Most common 5 Flashcards

LS

1
Q

MC deep space abscesses in children

A

peritonsillar abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most infections that results in PPS abscess arise in?

A

palatine tonsil or pharynx or odontogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Statistically, the mc masses in the PPS

A

hyperplastic or metastatic level II LNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MC primary neoplasms to arise in the PPS

A

those of salivary gland origin (almost all are pleomorphic adenomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Site of origin of the 2nd mc benign PPS lesion

A

arise in extraparotid salivary rests in the prestyloid compartment fat (also predominantly pleomorphic adenoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Account for most malignancies affecting PPS

A

malignant tumors arising from the pharyngeal mucosal minor salivary glands and NPCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most commonly affected in malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors of the head and neck

A

CNs, large cervical nerves, sympathetic chain, and inferior alveolar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MC form of paragangliomas (in the PPS)

A

glomus vagale tumor - arises from the paraganglionic cells about the nodose ganglion (2nd MC: carotid body tumor; 3rd MC: glomus jugulare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MC type of paragangliomas

A

carotid body tumors > glomus jugular and glomus vagale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Tumors most often embolized preop

A

glomus jugulare and vagale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MC cellular lesions to involve the PPS

A

NPCA and oropharyngeal ca - adults; rhabdomyosarcomas or lymphomas - children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mets from distant primary tumors to the PPS com most commonly from?

A

kidney and thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most immediately life-threatening of all the masses in the PPS

A

aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MC reflex cardiovascular syndromes linked to CN IX

A

carotid sinus syndrome and glossopharyngeal neuralgia-asystole syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MC intracranial neoplasm to extend into the PPS

A

meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most commonly affected muscle in masticator muscle hypertrophy / MC form of masticator hypertrophy

A

masseter muscles / masseteric hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MC abnormality in the sublingual glands

A

ranula (obstructed mucocele)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MCC of viral parotitis / MC of all salivary gland diseases

A

mumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MC location of gummas in tertiary syphilis in the head and neck

A

palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MC location of minor salivary gland calculi (rare)

A

upper lip and buccal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MC ductal foreign bodies

A

vegetable products such as grass seeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MC site for a sialocyst

A

submandibular gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MC form of a ranula

A

simple ranula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MCC of ranulas

A

trauma (including surgery) or obstruction of the sublingual salivary gland or its ductal elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most commonly associated with facial nerve paralysis/tumor invasion

A

parotid undifferentiated ca > SCCa > ACC > adenoca > mucoepidermoid ca > ca ex pleomorhic adenoma > ACC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

2nd mc upper lip salivary gland tumor after BMT

A

canalicular adeboma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MC site of canalicular adenoma

A

upper lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MC neoplasms metastasizing to the major salivary gland area

A

SCC and malignant melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MC sites of origin of parotid mets from known nonhead and nonneck primary sites

A

lung, kidney, and breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Majority of malignancies metastasizing to the submandibular gland originate in?

A

infraclavicular sites, most commonly breast, kidney, and lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

2nd MC benign mesenchymal neoplasm after vascular/lymphatic tumors

A

neurogenic tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pyramidal lobe is most commonly recognized in patients w/?

A

Graves’ disease

33
Q

MC patterns of EOM involvement in thyroid disease

A

IR, both IR and MR, all

34
Q

MC condition that causes marked enlargement of the thyroid gland

A

multinodular goiter

35
Q

MC type of functioning ectopic thyroid tissue

A

lingual thyroid gland at the base of the tongue

36
Q

MC location of intratracheal thyroid ectopia

A

at or just below the cricoid cartilage

37
Q

MC of the autoimmune disorders

A

Graves’ disease

38
Q

MC functioning or hot thyroid nodules reflecting benign conditions

A

adenomas or hyperplasia

39
Q

MC thyroid ca

A

papillary

40
Q

MCC of thyroid mets found at autopsy

A

lung and breast ca

41
Q

MCC of thyroid mets detected clinically

A

renal ca

42
Q

MC presentation of parathyroid pathology

A

primary hyperparathyroidism resulting in hypercalcemia

43
Q

MC anatomic location of the upper parathyroid glands

A

posterior to the middle 1/3 of the thyroid gland

44
Q

MC anatomic location of the lower parathyroid glands

A

lateral to the lower pole of the thyroid gland (2nd MC: 1cm below the lower thyroid pole)

45
Q

MC location of parathyroid adenomas

A

inferior poles of the thyroid glands

46
Q

Most accurate and cost-effective means to detect parathyroid adenomas

A

sestamibi scintigraphy as a single study

47
Q

Parathyroid cysts, like adenomas, most commonly arise in the?

A

inferior parathyroid glands (95% of these occur below the level of the inferior thyroid border

48
Q

Buccal space is most commonly involved w/?

A

infection

49
Q

MC sites for saccular aneurysms

A

ACoA and ICA-PCoA junction (others: MCA bifurcation, basilar tip)

50
Q

MC ruptured saccular aneurysm that may present with focal lobar hemorrhage

A

ACoA aneurysm (projecting superolaterally and rupturing into the frontal lobe)

51
Q

MC location of hypertensive hemorrhage/ICH

A

putamen/external capsule (2nd mc: thalamus, 3rd mc: pons and cerebellum)

52
Q

MCC of tumor-associated temporal lobe epilepsy

A

ganglioglioma

53
Q

MCC of temporal lobe epilepsy

A

mesial temporal sclerosis

54
Q

MC overall cause of a large, bulky, heterogeneous hemispheric mass in an infant

A

teratoma

55
Q

MC congenital brain neoplasms

A

teratoma, astrocytoma, craniopharyngioma, PNET, choroid plexus papilloma

56
Q

MC dura-based neoplasm in children

A

meningioma (although rare in children)

57
Q

MC secreting adenoma

A

prolactinoma (Osborn: 2 MC pituitary adenomas - prolactinoma and GH)

58
Q

MC intracranial site of schwannomas

A

vestibular (CN VIII) > trigeminal (CN V) > jugular foramen (CN XI, X, XI) > facial (CN VII) > hypoglossal (CN XII) (VIII at V lang malakas, rare na sa iba)

59
Q

MC locations of nonvestibular schwannomas of NF2

A

trigeminal and oculomotor nerves (V and III)

60
Q

MC site of schwannomas

A

skin and SC tissues

61
Q

MC location/s for intracranial lipomas

A

interhemispheric fissure

62
Q

MC infratentorial/posterior fossa site of lipomas

A

CPA cistern

63
Q

MC NOSOCOMIAL fungal infection worldwide

A

Candidiasis

64
Q

MC ruptured saccular aneurysm that may present with focal lobar hemorrhage

A

ACoA aneurysm (projecting superolaterally and rupturing into the frontal lobe)

65
Q

MCC of tumor-associated temporal lobe epilepsy

A

ganglioglioma

66
Q

2 mc long-term epilepsy-associated tumors

A

ganglioglioma and DNET

67
Q

MCC of temporal lobe epilepsy

A

mesial temporal sclerosis

68
Q

MC congenital brain neoplasms

A

teratoma, astrocytoma, craniopharyngioma, PNET, choroid plexus papilloma

69
Q

MC congenital astrocytoma

A

glioblastoma

70
Q

MC dura-based neoplasm in children

A

meningioma (although rare in children)

71
Q

MC location of subependymoma

A

frontal horn of the lateral ventricle, near the foramen of Monro, where they are often attached to the septi pellucidi (2nd mc 4th ventricle) [Note: pero sa box, posterior fossa (4th ventricle) > supratentorial (frontal horn) !!!]

72
Q

MC intracranial site of schwannomas

A

vestibular (CN VIII) > trigeminal (CN V) > jugular foramen (CN IX, X, XI) > facial (CN VII) > hypoglossal (CN XII) (VIII at V lang malakas, rare na sa iba)

73
Q

MC locations of nonvestibular schwannomas of NF2

A

trigeminal and oculomotor nerves (V and III)

74
Q

MC of all the pure motor nerve schwannomas

A

CN III (MC location: interpeduncular cistern)

75
Q

MC jugural foramen schwannoma

A

glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

76
Q

MC site of schwannomas

A

skin and SC tissues

77
Q

MC of all soft tissue tumors

A

ordinary lipoma

78
Q

MC location of intracranial lipomas / MC intracranial site of lipomas

A

interhemispheric fissure

79
Q

MC nosocomial fungal infection worldwide

A

Candidiasis