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Most common > Most common 4 > Flashcards

Most common 4 Flashcards

LS

1
Q

MC malignant tumor found in the parotid space / MC malignant lesion of the parotid gland / MC malignant parotid tumor in children

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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2
Q

MC site of origin of salivary duct ca

A

parotid gland

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3
Q

MC site of acinic cell carcinoma

A

parotid gland (2nd MC: minor salivary glands)

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4
Q

MC malignant tumor seen in the submandibular gland / MC malignancy in the submandibular gland

A

adenoid cystic ca (submandibular gland malignancy is rare)

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5
Q

MC location of adenoid cystic carcinomas

A

parotid gland, submandibular gland, and palate

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6
Q

MC type of malignant minor salivary gland tumor / MC malignant salivary gland tumor to arise in children and adolescents under 20

A

mucoepidermoid ca

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7
Q

3rd MC sinonasal maligancy of the minor salivary glands after ACC and adenoca

A

mucoepidermoid ca

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8
Q

MC site of mucoepidermoid ca in minor salivary glands

A

palate

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9
Q

MC location of minor salivary gland tumors

A

palate and upper lip region

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10
Q

MC implicated etiologic factor for mucoepidermoid ca

A

radiation

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11
Q

2 epithelial tumors accounting for 50% of all lacrimal gland tumors

A

BMT and adenoid cystic ca

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12
Q

MC malignant tumor in the lacrimal gland

A

adenocystic ca

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13
Q

2nd MC malignant tumor of the trachea after squamous ca

A

adenoid cystic ca

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14
Q

2nd MC malignancy of the parotid gland

A

adenocystic ca

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15
Q

2 most commonly encountered tumors of the carotid space

A

paraganglioma and schwannoma

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16
Q

3 MC lesions of the CS

A

paraganglioma (glomus jugulare, vagale or carotid body tumor), schwannoma usually vagal, squamous cell carcinoma nodal mets

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17
Q

Retropharyngeal space lesions involving the entire space are most commonly?

A

abscesses (that have broken out of retropharyngeal space supporative nodes) and extranodal squamous cell carcinoma

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18
Q

By far the 2 MC lesions seen in the perivertebral space

A

abscesses from vertebral body osteomyelitis and metastatic tumor that spreads from the adjacent vertebral body

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19
Q

Most commonly seen lesions in the lateral retropharyngeal nodal chain

A

inflammatory nodal disease and nodal tumors (SCC, NHL, and other mets)

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20
Q

MC example of malignant tumor breaking out of their space of origin and invading the PPS

A

SCCa of the pharyngeal mucosal space of the nasopharynx and oropharynx (invading laterally into the adjacent PPS)

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21
Q

MC error made when interpreting images of the PMS area

A

labeling normal asymmetry as tumor

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22
Q

Most commonly involved component in the pharyngeal ring hypertrophy/hyperplasia

A

adenoid component

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23
Q

MC secondary infection of the PPS

A

pharyngitis progressing to PMS abscess

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24
Q

MC location of posintflammatory calcification / calcification in the PMS

A

faucial tonsil

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25
Q

Largest muscle of mastication

A

masseter

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26
Q

MCC of the acquired form of benign masseteric hypertrophy

A

bruxism (nocturnal molar grinding)

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27
Q

Best plane to ensure the visualization of the parotid duct

A

parallel to the hard plate

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28
Q

MC connective tissue disease in Sjogren’s syndrome

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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29
Q

Single most important nerve within the CS

A

vagus nerve

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30
Q

Most commonly involved peripheral nerves by schwannoma

A

cervical spinal roots, vagus nerve, and sympathetic plexus

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31
Q

MC primary site of SCCa that spreads into the nodes of the RPS

A

nasopharyngeal mucosal space

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32
Q

MCC of retropharyngeal nodal tumor

A

SCCa nodal metastasis

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33
Q

In the urban enviroment MCC of vertebral body infection, especially in young patients

A

tuberculosis

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34
Q

MCC of bacterial osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus (2nd MCC: Enterobacter sp)

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35
Q

MC locations of minor salivary glands in the OC

A

inner surface of the lip, buccal mucosa, and palate

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36
Q

MC lesion requiring imaging in the mucosal area of the OC / MC malignancy of the mucosal area of the OC / MC malignancy in the SLS

A

SCCa

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37
Q

MC task in the mucosal area of the OC required of the radio

A

staging of SCCa

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38
Q

MC origin of all branchial cleft anomalies / Of all branchial cleft anomalies, 95% arise from the?

A

remnant of the 2nd branchial apparatus

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39
Q

MC form of second branchial cleft cyst

A

cystic mass w/o sinus or fistula at the angle of the mandible

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40
Q

MC location of (2nd) branchial cleft anomalies in a child

A

angle of the mandible

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41
Q

MC location of the cystic component of 2nd branchial cleft anomaly

A

mandibular angle, just lateral to glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal nerves

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42
Q

MC location of second branchial cleft cyst

A

mandibular angle just lateral to the CNIX and CNXII in the posterior submandibular space (b/n SMS and the CS)

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43
Q

MC benign mandibular tumor

A

ameloblastoma (1% of all jaw tumors)

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44
Q

MC cystic lesion of the mandible

A

radicular cyst

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45
Q

MC thyroid cancer type

A

papillary (2nd MC: follicular)

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46
Q

Thyroid ca w/ the best prognosis

A

papillary

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47
Q

Thyroid ca w/ the worst prognosis

A

giant cell/anaplastic

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48
Q

Preferred cross-sectional imaging tool when evaluation of thyroid malig is required as presurgical guide

A

MRI (CT not recommended because the iodine can take months to clear - can postpone I-131 therapy for up to 6 months)

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49
Q

MC neck tumor to follow the paraesophageal or paratracheal nodal chain

A

thyroid ca

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50
Q

MC etiology of acute thyroiditis

A

viral

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51
Q

MCC of abscess of the CS

A

extracapsular spread of infection from suppurative LNs

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52
Q

Larger lipomas in the head and neck region are almost always found within the?

A

PCS

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53
Q

MC multispatial diseases

A

inflammatory processes as well as malignancy involving the LNs

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54
Q

MC congenital cystic neck masses

A

branchial cleft cysts (first, second, third), thyroglossal duct cyst, cystic hygroma-lymphangioma, dermoid/epidermoid

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55
Q

MC location of thyroglossal duct cyst

A

midline at or just below the hyoid bone

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56
Q

MC location of TDC

A

near the hyoid bone

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57
Q

Preferred method for laryngeal radiologic examination in the clinical setting of nonmalignant disease of the larynx (laryngocele, TDC, posintubation, trauma)

A

CT

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58
Q

Largest laryngeal cartilage

A

thyroid cartilage

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59
Q

Overwhelming preponderance of malignant tumors of the larynx (98%)

A

SCCa (sarcoma, esp chondrosarcoma, is the rare exception)

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60
Q

Ca from one cord most commonly accesses the contralateral vocal cord across the?

A

anterior commissure

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61
Q

Rarest form of laryngeal ca (5%)

A

subglottic ca

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62
Q

Chondrosarcoma primarily arises in the?

A

cricoid cartilage (90%)

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63
Q

MC form of cartilaginous injury during intubation

A

dislocation of an arytenoid cartilage (displaced anteriorly)

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64
Q

MC site of fracture of the thyroid cartilage in blunt trauma to the anterior neck

A

anterior margin

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65
Q

MC presentation of chronic laryngeal injury

A

suspected anterior neck mass where CT shows an infolded thyroid ala and tilted larynx

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66
Q

MC fracture of the cricoid ring

A

posterior midline fracture associated w/ 1 or 2 anterolateral ring fractures

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67
Q

Most lateral aspect of the posterior hypopharyngeal wall

A

posterior wall of the pyriform sinus

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68
Q

MC site of carcinomas of the hypopharynx

A

pyriform sinus > postcricoid airea > posterior pharyngeal wall

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69
Q

MC route of spread for pyriform sinus ca

A

posterolaterally into the soft tissues of the neck

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70
Q

Carries the worst prognosis of the 3 subsites of the hypopharygeal ca

A

postcricoid carcinoma

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71
Q

MCC of nodal mass with normal mucosal surface

A

submucosal “unknown” primary in the nasopharynx

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72
Q

Most commonly involved CNs in perineural spread

A

trigeminal (V3 and V2) and facial nerves

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73
Q

Location of primary tumor that requires the most extensive scan extent

A

nasopharynx

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74
Q

Largest communication b/n orbit and intracranial area

A

superior orbital fissure

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75
Q

MCC of macrophthalmia

A

juvenile glaucoma or myopia

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76
Q

Most severe form of macrophthalmia

A

buphthalmos (caused by juvenile-onset glaucoma)

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77
Q

MC tumor of the globe during childhood / Som: MC intraocular tumor of childhood

A

retinoblastoma

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78
Q

MC primary intraocular malignancy in adults

A

uveal melanoma

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79
Q

MC site of uveal melanoma

A

choroid

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80
Q

MC site of metastatic tumor to the globe

A

uveal tract (vascular layer between the retina and sclera)

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81
Q

MC primary lesions to metastasize to the globe

A

lung and breast ca

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82
Q

MC type of thickening of the optic nerve/sheath complex

A

tubular thickening

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83
Q

Accounts for 80% of primary tumors of the optic nerve / Som: mc optic nerve tumor in children / Som: MC orbital neoplasm seen in association w/ NF

A

optic nerve glioma

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84
Q

Histologically, childhood optic nerve glioma is most commonly a?

A

low-grade malignancy of the pilocytic astrocytoma (adults - glioblastoma)

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85
Q

MC thickening/configuration/shape of optic nerve glioma

A

tubular

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86
Q

2nd MC primary neoplasm of the optic nerve/sheath complex

A

optic nerve sheath meningioma

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87
Q

MC thickening/configuration/shape of optic nerve sheath meningioma

A

tubular

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88
Q

MCC of intraorbital mass lesion in adults

A

pseudotumor

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89
Q

Most commonly involved orbital structure in orbital pseudotumor

A

retrobulbar fat > EOM > optic nerve > uveal-sclera > lacrimal

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90
Q

MCC of unilateral or bilateral exophthalmos in adults / Som: MCC of unilateral and bilateral exophthalmos in the adult population

A

thyroid ophthalmopathy / thyroid orbitopathy / Graves’ dysthyroid ophthalmopathy

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91
Q

Most commonly involved EOM in thyroid ophthalmopathy

A

inferior rectus > medial > lateral > superior rectus (IM L. SO?)

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92
Q

Most ommonly involved EOM in thyroid orbitopathy

A

inferior rectus > medial rectus > superior rectus (consistent sa IMSLOw ng radiopedia)

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93
Q

MC orbital tumor

A

cavernous hemangioma

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94
Q

MC orbital vascular tumor in adults

A

cavernous hemangioma

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95
Q

MC vascular masses (in children)

A

capillary hemangioma and lymphangioma

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96
Q

3rd MCC of proptosis

A

orbital lymphoma (after orbital pseudotumor and cavernous hemangioma) (wait! ano difference ng proptosis at exophthalmos haha)

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97
Q

MC location of orbital lymphoma

A

lacrimal gland (extraconal) > conal-intraconal > optic nerve sheath/complex

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98
Q

MCC of acute, inflammatory enlargement of the lacrimal gland in younger patients

A

postviral syndrome

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99
Q

MC meningioma in the extraconal area

A

sphenoid wing meningioma

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100
Q

MC orbital location of Paget disease

A

roof and lateral wall

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101
Q

Most important anatomic area on the lateral wall of the nose

A

middle meatus

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102
Q

Largest of the parasympathetic ganglia assoc w/ the trigeminal nerve

A

pterygopalatine ganglion

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103
Q

MCC for recurring inflammatory sinonasal disease

A

dysfunction of mucociliary drainage

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104
Q

Primary offending organisms in fungal sinusitis

A

Mucor and Aspergillus

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105
Q

MC mucosal complication of chronic sinusitis

A

inflammatory polyp

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106
Q

Most frequently involved in inflammatory polyps

A

nose and maxillary sinus

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107
Q

Most commonly affected by mucous retention cysts

A

maxillary sinus

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108
Q

MC CT finding indicating the need for endoscopic surgery

A

opacified ostiomeatal unit (esp the infundibulum) w/ ostiometal unit pattern

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109
Q

Sinus most commonly affected in Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

maxillary sinus

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110
Q

MC PNS cancer

A

SCCa of the maxillary sinus > ethmoid (sphenoid and frontal so rare)

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111
Q

MC malignant tumor of the PNS and nose

A

SCCa

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112
Q

MC LN group to be involved in maxillary sinus SCCa

A

retropharyngeal chain

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113
Q

MC location of de novo osteosarcoma within the head and neck region

A

maxillary sinus > mandible > calvarium (not seen as primary to the nose)

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114
Q

MC site of maxillary de novo osteosarcomas

A

alveolar ridge

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115
Q

MC head-neck site of occurrence of chondrosarcoma (although rare)

A

sinonasal

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116
Q

Largest part of the membranous labyrinth

A

vestibule

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117
Q

MC error when imaging peripheral facial nerve paralysis w/ either CT or MRI

A

to complete an unfocused scan of the brain w/o attempting to localize the lesion topographically

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118
Q

Portion of the facial nerve usually out of place if ectopic

A

posterior tympanic and mastoid

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119
Q

MC form of acquired cholesteatoma

A

pars flaccida cholesteatoma / attic or primary acquired cholesteatoma

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120
Q

MC site for pars flaccida cholesteatoma

A

Prussak’s space

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121
Q

MC sites of hemangioma/ossifying hemangioma

A

labyrinthine segment of the facial nerve and the geniculate fossa area

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122
Q

MC missed cause of congenital deafness

A

vestibular aqueduct syndrome

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123
Q

MC type of otosclerosis/otospongiosis

A

fenestral

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124
Q

MC CT finding in fenestral otosclerosis

A

new bone formation (plaque) on the anterior oval window margin/fissula antefenestram

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125
Q

Weakest ossicle joint and therefore most susceptibe to injury / Most commonly dislocated

A

incudostapedial joint

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126
Q

MC variety of posttraumatic ossicular disruption

A

incudostapedial subluxation

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127
Q

MC site of ossicular discontinuity

A

incudostapedial joint and lenticular process of the incus

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128
Q

Most vulnerable ossicle / Most ossicular discontinuities involve this ossicle

A

incus (relatively heavy but provided only w/ minor ligamentous support by the posterior incudal ligament)

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129
Q

Most frequently malformed or absent ossicle

A

either incus or stapes

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130
Q

Accounts for 70-80% of temporal bone fractures

A

longitudinal

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131
Q

MC type of temporal bone fracture

A

longitudinal > transverse, oblique, mixed-type

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132
Q

Most complex and clinically impt part of the skull base

A

between the anterior aspect of the sella and the posterior lip of the foramen magnum / basisphenoid and basiocciput

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133
Q

Most commonly misdiagnosed pseudomass in the skull base

A

many varied signals that may be seen associated w/ the jugular bulb on MRI / complex flow in the jugular bulb

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134
Q

Fluid in the petrous apex air cells most commonly follow what signal?

A

CSF/water signal

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135
Q

MC sites for CSF leakage

A

tegmen tympani (CSF otorrhea) and cribriform plate/fovea ethmoidalis (CSF rhinorrhea)

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136
Q

MC presentation of tumors in the jugular foramen

A

complex cranial neuropathy including CN 9, 10, 11

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137
Q

MC site of neural sheath tumors in the CN’s exiting the skull base

A

jugular foramen (9, 10, 11)

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138
Q

MCC of malignant tumor of the skull base

A

metastasis

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139
Q

MC primary sites of skull base mets

A

lung, breast, and prostate gland

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140
Q

MC location of skull base chondrosarcoma

A

area of the paramedial basisphenoid synchondrosis

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141
Q

Most commonly thought etiology of Paget disease

A

viral

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142
Q

MC causes of acquired cephalocele

A

surgery or trauma

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143
Q

MC location of atretic cephalocele (contains just dura, fibrous tissue, and degenerated brain tissue)

A

obelion (sagittal suture at the level of the parietal foramina)

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144
Q

MC type of cephalocele in European/North America Caucasians / MC type of cephalocele among Caucasians

A

occipital

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145
Q

MC location of congenital cephalocele

A

squamous portion of occipital bone

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146
Q

MC type of cephalocele in SEA

A

frontoethmoidal

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147
Q

MC type of cephalocele among Australian aborigines, Malaysians, and select Southeast Asian groups

A

sincipital (sabi ni Osborn synonymous ang frontoethmoidal at sincipital)

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148
Q

Most cephalad of the nerves in the cavernous sinus

A

III

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149
Q

MCC of simple trochlear nerve palsy

A

trauma

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150
Q

MC ocular motor nerve palsy

A

isolated abducens palsy

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151
Q

Only major branch of the trigeminal nerve that carries both sensory and motor fibers

A

V3

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152
Q

Largest portion of the facial nerve

A

branchial motor portion

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153
Q

Least well-vascularized portion of the intratemporal facial nerve

A

labyrinthine segment

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154
Q

MC causative agents of Bell’s palsy

A

herpes simplex I and VZV

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155
Q

MCC of hemifacial spasm

A

compression of the facial nerve root exit xone on the caudal brainstem by loops of otherwise normal appearing vessels

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156
Q

MC finding on MRI w/ MRA in patients with hemifacial spasm

A

tortuous vertebral artery swinging up into the CPA, with the PICA making contact w/ the root exit zone of the facial nerve

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157
Q

MCC of isolated injury to nerve XI

A

radical neck dissection

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158
Q

Most responsible for unilateral sensorineural hearling loss

A

lesions of the CPA

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159
Q

MC location of arachnoid cysts

A

sylvian, parasagittal, and convexity (less frequently in CPA, incisura, suprasellar, and 4th ventricle)

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160
Q

2nd MC CPA mass

A

meningioma

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161
Q

MC signal characteristic of epidermoid

A

T1 hypo, T2 hyper - keratin debris predominates

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162
Q

The one inflammatory lesion found with any frequency during the search for causes of sensorineural heraing loss

A

multiple sclerosis

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163
Q

MC site of pars flaccida cholesteatoma

A

Prussak’s space

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164
Q

MC site of (primary/congenital) cholesteatoma

A

epitympanum

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165
Q

Provide most of the facial mesenchyme

A

neural crest cells

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166
Q

MC facial birth defect

A

cleft lip and palate (2nd MC: hemifacial microsomia [Goldenhar syndrome, OAV complex])

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167
Q

MC facial cleft type

A

common cleft lip/cleft palate

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168
Q

MC type of tori palatini

A

flat and spindle-shaped (86% combined)

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169
Q

Most visible feature of the bilateral cleft nose

A

shortening and deficiency of the columella centrally, with splaying and caudal displacement of the alar cartilages to both sides

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170
Q

MC finding / One obligatory finding in median cleft face syndrome

A

hypertelorism (2nd MC: true midline bony clefting of the nose)

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171
Q

Extranasal gliomas are most frequently on what side?

A

right

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172
Q

MC type of cephalocele among Caucasians

A

occipital

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173
Q

MC type of cephalocele among Australian aborigines, Malaysians, and select Southeast Asian groups

A

sincipital

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174
Q

MCC of neonatal nasal obstruction

A

choanal atresia (2nd MCC: dacryocystoceles)

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175
Q

MC congenital brain malformation in humans

A

holoprosencephaly

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176
Q

Most severe form of holoprosencephaly

A

alobar

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177
Q

Most frequently seen form of holoprosencephaly in clinical practice

A

semilobar

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178
Q

Most affected structures in the upper face in hemifacial microsomia

A

zygoma and lateral maxilla

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179
Q

Most severely affected structure in the lower face in hemifacial microsomia

A

mandible

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180
Q

Accounts for most of the asymmetry seen in hemifacial microsomia

A

mandibular hypoplasia

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181
Q

MC epibulbar tumor in children

A

choristoma

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182
Q

MC location of choristomas

A

subconjunctival

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183
Q

Most important functions of the uvea

A

to provide a vascular supply to the eye and to regulate the ocular temperature

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184
Q

Cones are most dense at the?

A

fovea

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185
Q

MCC of cranial asymmetry

A

positional deformation of the posterior aspect of the head / posterior positional plagiocephaly

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186
Q

MC referral for possible synostosis

A

benign, remediable positional deformation of the skull (not a true premature suture synostosis)

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187
Q

MC forms of nonsyndromic synostoses or primary craniosynostoses

A

premature sagittal, coronal, and metopic synostoses

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188
Q

Least common form of nonsyndromic synostoses or primary craniosynostoses

A

lambdoid (affects midface only incidentally)

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189
Q

MC craniofacial dysostosis

A

Crouzon syndrome (acrocephalosyndactyly type II)

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190
Q

Most important surgical component of the septum due to its supportive function

A

quadrangular cartilage

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191
Q

Most inferior part of the septum

A

columella

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192
Q

MCC of anosmia

A

frontal trauma (but total anosmia is 5x more likely after occipital trauma causing a contra-coup shearing of the olfactory fibers)

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193
Q

The most important of the 5 arteries that supply the nasal cavity

A

sphenopalatine artery

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194
Q

Most accessible part of the ethmoid intranasally, when present

A

aggar nasi cells

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195
Q

Represents the most anterior ethmoid air cell, usually lying deep to the lacrimal bone; anterior, lateral, and inferior to the frontal recess; remnant ethmoturbinal and present in nearly all patients

A

aggar nasi cell

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196
Q

Lack of any sinus pneumatization of the sphenoid bone by age of 10 years is most commonly seen in?

A

diseases that require a large marrow demand to compensate for chronic anemia (thalassemia and chronic renal failure)

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197
Q

Most accurate assessment of mucosal soft-tissue disease and bone is accompished at ____ window settings.

A

wide

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198
Q

Best distinction of watery sinonasal secretions from more viscous or desiccated secretions or a tumor requires _____ window settings.

A

narrow

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199
Q

Most posterior medial wall of the maxillary antrum is formed by the?

A

vertical portion of the palatine fossa

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200
Q

Layer of the scalp in w/c runs most of the blood vessels and cutaneous nerves

A

superficial fascia or tela subcutanea

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201
Q

Supplies most of the forehead and scalp

A

superficial temporal artery

202
Q

Narrowest anterior air channels

A

frontal recesses

203
Q

MC site of concha bullosa

A

middle turbinate

204
Q

Largest and most constant anterior ethmoid air cells

A

ethmoid bulla

205
Q

MC site of excessive medial deviation and bony dehiscence of the lamina papyracea / Most delicate portion of the lamina papyracea

A

site of insertion of basal lamella into the lamina papyracea

206
Q

MC type of optic nerve

A

Type 1 - course immediately adjacent to the sphenoid sinus, w/o indentation of the wall or contact w/ the posterior ethmoid air cell

207
Q

MC location of acute sinusitis

A

ethmoid sinus

208
Q

Sinuses most commonly involved w/ chronic sinusisits

A

anterior ethmoid air cells

209
Q

MCC of orbital infection

A

complicated sinusitis (MC origin of infection: ethmoid > frontal > sphenoid > maxillary)

210
Q

Most commonly performed FESS techniques

A

types II and III

211
Q

Area most likely to be affected by inflammatory disease in a patient w/ a prev PNS surgical procedure

A

frontal recess

212
Q

Single most important risk factor for iatrogenic CSF leak

A

previous FESS

213
Q

Thinnest portion and the area most exposed to perforation

A

lateral cribriform plate / lateral lamella of the olfactory groove (because anterior ethmoid artery enters the olfactory fossa at this location)

214
Q

Most vulnerable location of the anterior ethmoidal artery

A

superior aspect of the lamina papyracea, near the level of the superior oblique and medial rectus muscles, where the AEA runs within the anterior ethmoidal canal and perforates the bony ethmoid wall

215
Q

MC endoscopic finding following FESS and one of the MC reasons patients return for revision surgery

A

recurrent or residual polyps

216
Q

MC CT finding in a patient w/ failed FESS

A

mucosal disease (w/ or w/o assoc anatomic fractures) - anterior ethmoid > maxillary > posterior ethmoid > frontal > sphenoid

217
Q

MC infectious malady of the URT

A

common cold

218
Q

MC causative agents of common cold

A

rhinoviruses, parainfluenza and influenza viruses, adenoviruses, and RSV

219
Q

Most likely to spread intracranially

A

acute frontal sinusitis (due to rich venous emissary plexus between the posterior frontal sinus mucosa and the meninges) (next MC: sphenoid and ethmoid sinusitis)

220
Q

Most likely to spread to the orbits / Most often implicated as the source of infection for orbital complications

A

ethmoid > sphenoid and maxillary > frontal

221
Q

Air-fluid levels are MC in what sinuses?

A

maxillary

222
Q

MCC of PNS air-fluid level

A

bacterial sinusitis

223
Q

MCC of ethmoid air-fluid (although uncommon)

A

rupture of ethmoid mucocele (invariably mucopyocele)

224
Q

MCC of mycotic sinonasal disease / Assumed cause of most allergic fungal sinusitis cases

A

Aspergillus

225
Q

MC and most lethal of the opportunistic fungal infections among immunocompromised patients

A

candidiasis (MC: Candida albicans) (maxillary sinuses - almost exclusively involved)

226
Q

MC complications of inflammatory rhinosinusitis

A

polyps and cysts (MC: retention cyst)

227
Q

MC location of mucous retention cysts

A

maxillary sinus

228
Q

MC expansile lesions in the nasal cavity

A

polyps

229
Q

MC expansile lesion to develop in a PNS

A

mucocele

230
Q

MC location of mucoceles

A

frontal sinuses (2nd MC: ethmoid > maxillary and sphenoid)

231
Q

Osteomyelitis of the bones of the face and PNS is most often found following?

A

osteoplastic flap procedure for frontal sinus inflammatory disease

232
Q

Radiation osteitis is probably most commonly encountered in the?

A

mandible

233
Q

MCC of high-attenuation material within the sinus

A

desiccated secretions (differential: mycetoma in fungal sinusitis and intrasinus hemorrhage)

234
Q

Highest incidence of surgical complication of all mucoceles

A

sphenoid sinus mucoceles

235
Q

Due to the proximity of sphenoid sinus mucoceles to the optic nerve, what is the most serious major postop complication?

A

blindness

236
Q

MC sinuses involved in mycotic sinusitis

A

either maxillary or ethmoid

237
Q

MC form of Actinomyces infection

A

cervicofacial

238
Q

Most commonly affected sinuses in sarcoidosis

A

maxillary and ethmoid

239
Q

MC sites of inflammatory pseudotumor / MC sites of inflammatoty myofibroblastic tumor

A

lung, liver, and GIT (omentum and mesentery)

240
Q

MC tumors with multiple sinonasal calcifications

A

olfactory neuroblastomas, inverted papilloma, or chondroid tumor

241
Q

A unilateral polypoid nasal mass with calcifications is most likely to be?

A

either olfactory neuroblastoma or inverted papilloma

242
Q

2 MCC of anosmia

A

idiopathic and sinonasal inflammatory disease

243
Q

MC neoplasm affecting the PNS and nasal cavities (rare)

A

carcinomas

244
Q

A nasal septal mass with calcifications is most likely to be?

A

either a chondroid tumor or result of fungal disease

245
Q

MC location of carcinomas of the nasal cavity

A

nasal septum near the mucocutaneous junction

246
Q

MC tumors that metastasize to the head and neck

A

kidney, lung, breast, testis, and GIT

247
Q

MC site of salivary gland tumors

A

palate (and then extend into nasal fossae and PNS)

248
Q

MC location of BMTs of the sinonasal cavities

A

nasal fossa (2nd MC: maxillary sinus)

249
Q

Most specialized and differentiated neuroendocrine tumors

A

olfactory neuroblastoma

250
Q

MC site of malignant melanomas in the sinonasal cavities

A

nasal septum

251
Q

MC sites of schwannomas

A

vagus nerve in the neck and the CN 8

252
Q

2nd MC group of extranodal lymphomas after GI lymphomas in Asians

A

sinonasal lymphoma

253
Q

MC location of sinonasal lymphomas

A

nasal fossae and maxillary sinuses

254
Q

MC member of a group of diseases known collectively as plasma cell dyscrasias

A

multiple myeloma

255
Q

MC location of hemangiomas of the nasal cavity

A

septum (anterior septum near Kisselbach’s plexus) > lateral wall > vestibule

256
Q

MC type of hemangiomas of the nasal cavity

A

capillary

257
Q

MC sites of hemangiomas in the head and neck

A

skull > mandible > nasal bones > cervical vertebrae

258
Q

MC sites for hemangiopericytomas

A

lower extremities and retroperitoneum-pelvis (3rd MC: head and neck - neck, perioral STs, and sinonasal tract)

259
Q

MC sites of head and neck leiomyomas

A

cervical esophagus > subcutis > oral cavity

260
Q

Site of preference of leiomyomas in the nasal cavity and sinuses

A

turbinate

261
Q

Cardiac rhabdomyomas are most commonly assoc w/?

A

tuberculosis

262
Q

MC ST sarcoma in children / MC ST malignancy of childhood / MC primary malignant orbital tumor in children

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

263
Q

MC sites for all rhabdomyosarcomas in the head and neck

A

orbit > nasopharynx > middle ear and mastoid …. > oral cavity

264
Q

MC sites for liposarcomas above the clavicles

A

soft tissues of the neck, scalp, and face

265
Q

MC benign PNS tumor associated w/ spontaneous CSF rhinorrhea, pneumocephalus, and tension pneumocephalus

A

osteoma

266
Q

MC site of osteomas

A

frontal sinuses (2nd MC: ethmoid sinuses)

267
Q

MC site of osteomas

A

PNS, especially the frontal and ethmoid sinuses (next MC site: jaw = mandible > maxilla)

268
Q

MC site of head and neck “osseous” osteochondromas

A

mandible (coronoid process and condyle)

269
Q

Most commonly affected bones in osteoid osteoma

A

femur and tibia

270
Q

MC sites of osteoblastoma

A

vertebral column and long bones of the appendicular skeleton

271
Q

MC location of ossifying fibromas

A

tooth-bearing regions - molar or premolar regions of the mandible > maxilla

272
Q

MC site of monostotic fibrous dysplasia (75-80% of cases are monostotic)

A

ribs and femur

273
Q

MC site of malignant transformation w/ FD

A

craniofacial bones (irradiation may promote it)

274
Q

MC location of Paget’s disease in the head and neck

A

calvaria, maxilla, and mandible

275
Q

MC primary bone sarcoma after the 1st decade of life

A

osteogenic sarcoma

276
Q

MC primary bone sarcoma after the 4th decade of life

A

chondrosarcoma

277
Q

MC location of primary osteogenic sarcoma (absence of previous irradiation or Paget’s disease)

A

distal femur, prior to closure of the growth plates

278
Q

MC location of primary chondrosarcoma

A

pelvic region and femur

279
Q

MC location of follicular/dentigerous cysts

A

mandibular 3rd molars, maxillary canines and 3rd molars

280
Q

MC jaw cyst

A

periodontal cyst

281
Q

MC odontogenic cyst

A

periapical (radicular) cyst (2nd MC: dentigerous)

282
Q

MC site of periodontal cysts

A

maxillary teeth

283
Q

MC location of lateral periodontal/paradental cyst

A

premolar and cuspid areas

284
Q

MC type of odontogenic keratocyst

A

central parakeratotic

285
Q

Most commonly encountered nonodontogenic jaw cysts

A

developmental cysts

286
Q

nasopalatine duct cyst (incisive canal cyst)

A

nasopalatine duct cyst (incisive canal cyst)

287
Q

MC odontogenic tumors

A

ameloblastoma, cementoma, odontoma, and fibromyxoma

288
Q

MC site of ameloblastoma

A

mandible

289
Q

MC site of metatasis from ameloblastoma

A

lungs, pleura, and regional LNs

290
Q

MC complication in cementoblastoma

A

osteomyelitis

291
Q

MC primary tumor below the clavicles to metastasize to the sinonasal cavities

A

RCC

292
Q

Contains both the most and least water-laden soft tissues in the body

A

globe (most - vitreous; least - lens)

293
Q

Most extreme form of macrophthalmia (inc IOP, enlarged globe, enlarged cornea)

A

buphthalmos

294
Q

MCC of macrophthalmia

A

axial elongation of the eye assoc w/ high myopia

295
Q

MC choroidal neoplasms producing retinal detachment in adults

A

malignant melanomas and choroidal hemangiomas

296
Q

Prob the MCC of dytrophic intraocular calcification

A

chronic posttraumatic degeneration

297
Q

MCC of phthisis bulbi

A

trauma or infection

298
Q

MCC of focal calcification, near the surface of the optic nerve

A

drusen

299
Q

MC presenting sign of retinoblastoma / MC sign assoc w/ retinoblastoma

A

leukokoria (2nd MC sign: strabismus)

300
Q

MCC of proptosis in children

A

orbital cellulitis

301
Q

MC orbital masses (in children)

A

dermoid and epidermoid cysts

302
Q

MC metastatic cancer of the orbit in children

A

metastatic neuroblastoma

303
Q

MC source of secondary carcinoma within the eye

A

breast or lung

304
Q

Most useful in evaluating the challenging retinoblastoma patient

A

MRI

305
Q

MC causes of leukokoria

A

retinoblastoma, PHPV, ROP, Coat’s, posterior cataract, coloboma of the choroid or optic disc, uveitis, larval granulomatosis)

306
Q

MCC of leukokoria in childhood, except for retinoblastoma

A

PHPV

307
Q

Most highly vascular portion of the eyeball

A

uvea - provides a suitable substrate for tumor cells

308
Q

MC neoplasm involving the choroid

A

malignant melanoma

309
Q

MC site of uveal nevi

A

posterior 1/3 of the choroid

310
Q

Usually the most immediate concern for imaging in ocular trauma

A

possible presence of foreign body (localization is most often accomplished by CT)

311
Q

Probably the MC postsurgical change seen at imaging

A

artificial intraocular lens placed after cataract extraction

312
Q

Most important structure traversing the IOF

A

maxillary nerve

313
Q

Most important contents of the PPF

A

maxillary nerve, pterygopalatine (sphenopalatine) ganglion, and terminal part of the maxillary artery

314
Q

The intracanalicular portion of optic nerve is supplied almost exclusively by:

A

ophthalmic artery

315
Q

MC causes of pseudoproptosis

A

minor degrees of facial and orbital asymmetry

316
Q

In practice, most of the time, plagiocephaly is seen in patients with?

A

hemicoronal premature synostosis

317
Q

MC developmental cysts involving the orbit and periorbital structures

A

dermoid and epidermoid cysts, choristomas, and teratomas

318
Q

MC locations of demoid and epidermoid cysts in the orbit

A

superior and temporal / superior temporal quadrant of the orbit, where they are fixed to the periosteum near the frontozygomatic suture line

319
Q

MC locations of demoid and epidermoid cysts in adults

A

behind the orbital rim, often near the lacrimal gland

320
Q

MCC of orbital cellulitis

A

sinusitis

321
Q

MC fungal organisms incriminated in orbital cellulitis

A

Mucor and Aspergillus

322
Q

MC form/type of mucormycosis

A

rhinocerebral

323
Q

MC ophthalmologic disease among orbital disorders after Graves’ disease

A

pseudotumor

324
Q

Most commonly affected muscles in idiopathic orbital myositis

A

superior complex and medial rectus

325
Q

MC sign of sarcoidosis

A

anterior uveitis

326
Q

MC form of orbital involvement in sarcoidosis

A

chronic dacryoadenitis

327
Q

MC extrathoracic manifestations of sarcoidosis

A

visual system abnormalities

328
Q

MC connective tissue disorders that may be associated w/ systemic vasculitis

A

SLE, RA, and dermatomyositis

329
Q

MC granulomatous and histiocytic lesion in the orbit / MC mesenchymal tumor of the orbit / MC adult mesenchymal tumor of the orbit

A

fibrous histiocytoma

330
Q

Most commonly involved by LCH

A

frontal bone (lesions are usually in the superior or superolateral wall of the orbit in a rather anterior location)

331
Q

MC location of capillary hemangiomas

A

superior nasal quadrant

332
Q

MCC of spontaneous orbital hemorrhage

A

orbital varices

333
Q

Plexiform neurofibromas in infancy or childhood most commonly involve the?

A

eyelids

334
Q

MC location of schwannomas in the orbit

A

intraconal space

335
Q

MC tumors involving the optic nerves

A

optic nerve sheath meningiomas and gliomas

336
Q

MCC of optic neuritis

A

multiple sclerosis (visual loss is typically unilateral)

337
Q

MC source of mets to the orbit

A

breast ca in women; ca of the lung, kidney, or prostate in men

338
Q

Intracranially, most of the foramina converge to the region of the?

A

cavernous sinus and Meckel’s cave

339
Q

Most meningoceles are found in the?

A

midline

340
Q

MC lesions in the greater wing of sphenoid

A

meningiomas or bone-related tumors (no fissures or foramina, it’s simple bone covered by dura)

341
Q

MC site of chondrosarcomas in the skull base

A

petro-occipital (petroclival) synchondrosis or fissure - off midline; junction of the nasal septum and the rostrum of the sphenoid

342
Q

MC location of meningiomas

A

convexities or parasagital / parasagittal/convexity

343
Q

Primary blood supply of juvenile angiofibroma is almost always from the?

A

the terminal branches of the internal maxillary or the ascending pharyngeal arteries

344
Q

CN most commonly affected in the central skull base by scwhannomas

A

trigeminal

345
Q

MC site of CSF breech

A

anteriorly through the region of the cribriform plate or ethmoid roof (2nd MC: temporal bone, where fractures may be assoc)

346
Q

Cranial nerves most often involved in PNS from head and neck cancer

A

trigeminal and facial nerves

347
Q

MC location of ectopic calcifications in basal cell nevus syndrome

A

falx cerebri and other areas of the dura

348
Q

MC presenting symptom of ameloblastoma

A

swelling

349
Q

MC site of unilocular ameloblastoma

A

maxilla

350
Q

Mildest and most favorable form of histiocytosis X

A

eosinophilic granuloma

351
Q

MC location of hemangiomas

A

skull and vertebrae

352
Q

MC primary tumors of mets to the mandible and maxilla

A

breast, lung, kidney (hypernephroma), thyroid, prostate, and stomach

353
Q

MC missing teeth excluding the 3rd molars

A

mandibular 2nd premolars > maxillary lateral incisors

354
Q

MC site of dens in dente (dens invaginatus)

A

permanent upper lateral incisors

355
Q

Densest material in the human body

A

normal enamel

356
Q

MC location of dehiscences in the facial canal

A

tympanic portion near the oval window region

357
Q

Mediates most of the sensations that have to do w/ linear acceleration of the head

A

macula of the utricle

358
Q

Segments of the facial nerve canal that are most commonly affected in congenital aural dysplasias (CAD)

A

tympanic and mastoid segments

359
Q

MC temporal bone dysplasia in cases of profound congenital sensorineural hearing loss

A

Scheibe’s dysplasia

360
Q

Aside from Scheibe’s deafness, MC form of genetic deafness

A

Mondini’s malformation

361
Q

MC location of bifurcation in duplication of the facial nerve / bifid facial nerve

A

along the proximal aspect of the tympanic segment inferior to the lateral semicircular canal

362
Q

MC vascular anomaly of the petrous portion of the temporal bone

A

high jugular bulb

363
Q

MC microfissures (in the temporal bone) near the round window

A

Hyrtl’s fissure and fissula antefenestram

364
Q

2nd MC disease of childhood after URTI

A

otitis media

365
Q

MCC of debris in the middle ear

A

granulation tissue

366
Q

MC site of origin of acquired cholesteatomas

A

superior pars flaccida portion of the TM

367
Q

Most widely accepted theory concerning the etiology of acquired cholesteatoma

A

arises from retraction pockets

368
Q

Most pars tensa cholesteatomas arise from?

A

posterosuperior retractions

369
Q

MC segment of the ossicular chain eroded by both varieties of acquired cholesteatoma

A

long process of the incus (limited ligamentous support and poor blood supply)

370
Q

MC site of labyrinthine fistula which is a potentially serious complication of cholesteatoma

A

lateral semicicular canal (most commonly compromised region) > superior ampullar > posterior canal > promontory of the cochlea

371
Q

MC common site of facial nerve compression in cholesteatoma

A

tympanic segment (w/c lies inferior to the lateral semicircular canal in the middle ear)

372
Q

MC radiographically identified abnormality of the petrous apex

A

simple effusion

373
Q

3 mc expansile lesions to arise within the petrous apex

A

cholesterol granuloma (cholesterol cyst), cholesteatoma, mucocele (rare)

374
Q

MC primary petrous apex lesion

A

cholesterol cyst

375
Q

MCC of labyrinthitis

A

viral infection

376
Q

MCC of delayed hydrops syndrome

A

viral labyrinthitis

377
Q

Most widely recognized prenatal viral infections associated w/ perinatal complications including hearing loss

A

CMV and rubella

378
Q

MCC of labyrinthitis ossificans

A

suppurative bacterial labyrinthitis

379
Q

MC location for fibrosis and new bone formation in the cochlea

A

basal turn region of the scala tympani near the round window

380
Q

Pathology most commonly confused w/ necrotizing external otitis

A

malignancy

381
Q

MC histologies of malignancies involving the EAC

A

squamous cell and basal cell ca and minor salivary gland ca

382
Q

MC benign neoplasm of the external canal

A

exostosis

383
Q

Damage to the sound-conducting mechanism of the middle ear is most likely caused by?

A

chronic otitis media, cholesteatoma, trauma, or congenital ossicular malformation

384
Q

MC ossicular reconstruction and is peformed to restore conductive hearing loss in individuals with fenestral otosclerotis or congenital abnormalities

A

stapes prosthesis

385
Q

Narrowest point in the facial nerve canal

A

labyrinthine segment

386
Q

Insult to the facial nerve in what region is the most likely cause of paralysis?

A

labyrinthine segment

387
Q

Most vulnerable segment of the facial nerve

A

labyrinthine segment

388
Q

MC locations of tumors presenting as facial paralysis

A

temporal bone and parotid gland region

389
Q

MC sites of perilymphatic fistula

A

oval window and round window

390
Q

Excluding Bell’s palsy, MCC of facial nerve dysfunction

A

trauma

391
Q

MCC if conductive hearing loss

A

impingement of abnormal bone on the stapes footplate (it’s this oval window involvement that is the basis of the name fenestral otosclerosis)

392
Q

Location of the MC lesion of otosclerosis

A

bone just anterior to the oval window, at the location of the embryologic fissula antefenestram

393
Q

MC pattern of FD according to radiologic findings throughout the entire skeletal system

A

pagetoid

394
Q

In the temporal bone, FD is almost always of the ___ form

A

sclerotic

395
Q

MC CT findings of temporal bone lesions of FD

A

increase in bone thickness, homogeneous radiodensity, and a loss of the trabecular pattern

396
Q

Most commonly involved bone in the disseminated polyostotic form of Paget’s

A

pelvis

397
Q

MC and mildest form of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

type I (previously called osteogenesis imperfecta tarda) - decreased production of type I collagen

398
Q

Most severe form of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

type II (previously called osteogenesis imperfecta congenita)

399
Q

MC tumor assoc w/ the CPA syndrome

A

acoustic schwannoma

400
Q

4 MC CPA tumors (in adults / older teenagers)

A

acoustic schwannoma, meningioma, epidermoid cyst/primary cholesteatoma/pearly tumor, nonacoustic posterior fossa schwannoma

401
Q

MCC of CPA tumors in younger children

A

gliomas

402
Q

Most likely diagnosis if the intensity of a CPA mass is equal to or less than that of gray matter on T2

A

meningioma

403
Q

MC vascular lesion assoc w/ compressive symptoms of the posterior fossa CNs

A

vertebrobasilar dolichoectasia

404
Q

MC symptoms in vertebrobasilar dolichoectasia

A

facial nerve symptoms (hemifacial spasm and facial paralysis) (2nd MC: trigeminal neuralgia)

405
Q

MC hemishperic tumor of the cerebellum

A

hemangioblastoma and mets in adults; astrocytomas in young adults or children

406
Q

2nd MC tumor involving the temporal bone / MC tumor in the middle ear / MCC of a pulsatile mass w/ conductive hearing loss

A

paraganglioma

407
Q

MC feeders of paragangliomas

A

branches of the ascending pharyngeal artery

408
Q

MC location of intraremporal benign vascular tumors

A

geniculate ganglion region > IAC > least: posterior genu

409
Q

MC tumor from adjacent anatomic structures that may involve the facial nerve by direct extension

A

jugular foramen paraganglioma

410
Q

MC malignant tumor of the ear / MC malignant tumor of the middle ear (rare)

A

SCC

411
Q

MC middle ear neoplasm in early childhood (rare)

A

embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

412
Q

MC primary malignant neoplasm in the region of the petrous apex

A

chondrosarcoma (MC histologic subtype: conventional)

413
Q

MC causes of chronic stridor in the infant

A

congenital laryngeal or tracheal anomalies such as laryngomalacia or tracheomalacia and vocal cord paralysis

414
Q

MC causes if stridor has been present since birth

A

congenital laryngomalacia, subglottic stenosis, vocal cord paralysis, or vascular ring

415
Q

MCC of stridor in the newborn and infant

A

laryngomalacia

416
Q

3rd MC congenital laryngeal abnormality / MC lesion requiring tracheotomy in infants <1 yo

A

congenital subglottic stenosis

417
Q

2nd MCC of stridor in infancy

A

vocal cord paralysis

418
Q

MCC of vocal cord paralysis in children

A

brainstem malformations, particularly Chiari II malformation

419
Q

MCC of OSA in children

A

adenotonsillar hypertrophy

420
Q

MCC of neonatal nasal airway obstruction

A

mucosal edema secondary to rhinitis

421
Q

MC form of congenital nasal obstruction / MC congenital abnormality of the nasal cavity

A

choanal atresia / atresia of the posterior nasal cavity (choanae)

422
Q

MC type of laryngocele

A

external/combined

423
Q

MC location of laryngeal cysts

A

valleculae and true vocal cords

424
Q

Vascular compression of the trachea is most frequently caused by?

A

innominate artery

425
Q

MC symptomatic true vascular ring

A

double aortic arch

426
Q

MC complications of lymphatic malformations

A

infection and hemorrhage

427
Q

MCC of acute adenotonsillitis and lymphadenopathy due to bacterial causes

A

group A strep

428
Q

MC site of abscess or cellulitis/adenopathy

A

peritonsillar space > retrophayngeal and submandibular space

429
Q

MC cultured organisms in neck infections

A

Strep pyogenes, Stap aureus, and Bacteroides melanogenicus

430
Q

MC inflammatory cause of stridor in young children

A

croup / laryngotracheobronchitis (MC viral etiologic agent: human parainfluenza virus)

431
Q

Most commonly injured region of the pediatric airway

A

supraglottis - receives the brunt of exposure to thermal or caustic substances

432
Q

MC location of complications of intubation

A

glottic or subglottic level

433
Q

MCC of acquired subglottic stenosis

A

endotracheal intubation

434
Q

MC location of intubation granulation

A

vocal process of the arytenoid

435
Q

MC location of impaction of esophageal foreign body

A

at or just below the level of the cricopharyngeus muscle

436
Q

MC benign neoplasm of the larynx in children / 2nd MCC of childhood hoarseness

A

recurrent respiratory papillomatosis

437
Q

MC location of papillomas

A

glottic level

438
Q

MC location of recurrent papillomas

A

subglottic

439
Q

MC presenting symptoms of juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

A

unilateral nasal obstruction and recurrent spontaneous epistaxis

440
Q

MC congenital tumors

A

teratomas

441
Q

2nd MC location for teratomas in early infancy

A

head and neck

442
Q

MC malignant tumor of the H&N

A

lymphoma (2nd MC: sarcomas specifically rhabdomyosarcomas)

443
Q

MC soft tissue sarcoma in the pedia / 2nc MC head and neck malignancy in pedia

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

444
Q

MC tumors of glandular origin in the H&N

A

thyroid ca and salivary gland malignancies

445
Q

MC epithelial malignancy in the H&N / MC pediatric epithelial ca

A

NPCA

446
Q

MC type of lymphoma to involve the H&N and is mc in adolescence

A

lymphoma

447
Q

Most reliable CT / MRI sign of cartilage invasion

A

demonstration of through-and-through tumor spread

448
Q

MC origin of sinuses, fistulas, and cysts related to the first arch

A

external auditory canal

449
Q

Anomalies that approach or involve the EAC most commonly terminates at?

A

junction of the cartilaginous and boy portions of this canal

450
Q

MC type of 2nd BCCs according to Bailey

A

type II - originates from persistence of cervical sinus of His (technically, combined 2nd, 3rd, and 4th branchial arches

451
Q

MC location of parathyroid cysts or aberrant glands

A

inferior to the parathyroid gland

452
Q

MC congenital neck mass / MC midline neck mass

A

TDC

453
Q

MC location of ectopic thyroid tissue

A

tongue

454
Q

MC form of lymphangioma

A

cystic hygroma or cystic lymphangioma

455
Q

MC location of fetal cystic hygromas

A

posterior triangle of the neck

456
Q

Least common form of lymphangioma and has the most diminutive lymphatic channels

A

capillary or simple lymphangioma (lymphangioma simplex)

457
Q

MC tumors of the head and neck in infancy and childhood

A

hemangiomas

458
Q

MC vascular malformations to affect the oral cavity

A

venous malformations

459
Q

Side mostly involved in IJV phlebectasia

A

right

460
Q

MC form of teratoma

A

dermoid cyst

461
Q

MC location of dermoid cysts in the oral cavity / MC site for dermoids in the head and neck, after the nose and orbit

A

floor of the mouth (sublingual, submental, or submandibular)

462
Q

MC site of upper aerodigestive tract tumor most likely to present w/ metastatic adenopathy

A

Waldeyer’s ring

463
Q

MC site of upper aerodigestive tract tumor most likely to present w/ bilateral neck disease and posterior triangle (level V) adenopathy

A

Waldeyer’s ring

464
Q

Most often affected nodes in viral lymphadenitis

A

occipital nodes

465
Q

3 mc presenting head and neck complaints of AIDS patients / HIV-infected patients

A

skin lesions such as Kaposi’s sarcoma, oropharyngeal symptoms such as candida oropharyngitis or HSV infections, and cervical lymphadenopathy

466
Q

MCC of acute suppurative lymphadenitis

A

Staph

467
Q

Most commonly affected by tertiary syphilis

A

CV and CNS

468
Q

MC site of gummas and large necrotic lesions in tertiary syphilis

A

liver

469
Q

MC manifestation of histoplasmosis (as with most inhaled mycotic pathogens)

A

subclinical pulmonary manifestation

470
Q

MC opportunistic infection associated w/ AIDS

A

P. carinii

471
Q

MCC of intracerebral mass lesions in AIDS

A

Toxoplasma encephalitis

472
Q

Most likely diagnosis when there is cervical adenopathy and multiple parotid LNs

A

either sarcoidosis or lymphoma

473
Q

MCC of massive LN infarction

A

lymphoma or metastatic carcinoma

474
Q

Most frequently involved flat bone in Langerhan’s cell histiocytosis

A

skull

475
Q

Regardless of lymph node size, most reliable imaging finding in metastastic disease

A

presence of central nodal necrosis on contrast-enhanced CT (routinely identified when >3mm)

476
Q

Most reliable imaging finding in metastastic disease on noncontrast MR

A

variable T2-weighted signal intensity

477
Q

Primary imaging differential diagnosis of central tumor necrosis

A

fatty hilar metaplasia (almost exclusively at the periphery of node - pronounced lima bean configuration)

478
Q

MC thyroid cancers to metastasize to the cervical lymph nodes

A

papillary and follicular types

479
Q

MCC of nodal enhancement / increased nodal vascularity

A

acute infection

480
Q

Nodal calcifications are most commonly seen in patients with?

A

tuberculosis

481
Q

MC primary head and neck tumor associated with nodal calcifiations / MCC of calcifications within PPS LNs

A

metastatic papillary thyroid ca

482
Q

Most pliable border of the PPS

A

medial wall

483
Q

MC deep space abscesses in children

A

peritonsillar abscess

484
Q

Most infections that results in PPS abscess arise in?

A

palatine tonsil or pharynx or odontogenic

485
Q

Statistically, the mc masses in the PPS

A

hyperplastic or metastatic level II LNs

486
Q

MC primary neoplasms to arise in the PPS

A

those of salivary gland origin (almost all are pleomorphic adenomas)

487
Q

Site of origin of the 2nd mc benign PPS lesion

A

arise in extraparotid salivary rests in the prestyloid compartment fat (also predominantly pleomorphic adenoma)

488
Q

Account for most malignancies affecting PPS

A

malignant tumors arising from the pharyngeal mucosal minor salivary glands and NPCA

489
Q

Most commonly affected in malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors of the head and neck

A

CNs, large cervical nerves, sympathetic chain, and inferior alveolar nerve

490
Q

MC form of paragangliomas (in the PPS)

A

glomus vagale tumor - arises from the paraganglionic cells about the nodose ganglion (2nd MC: carotid body tumor; 3rd MC: glomus jugulare)

491
Q

MC type of paragangliomas

A

carotid body tumors > glomus jugular and glomus vagale

492
Q

Tumors most often embolized preop

A

glomus jugulare and vagale

493
Q

MC cellular lesions to involve the PPS

A

NPCA and oropharyngeal ca - adults; rhabdomyosarcomas or lymphomas - children

494
Q

Mets from distant primary tumors to the PPS com most commonly from?

A

kidney and thyroid gland

495
Q

Most immediately life-threatening of all the masses in the PPS

A

aneurysm

496
Q

MC reflex cardiovascular syndromes linked to CN IX

A

carotid sinus syndrome and glossopharyngeal neuralgia-asystole syndrome

497
Q

MC intracranial neoplasm to extend into the PPS

A

meningioma

498
Q

Most commonly affected muscle in masticator muscle hypertrophy / MC form of masticator hypertrophy

A

masseter muscles / masseteric hypertrophy

499
Q

MC abnormality in the sublingual glands

A

ranula (obstructed mucocele)

500
Q

MCC of viral parotitis / MC of all salivary gland diseases

A

mumps

Most common (9 decks)

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