > adenoca NOS > acinic cell ca > ca ex-pleomorphic adenoma > oncocytoma

482
Q

MC salivary tumors (Lee)

A

pleomorphic adenoma

483
Q

If calcification is seen within a salivary gland mass, most often the lesion is? / MC parotid mass w/ ossification

A

pleomorphic adenoma

484
Q

MC salivary gland cystic masses in adults

A

Warthin’s tumors or AIDS-related parotid cysts

485
Q

MC salivary gland neoplasm in children

A

hemangioma

486
Q

MC (salivary gland) tumors in the pediatric age group

A

hemangiomas > pleomorphic adenomas > mucoepidermoid ca > lymphanhiomatous tumors > acinic cell ca > undiff ca

487
Q

Overall, 3rd MC minor salivary gland neoplasm

A

pleomorphic adenoma

488
Q

MC benign tumor found in the parotid space / Make up almost 80% of parotid neoplasms

A

benign mixed tumor / pleomorphic adenoma

489
Q

In most cases a pedunculated lesion of the parotid tail presenting as an angle of mandible mass (mass in the posterior SMS) will be?

A

either benign mixed or Warthin’s tumor

490
Q

2nd MC benign tumor of the PS / 2nd mc benign tumor arising in the parotid gland after BMT

A

Warthin’s tumor

491
Q

MC salivary gland tumor to present w/ multifocal or bilateral involvement / When multiple lesions are seen either in one parotid gland or bilaterally, the most likely dx is?

A

Warthin’s tumor

492
Q

Harns: 2nd MC multiple or bilateral parotid tumor (behind Warthin’s tumor) / Som: 3rd MC bilateral salivary gland tumor after Warthin’s tumor and pleomorphic adenoma

A

acinic cell ca

493
Q

MC malignant (salivary gland) tumor to present bilaterally

A

acinic cell ca

494
Q

2nd MC malignant salivary gland neoplasm of childhood

A

acinic cell ca

495
Q

MC malignant tumor found in the parotid space / MC malignant lesion of the parotid gland / MC malignant parotid tumor in children

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

496
Q

MC site of origin of salivary duct ca

A

parotid gland

497
Q

MC site of acinic cell carcinoma

A

parotid gland (2nd MC: minor salivary glands)

498
Q

MC malignant tumor seen in the submandibular gland / MC malignancy in the submandibular gland

A

adenoid cystic ca (submandibular gland malignancy is rare)

499
Q

MC location of adenoid cystic carcinomas

A

parotid gland, submandibular gland, and palate

500
Q

MC type of malignant minor salivary gland tumor / MC malignant salivary gland tumor to arise in children and adolescents under 20

A

mucoepidermoid ca