Eponymous Syndromes Flashcards

LS

1
Q

Currarino syndrome / Currarino triad

A

association of 3 major features: (partial) sacral agenesis, anorectal stenosis (or other low anorectal malformation), and presacral masses, including meningocele, teratoma, enteric cyst, or combination of these

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2
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

characterized by peripheral polyneuropathy affecting all 4 limbs, w/ or w/o CN involvement, w/c causes acute neuromuscular failure, clinically characterized by symmetric weakness/paralysis, assoc w/ loss of tendon reflexes, w/ little or no sensory loss, as well as elevated proteins in CSF w/o pleocytosis

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3
Q

Klippel-Feil syndrome

A

congenital malformation characterized by failure in the segmentation of 2 or more cervical vertebrae

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4
Q

Sharpey fibers

A

fibers in the outer ring of the annulus fibrosus that originate and insert in the compact cortical bone in the ring apophysis

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5
Q

Sharpey’s fibers

A

anchors the annulus to the adjacent vertebral bodies / attaches the disks to the vertebral bodies

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6
Q

Tarlov cysts

A

enlarged root pouches

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7
Q

multipotential cells of Hensen’s node

A

where sacrococcygeal teratomas arise; these migrate to lie within the coccyx

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8
Q

Brown-Sequard syndrome

A

ipsilateral paralysis, decreased tactile, and deep sensation, and a contralateral deficit in pain and temperature sensation

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9
Q

Brown-Sequard syndrome

A

purely unilateral transverse lesion above midlumbar spinal cord levels

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10
Q

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

inherited disorder w/ macrosomia, macroglossia, visceromegaly, omphalocele, embryonal tumors, adrenocortical cytomegaly, and renal abnormalities; neonatal hypoglycemia may also occur

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11
Q

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

omphalocele, macroglossia, gigantism, macrosomia, hemihypertrophy; Wilms tumor is associated

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12
Q

Canavan disease

A

NAA aciduria and NAA accumulation in the brain

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13
Q

Terson syndrome

A

intraocular (subhyaloid - MC, retinal, or vitreous) hemorrhage that is found in 12-13% of patients with aSAH

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14
Q

Kernohan notch

A

As the herniating temporal lobe pushes the midbrain toward the opposite side of the incisura, the contralatral cerebral peduncle is forced against the hard, knife-like edge of the tentorium, forming a Kernohan notch

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15
Q

Duret hemorrhage

A

secondary hemorrhagic midbrain infarct caused by occlusion/compression of the perforating arteries that arise from the top of the basilar artery during severe descending transtentorial herniation when the midbrain is inferiorly displaced and the midbrain-pontine angle is closed

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16
Q

Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms

A

lenticulostriate microaneurysms; aka bleeding globes

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17
Q

Weston-Hurst disease

A

aka acute hemorrhagic leukoencephalopathy, hemorrhagic form of ADEM; multifocal hemorrhages confined to the WM in a patient with a history of febrile illness followed by sudden neurologic deterioration are most likely secondary to this disease

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18
Q

Aicardi syndrome

A

X-linked, triad: CC agenesis, pathognomonic chorioretinal lacunae, and infantile spasms; choroid plexus papillomas are also a part of this syndrome

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19
Q

Bochdalek’s flower basket

A

bulbous tufts of choroid plexus in the CPA cistern extending from the 4th ventricle through its lateral recesses (normal finding)

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20
Q

Carney complex / syndrome

A

rare AD syndrome characterized by lentiginous facial pigmentation / spotty pigmented lesions of the skin and mucosa, cardiac, cutaneous, and other myxomas, and multiple endocrine tumors (such as pituitary adenoma) / endocrine overactivity, and Cushing syndrome; melanotic schwannomas occurs in 10% of cases; GH-producing pituitary tumors; adrenal involvement causing ACTH-independent Cushing syndrome

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21
Q

McCune-Albright syndrome

A

polyostotic FD w/ endocrinopathy; classic triad: endocrine dysfunction (precocious puberty/gonadotropin-independent sexual precocity), cutaneous hyperpigmentation (cafe au lait spots), and multiple fibrous dysplasia lesions; tumors or nodular hyperplasia of a number of endocrine glands lead to hypersecretory syndromes such as acromegaly, hyperprolactinemia, and Cushing syndrome

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22
Q

Albright’s syndrome

A

polyostotic, unilateral form of FD w/ ipsilateral cafe-au-lait spots and endocrine dysfunction that produces precocious puberty in girls

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23
Q

Albright’s syndrome

A

polyostotic FD + pigmented skin macules and sexual precocity. Skin pigmentations have irregular margins (“coast of Maine”) as opposed to the smoother-bordered pigmentations (“coast of California”) of neurofibromatosis. Young girls

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24
Q

Dawson fingers

A

centripetal perivenular extension radiating outward from the lateral ventricles, seen in MS

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25
Q

de Morsier syndrome

A

other term for septooptic dysplasia

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26
Q

Dyke-Davidoff-Masson syndrome

A

cerebral hemiatrophy typically caused by an in utero or early childhood cerebral insult; lack of ipsilateral brain growth causes the calvaria and diploic space to thicken, whereas the paranasal sinuses and mastoids become enlarged and hyperaerated

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27
Q

Fowler syndrome

A

rare AR disorder in which hydranencephaly is accompanied by glomeruloid vasculopathy of the CNS vessels and neurogenic muscular atrophy

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28
Q

Gardner syndrome

A

multiple osteomas occur together w/ skin tumors and colon polyps

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29
Q

Gardner’s syndrome

A

AD, consists of multiple osteomas, multiple colonic polyps, epidermoid and sebaceous cysts, desmoid tumors of the skin, and impacted supernumerary and permanent teeth

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30
Q

Ollier disease

A

multiple enchondromas or enchondromatosis

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31
Q

Maffucci syndrome

A

enchondromatosis, hemangiomas / enchondromas associated w/ soft tissue hemangiomas

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32
Q

Gorlin syndrome

A

aka basal cell nevus syndrome; associated with medulloblastomas + dense tentorial/falcine calcifications

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33
Q

Joubert syndrome, JS-related disorders

A

anomalies of the kidneys, eyes, extremities, liver, and bile ducts are common in the JSRD spectrum; hallmark: molar tooth sign

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34
Q

Kallman syndrome

A

olfactory aplasia/hypoplasia + hypogonadotropic hypogonadism; pituitary gland hypoplasia as well as visual and septal anomalies are common; neuronal migration disorder that results in hypoplastic or absent olfactory nerves and sulci

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35
Q

Lhermitte-Duclos disease

A

dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma; a major CNS manifestation of Cowden syndrome (multiple hamartoma syndrome; AD phacomatosis w/ vast majority of patients having hamartomatous neoplasms of the skin combined with neoplasms and hamartomas of multiple other organs; AD familial tumor syndrome that causes a spectrum of hamartomas and neoplasms; multiple hamartoma-neoplasia syndrome or PTEN hamartoma tumor syndrome; breast, thyroid, endometrium, and GI cancers are the most prevalent other neoplasms)

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36
Q

Cowden-Lhermitte-Duclos / COLD syndrome

A

LDD + CS

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37
Q

Lisch nodules

A

iris hamartomas

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38
Q

Liliequist membrane

A

prominent basal arachnoid membrane that forms trabeculae that cross the suprasellar cistern and cover the hypothalamus and diaphragm sellae

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39
Q

Luckenschadel

A

lacunar skull; focal calvarial thinning and scooped out appearance

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40
Q

malignant Triton tumors

A

histologically mixed neoplasms (malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors with rhabdomyoblastic and other heterologous elements) that are very characteristic of NF1

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41
Q

Marchiafava-Bignami disease

A

rare disorder characterized by osmotic demyelination and later necrosis of the corpus callosum

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42
Q

Morel laminar necrosis

A

extracallosal lesion/cerebral cortical lesion seen in the frontolateral cortex in Marchiafava-Bignami disease

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43
Q

median prosencephalic vein of Markowski

A

persistent embryonic precursor of the vein of Galen

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44
Q

vein of Galen

A

formed by the union of the bilateral internal cerebral veins and basal veins of Rosenthal in the quadrigeminal cistern; unites with the inferior sagittal sinus at the falcotentorial junction to form the straight sinus

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45
Q

vein of Labbe

A

prominent posterior anastomotic vein that courses inferolaterally over the temporal lobe to drain into the transverse sinus - INFERIOR ANASTOMOTIC VEIN

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46
Q

vein of Trolard

A

dominant anastomotic superior cortical vein that receives the superficial middle cerebral vein and courses upward from the sylvian fissure to join the SSS - SUPERIOR ANASTOMOTIC VEIN

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47
Q

Miller-Dieker syndrome

A

classic lissencephaly + severe facial deformities; frontal bossing, hypertelorism, upturned nose, small jaw, and prominent upper lip with thin vermilion border

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48
Q

Nelson syndrome

A

rapid enlargement of a pituitary adenoma following bilateral adrenalectomy, presentation of corticotroph tumors

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49
Q

Pallister-Hall syndrome

A

digital malformations and other midline (epiglottis/larynx) and cardiac, renal, or anal anomalies in addition to the hypothalamic hamartomas

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50
Q

rhabdoid tumor predisposition syndrome

A

AD familial cancer syndrome characterized by a markedly increased risk of developing malignant rhabdoid tumors (MRT) including AT/RT; may develop AT/RT w/ a synchronous renal or extrarenal MRT; other CNS tumors assoc w/ RTPS: choroid plexus carcinoma and rhabdoid meningioma

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51
Q

Richter syndrome

A

transformation of CLL into diffuse large non-Hodgkin lymphoma

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52
Q

Pot puffy tumor

A

fluctuant (doughy), tender erythematous swelling of the frontal scalp; specific sign for frontal bone osteomyelitis w/ a subperiosteal asbscess; most occur in the setting of untreated frontal sinusisits; epidural empyema may for if posterior table of frontal sinus is breached;

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53
Q

Sheehan syndrome

A

ischemic necrosis of anterior pituitary due to severe postpartum hemorrhage, which may result to secondary empty sella; rare variant of pituitary apoplexy

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54
Q

Sneddon syndrome

A

antiphospholipid syndrome with widespread livedo reticularis and ischemic cerebrovascular episodes

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55
Q

Sturge-Weber syndrome

A

encephalo-trigeminal angiomatosis

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56
Q

Taylor cortical dysplasia

A

other term for focal cortical dysplasia

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57
Q

Walker-Warburg syndrome

A

triad of congenital muscular dystrophy, brain anomalies (primarily cobblestone cortex), and ocular abnormalities

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58
Q

Wyburn-Mason syndrome

A

AVMs are found in both the retina and brain

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59
Q

Richter hernias

A

involve only a portion of the antimesenteric wall of the bowel in the hernia sac

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60
Q

main duct of Wirsung

A

joins CBD at the sphincter of Oddi to enter the duodenum

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61
Q

accessory duct of Santorini

A

drains the anterior and superior portions of the pancreatic head; drains into the duodenum via the minor papilla

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62
Q

Caroli disease

A

rare congenital anomaly of the biliary tract characterized by sacular dilatation of the intrahepatic biliary tree, cholangitis, and gallstone formation in the absence of cirrhosis or portal hypertension

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63
Q

Caroli syndrome

A

Caroli disease + congenital hepatic fibrosis

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64
Q

Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber syndrome

A

cutaneous hemangioma, venous varicosities, soft tissue and bony hypertrophy of an extremity; associated with multiple splenic hemangiomas that appear strikingly cystic

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65
Q

Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber syndrome

A

associated with cavernous hemangioma of the colon

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66
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau disease

A

rare AD disorder characterized by cerebellar, spinal cord, and retinal hemangioblastomas, renal and pancreatic cysts, clear cell RCC, and pheochromocytoma

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67
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau disease

A

AD; cerebellar hemangioblastoas, retinal angiomatosis, RCCs, pheochromocytoma, or spinal hemangioblastomas

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68
Q

Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome

A

hereditary cancer syndrome associated with early development of multicentric and bilateral RCCs - just like vHL but RCC is of chromophobe type

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69
Q

Gerota fascia

A

anterior renal fascia; one layer of connective tissue; thin

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70
Q

Zuckerkandl fascia

A

posterior renal fascia; consists of 2 layers of connective tissue; thicker than the anterio renal fascia

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71
Q

Hasselbach triangle

A

inguinal triangle; lateral - inferior epigastric vessels, medial - edge of rectus, inferior - pubic bone

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72
Q

Petit triangle

A

inferior lumbar triangle; small triangle of internal oblique musculature just above the iliac crest, exposed as the EO muscle attaches anteriorly to the iliac crest and tendon of lat dorsi passes posteriorly; the site of spontaneous lumbar hernias

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73
Q

Spigelian hernia

A

classic site is in the aponeuroses of the transversus abdominis and IO muscles just lateral to the rectus abdominis near the level of the arcuate line; not apparent when small because they are confined deep to the strong EOM

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74
Q

Morgagni hernia

A

anterior hernia; retrosternal or just lateral to the xiphoid on either side; weakness at the site of penetration of the diaphragm by superior epigastric vessels

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75
Q

Bochdalek hernia

A

posterior hernia; incomplete closure of pleuroperitoneal canal; as likely on the right as on the left

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76
Q

Richter hernia

A

partial hernia involving only one side of the bowel wall

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77
Q

Boerhaave syndrome

A

violent vomiting leading to a distal esophageal tear

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78
Q

Nissen fundoplication

A

complete 360 deg wrap

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79
Q

Toupet fundoplication

A

partial 270 deg wrap

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80
Q

smooth muscle pacemaker cells of Cajal

A

from where GISTs arise

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81
Q

Krukenberg tumor

A

drop mets to the ovaries by gastric ca?

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82
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

increased gastric acid secretion secondary to the neuroendocrine tumor, gastrinoma; diffuse rugal fold thickening can be seen in this condition

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83
Q

Meckel diverticulum

A

remnant of omphalomesenteric duct; approximately 30 cm from ileocecal valve along the antimesenteric border of the ileum; seldom diagnosed on CT except for rare cases of complication

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84
Q

Whipple disease

A

malabsorptive state caused by gram+ bacillus; jejunal fold thickening and very low density bulky mesenteric lymphadenopathy

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85
Q

Whipple disease

A

multiorgan disorder caused by Trophermyema whippleii; multiple low-attenuation lymph nodes or diffuse mediastinal infiltration. Abnormal phagocystosis of bacteria results in extensive accumulation of macrophages w/ fatty vacuoles in affected organs.

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86
Q

SMA syndrome

A

mechanical obstruction of 3rd duodenum as it passes b/n aorta and SMA; usually setting of rapid weight loss to the point of cachexia; CT: abrupt tapering of 3rd duodenum as it crosses midline

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87
Q

Riedel’s lobe

A

MC congenital anomaly of the liver; excessive development; more common in women; senile accessory lobe that extends caudally from the inferior aspect of the right lobe and often has a bulbous configuration

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88
Q

von Meyenburg complexes

A

biliary hamartomas; benign malformations of bile ducts which present as small, cyst-like deformed bile ducts embedded within dense connective tissue

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89
Q

von Gierke disease

A

glycogen storage disease type I; hepatic adenomas are common

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90
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

rare; obstruction of hepatic venous outflow, at the level of the large hepatic veins or the IVC

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91
Q

Ivemark syndrome

A

congenital asplenia syndrome; right isomerism

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92
Q

Bouveret’s syndrome

A

obstruction at the level of the duodeum in whom a gallstone has gained access to the GIT via GB perforation

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93
Q

Rokitanksy-Aschoff sinuses

A

formed by overgrown mucosa protruding through the thickened muscular layer in adenomyomatosis

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94
Q

Caroli disease

A

type V choledochal cysts; communicating cavernous ectasia of the intrahepatic bile ducts; multiple cystic dilatations of the intrahepatic bile ducts

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95
Q

Mirrizzi syndrome

A

obstruction of CBD or CHD, usually in the setting of gallbladder neck or cystic duct obstruction by one or more impacted stones; propensity is enhanced in patients in whom the cystic duct parallels the CHD; definition has been expanded to include variants in w/c stones pass into CHD via a cholecystocholedochal fistula

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96
Q

Gamna-Gandy bodies

A

small siderotic nodules in the spleen that contain varying amounts of hemosiderin, fibrous tissue, and calcium

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97
Q

Gaucher disease

A

AR deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme glucocerebrosidase; accumulation within macrophages of glucocerebroside (a breakdown product from cell membranes)

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98
Q

Gaucher cells

A

lipid-laden macrophages

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99
Q

Santorini

A

dorsal duct

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100
Q

Wirsung

A

ventral duct

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101
Q

Schwachmann-Diamond syndrome

A

2nd mcc of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in children; lipomatosis of the pancreas is the typical pathologic feature of the syndrome

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102
Q

Schwachmann-Diamond syndrome

A

AR hereditary pancreatic disease; exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, neutropenia, metaphyseal dysostosis, and dwarfism; fatty replacement of the pancreas

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103
Q

Johansen-Blizzard syndrome

A

congenital aplasia of the alae nasi, deafness, hypothyroidism, dwarfism, absent permanent teeth, and malabsorption; pancreatic insufficiency. Total lack of normal panc and fatty replacement of pancreatic bed is the characteristic CT finding. DM will develop (in contrast to Schwachman-Diamond syndrome).

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104
Q

Castleman disease

A

idiopathic, benign entity characterized by proliferation of lymphoid tissue into tumoral masses

105
Q

Castleman disease

A

angiofollicular lymph node hyperplasia; less common cause of calcified lymph nodes

106
Q

May-Thurner syndrome

A

aka iliocaval compression syndrome; compression and partial obstruction of the left common iliac vein by the crossing right common iliac artery, w/c may result in chronic venous stasis or DVT in the LLE

107
Q

nutcracker syndrome

A

left renal vein is compressed between the aorta and abnormally steeply angled origination of the SMA; left renal vein hypertension -> varices around the renal hilum and proximal ureter

108
Q

column of Bertin

A

renal variant visualized as an anomalous thickened appearance of the renal cortex

109
Q

WAGR syndrome

A

Wilms, aniridia, GU abnormalities, retardation

110
Q

DRASH syndrome

A

Wilms, congenital nephropathy, pseudohermaphroditism

111
Q

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

omphalocele, macroglossia, gigantism, macrosomia, hemihypertrophy; Wilms tumor is associated

112
Q

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

inherited disorder w/ macrosomia, macroglossia, visceromegaly, omphalocele, embryonal tumors, adrenocortical cytomegaly, and renal abnormalities; neonatal hypoglycemia may also occur

113
Q

Bellini duct carcinoma

A

aka collecting duct carcinoma or renal medullary carcinoma; rare

114
Q

Conn syndrome

A

primary aldosteronism; excess adrenal production of the mineralocorticoid aldosterone

115
Q

Rokitansky-Meyer-Kuster-Hauser syndrome

A

failure of development of the mullerian ducts in association w/ congenital anomalies, usually of the skeleton

116
Q

Stein-Leventhal syndrome

A

triad of hirsutism, obesity, and amenorrhea; most have elevated LH; PCOS?

117
Q

pyriformis syndrome

A

increased T2 signal with associated damage to the sciatic nerve w/ resulting leg pain

118
Q

Kasabach-Merritt syndrome

A

hemangioendothelioma w/ bleeding diathesis secondary to platelet sequestration

119
Q

Kasabach-Merritt syndrome

A

consumptive coagulopathy; noted in hemangiomas

120
Q

Kasabach-Merritt syndrome

A

consumptive coagulopathy due to sequestration and destruction of clotting factors within the lesion; scalp hemangiomas presenting w/ this syndrome have been reported

121
Q

Rotter’s nodes

A

interpectoral lymph nodes

122
Q

Raider triangle

A

retrotracheal space; potential space between the posterior right half of trachea and posteriorly positioned right lateral wall of esophagus

123
Q

Kartagener’s syndrome

A

subset of ciliary dyskinesia syndrome; about 20% with situs inversus have Kartagener’s

124
Q

hypogenetic lung or scimitar syndrome

A

right lower lobe pulmonary vein draining caudally into an enlarged subdiaphragmatic IVC; small right lung, ipsilateral mediastinal displacement, a corresponding small PA, and occasionally PAPVR from the right lung to the IVC

125
Q

diverticulum of Kommerell

A

dilated origin of ARSA

126
Q

Whipple disease

A

multiorgan disorder caused by Trophermyema whippleii; multiple low-attenuation lymph nodes or diffuse mediastinal infiltration. Abnormal phagocystosis of bacteria results in extensive accumulation of macrophages w/ fatty vacuoles in affected organs.

127
Q

Whipple disease

A

malabsorptive state caused by gram+ bacillus; jejunal fold thickening and very low density bulky mesenteric lymphadenopathy

128
Q

Castleman disease

A

angiofollicular lymph node hyperplasia; less common cause of calcified lymph nodes

129
Q

Castleman disease

A

idiopathic, benign entity characterized by proliferation of lymphoid tissue into tumoral masses

130
Q

Marfan syndrome

A

2 major inherited connective tissue disorders known to affect the arterial wall

131
Q

midaortic dysplastic syndrome

A

infrequent cause of distal thoracic aorta stenosis; congenital, noninflammatory hypoplasia affecting the thoracoabdominal aorta

132
Q

Wegener granulomatosis

A

necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis that primarily involves the upper and lower RT, usually assoc w/ renal involvement; tracheal involvement is unusual and is most often a late manifestation of dse

133
Q

Mounier-Kuhn syndrome

A

tracheobronchomegaly; rare disorder characterized by dilatation of the trachea and main bronchi, secondary to atrophy of muscular and elastic tissues w/ both cartilaginous and membranous portions of the trachea being involved; results in easy collapsibility of central airways during expiration, w/c in turn predisposes to infection; transverse diameter of trachea is >3 cm; diameters of right and left main bronchi is >2.4 and 2.3 cm, respectively; with formation of diverticula in the wall, as the result of atrophy of the cartilage, muscles, and elastic tissues of the central airways

134
Q

Pancoast tumor

A

neoplasm that demonstrate invasion above the lung apex

135
Q

Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome

A

hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia; most of the multiple pulmonary arteriorvenous malformations occur in assoc w/ this condition

136
Q

Hamman-Rich syndrome

A

former name of acute interstitial pneumonia

137
Q

Sjogren syndrome

A

manifested by dry eyes and mouth and polyarthritis; pulmonary manifestations most commonly are in the form of lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia

138
Q

Loeffler syndrome

A

idiopathic acute pulmonary eosinophilia; typically involving the upper and mid lung zones and often transient and migratory

139
Q

Swyer-James syndrome

A

hyperlucent small or normal-sized lung with diminished vascular supply, believed to be a result of bronchiolitis obliterans occuring in early childhood as a complication of a viral infection

140
Q

Lady Windermere syndrome

A

form of M. avium intracellulare seen in older women with no predisposing illness; occur in fastidious elderly women who do not expectorate

141
Q

Berquist’s triad

A

rib fractures, spine/pelvic fractures, and diaphragmatic rupture

142
Q

Dressler’s syndrome

A

pericardial effusion postmyocardial infarction

143
Q

postpericardiotomy syndrome

A

pericardial effusion after cardiac surgery

144
Q

postpneumonectomy syndrome

A

Following a right pneumonectomy, mediastinum tends to rotate w/ a resultant transverse orientation of the aortic arch, and the contralateral lung herniates anteriorly. In general, the smaller the postpneumonectomy space is, the greater the lung herniation. The mediastinal shift may be extreme following a right pneumonectomy in children or thin adults that the distal trachea and remaining left mainstem bronchus are partially compressed between the aorta and left pulmonary artery, resulting in dyspnea or recurrent left lung infections.

145
Q

Poland syndrome

A

congenital absence of the pectoralis major and minor muscles

146
Q

SAPHO

A

synovitis, acne, palmoplantar pustulosis, hyperostosis, and osteitis; may simulate infection or neoplasm

147
Q

Tietze syndrome

A

inflammatory condition that includes chest pain as well as tenderness and swelling of the costal cartilage; can clinically mimic a chest wall mass

148
Q

Ollier disease

A

enchondromatosis

149
Q

Maffucci syndrome

A

enchondromatosis, hemangiomas

150
Q

Parsonage-Turner syndrome

A

brachial neuritis; may be caused by viral infection or its sequelae, complication of vaccine, antibiotic, or other drug, or may be idiopathic

151
Q

Blalock-Taussig shunt

A

connects subclavian artery to the pulmonary artery

152
Q

Waterston shunt

A

connects ascending aorta to right pulmonary artery

153
Q

Potts shunt

A

connects descending aorta to left pulmonary artery

154
Q

Glenn shunt

A

connects SVC to right pulmonary artery

155
Q

Hampton hump

A

lower lobe triangular or rounded opacity contiguous w/ the pleura w/ its apex directed toward the hilum; results from visualization of peripheral pulmonary infarction

156
Q

Fleischner lines

A

linear atelectasis / discoid/plate-like/subsegmental atelectasis

157
Q

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

A

tends to have symmetrical involvement progressing from proximal to distal (vs myotonic dystrophy - distal to proximal)

158
Q

Brodie’s abscess

A

form of subacute osteomyelitis that is esp common in children; radiographic features are those of a well-circumscribed lytic lesion with sclerotic borders in the metaphysis of a long bone

159
Q

Lisfranc joints

A

tarsometatarsal joints

160
Q

Chopart joints

A

talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints - midtarsal joints sa Google

161
Q

Segond’s fracture

A

avulsion fracture involving the mid-lateral tibial plateau (at the attachment of the anterolateral ligament)

162
Q

Segond fracture

A

lateral tibial rim fracture; may be assoc w/ ACL injuries; fracture at the location of the lateral compartment of the meniscotibial ligament / previously through to represent a bony ligamentous avulsion of the meniscotibial portion of the middle third of the lateral capsular ligament; associated with avulsion forces directed by the posterior fibers of the iliotibial tract or anterior oblique band of the LCL; small vertical avulsion of the LCL insertion in the lateral aspect of the proximal tibia

163
Q

reverse Segond fracture

A

avulsion fracture fragment on the medial aspect of the medial tibial plateau associated w/ the deep portion of the MCL; seen w/ disruption of the PCL and tears of the peripheral medial meniscus

164
Q

Sinding-Larsen-Johansson syndrome

A

avulsion of the inferior pole of the patella that can occur in children secondary to chronic avulsive forces

165
Q

Bennett lesion

A

extra-articular posterior capsular avulsive injury that may be assoc w/ a posterior labral injury; mineralization of the posterior band of the IGHL and posterior capsule from chronic traction forces

166
Q

HAGL lesions

A

humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament; avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the humerus; often assoc w/ subscap tendon tear

167
Q

BHAGL lesions

A

bony HAGL

168
Q

Hill-Sachs defect

A

impaction fracture on the posterolateral aspect of humeral head

169
Q

Bankart fracture

A

fracture of the AI glenoid

170
Q

Bankart lesion

A

detachment of the AI labrum from the glenoid w/ disruption of the anterior scapular periosteum - “cartilaginous” Bankart; “oseteocartilaginous” Bankart - (+) fracture of the AI glenoid

171
Q

ALPSA lesion

A

variation of the Bankart lesion; avulsion of the anterior labrum from the AI glenoid w/ intact anterior scapular periosteum that has been stripped from the bone (periosteal sleeve), but that remains attached to the labrum

172
Q

trough lesion

A

impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head after posterior shoulder dislocation

173
Q

reverse Bankart lesion

A

detachment of the posteroinferior labrum, w/c may or may not be assoc w/ a fracture of the posterior glenoid

174
Q

reverse Bankart fracture

A

impaction fracture of the posterior aspect of the glenoid after posterior shoulder dislocation

175
Q

SLAP lesion

A

tears involving the superior labrum that are oriented in an anterior and posterior direction; occur at attachment site of long head of biceps to the superior labrum

176
Q

bucket-handle tear of the labrum

A

tear extends longitudinally through the superior labrum separating it into superior and inferior labral fragments; inferior fragment may become unstable

177
Q

GLAD lesion

A

glenolabral articular disruption; focal chondral injury or defect, often with fraying or a subtle nondisplaced tear of the adj AI labrum

178
Q

Parsonage-Turner syndrome

A

acute brachial neuritis w/c is prob the consequence of a viral inflammation of the nerves, although the exact etiology is unknown

179
Q

Panner’s disease

A

osteochondrosis of the capitellum

180
Q

arcade of Struthers

A

common aponeurosis for the humeral head, origin of the FCU, origin of the FDS, and common intermuscular septum; can be released when present to avoid postsurgical ulnar nerve compression

181
Q

Kiloh-Nevin syndrome

A

anterior interosseous syndrome; rare compression neuropathy confined to the anterior interosseous nerve

182
Q

Guyon’s canal

A

ulnar tunnel; where the ulnar nerve, artery, and vein pass through

183
Q

Stener lesion

A

the ulnar collateral ligament when it is retracted proximally and displaced superficial to the adductor aponeurosis

184
Q

Lister’s tubercle

A

bony protuberance on the dorsum of the radius separating the 2nd and 3rd dorsal compartments

185
Q

Lister’s tubercle

A

most prominent dorsal radial ridge, separating the extensor pollicis longus tendon (ulnar side) from the extensor carpi brevis tendon (radial side); site of formation of bone spurs and attrition ruptures in RA

186
Q

de Quervain’s syndrome

A

entrapment and tenosynovitis of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons in the 1st dorsal compartment

187
Q

Kienbock’s disease

A

osteonecrosis of the lunate

188
Q

Sharpey’s fibers

A

anchors the annulus to the adjacent vertebral bodies / attaches the disks to the vertebral bodies

189
Q

Sharpey fibers

A

fibers in the outer ring of the annulus fibrosus that originate and insert in the compact cortical bone in the ring apophysis

190
Q

Tarlov cysts

A

dilated nerve root sleeves / arachnoid diverticula

191
Q

Baastrup’s disease

A

kissing spine; degenerative changes of the spinous processes and intervening interspinous soft tissues

192
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

A

idiopathic AVN of growing femoral epiphysis that results in a progressive deformity and outward displacement of the femoral head

193
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

A

childhood hip disorder that results in infarction of the bony epiphysis of the femoral head

194
Q

Salter fracture of the hip

A

medial, inferior, posterior slip of femoral head

195
Q

Wrisberg variant of a discoid lateral meniscus

A

discoid meniscus that can cause symptoms w/o being torn; lacks attachments to the capsule via the normal struts or fascicles and lacks attachments to the tibia via the coronary or meniscotibial ligaments at the posterior horn of the meniscus; only attachment to the posterior horn is the Wrisberg ligament

196
Q

ligament of Humphrey

A

meniscofemoral ligament that originates on the posterior medial femoral condyle and runs obliquely across the knee in the intercondylar notch, anterior to the PCL, and inserts to the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus

197
Q

ligament of Wrisberg

A

meniscofemoral ligament that originates on the posterior medial femoral condyle and runs obliquely across the knee in the intercondylar notch, posterior to the PCL, and inserts to the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus

198
Q

Gerdy’s tubercle

A

located at the anterolateral tibia where the iliotibial band inserts onto (biceps tendon and LCL insert onto the prox fibula via a conjoined attachment)

199
Q

Morel-Lavallee lesion

A

fluid collection at the subcutaneous fat-fascia interface along the anterior aspect of the knee, which may result from a shearing injury, force that causes this degloving injury; fat is sheared off os its attachment to the fascia and fluid accumulates in the injured tissue; often very difficult to treat due to a high rate of recurrence; see MC

200
Q

Kager’s triangle

A

triangular fat pad anterior to the Achilles tendon

201
Q

Haglund’s deformity

A

triad of retro-Achilles busitis, retrocalcaneal bursitis, and thickening/partial tearing of distal Achilles tendon

202
Q

Baxter’s nerve

A

inferior calcaneal nerve; can be impinged in plantar fasciitis causing denervation within abductor digiti minimi and potentially the flexor digitorum brevis and quadratus plantae muscles

203
Q

Freiberg’s infraction

A

osteonecrosis of the metatarsal heads, especially the 2nd, often seen in individuals who wear high heels

204
Q

Freiberg’s infraction

A

osteochondrosis of the metatarsal head, usually prior to closure of epiphyseal plate

205
Q

O’Donoghue’s triad

A

ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus injuries; associated w/ valgus stress in external rotation, aka clip injury; tears of the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus are also assoc w/ these lesions and are considered more serious

206
Q

Jones fracture

A

avulsion (?) or transverse fractures of the fifth metatarsal

207
Q

Wartenberg syndrome

A

superficial radial nerve syndrome; entrapment of the sensory branch of radial nerve in distal forearm; handcuff neuropathy or watch-strap nerve compression

208
Q

Mohr syndrome

A

orofacial digital syndrome II; reduplicated great toes bilaterally helps to identify OFD II and to distinguish it from OFD I

209
Q

median cleft face syndrome

A

hypertelorism, broad nasal root, and a median cleft nose (w/ or w/o median cleft upper lip, median cleft premaxilla, and cranium bifidum occultum frontalis)

210
Q

fossa of Rosenmuller

A

mucosa of the lateral pharyngeal recess

211
Q

nodes of Rouvier

A

lateral retropharyngeal lymph nodes

212
Q

sinus of Morgagni

A

gap in the upper margin of the pharyngobasilar fascia / notch along the superior aspect of the posterolateral margin of this fascia; through this gap the distal eustachian tube and levator palatini muscle pass on their way into the PMS; NPCA tends to escape the confines of the pharyngeal mucosal space through this, thereby accessing the skull base

213
Q

Warthin’s tumor

A

papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

214
Q

Warthon’s ducts

A

submandibular gland duct

215
Q

Ludwig’s angina

A

severe form of cellulitits, occurring 2-4 days after dental extraction from the lower alveolar ridge, w/ abscess in SLS and SMS

216
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome

A

triad of enlarged salivary glands w/ xerostomia (dry mouth), enlarged lacrimal glands w/ keratoconjunctivitis sicca, and CT disease (MC: RA)

217
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome

A

lymphocytic infiltration of the lacrimal and salivary glands causing decreased lacrimation and xerostomia; many have associated RA, SLE, scleroderma, and polymyositis

218
Q

Mikulicz’s syndrome

A

nonspecific enlargement of the lacrimal and salivary glands assoc w/ sarcoidosis, lymphoma, or leukemia

219
Q

Jacobson’s nerve

A

tympanic branch of CN IX; associated nerve in glomus tympanicum

220
Q

Jacobson’s nerve

A

tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve; glomus jugulare is located in the adventitia of the jugular bulb along this nerve

221
Q

Jacobsen’s nerve

A

tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, sensory to middle ear and bony eustachian tube, parasympathetic to parotid gland

222
Q

Wallenburg’s syndrome

A

lateral medullary syndrome; when PICA is occluded

223
Q

Wallenburg’s syndrome

A

PICA CVA

224
Q

von Recklinghausen syndrome

A

NF I

225
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

subacute thyroiditis; familian autoimmune thyroiditis; non-tender thyroid enlargement

226
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

atrophic mucosa, achlorhydria, and sideropenic anemia in women; hypopharyngeal ca is a complication of this syndrome

227
Q

Zinn’s ligamentous ring

A

common tendinous ring in the orbital apex / common annulus tendineus communis; origin of the 4 recti, superior oblique, and levator palpebrae muscles

228
Q

Coats’ disease

A

congenital vascular malformation of the retina char by multiple telangiectatic vessels; leads to retinal detachment

229
Q

Sturge-Weber syndrome

A

may be assoc w/ choroidal hemangiomas; mixture of port-wine vascular nevus flammeus, in CN V distrib (part or all of the face, may involve sclera), leptomeningeal venous angiomatosis, seiures, dementia, mental retardation, hemiparesis, hemianopia, congenital glaucoma, buphthalmos (cow eye), and visceral angiomas

230
Q

nasoantral windows and Caldwell-Luc procedure

A

“gold standard” surgical technique for the tx of maxillary sinusitis; Caldwell-Luc procedure - placement of hole in the anterior maxillary sinus wall just above the roots of the teeth

231
Q

Ohngren’s line

A

theoretic plane joining the medial canthus of the eye w/ the angle of the mandible

232
Q

Mondini malformation

A

any dysplasia of the inner ear; Harnsburger: loss of normal 2 1/2 turns to the cochlea

233
Q

Michel’s dysplasia

A

poorly documented, extremely rare disorder characterized by complete lack of development of the inner ear

234
Q

Gradenigo’s syndrome

A

petrous apicitis; retroorbital pain, 6th nerve palsy, otorrhea; osteomyelitic lesion of the petrous apex, oftwn w/ fluid in the ipsi middle ear anf mastoid

235
Q

Gradenigo’s syndrome

A

may be associated w/ endolymphatic sac tumors

236
Q

van der Hoeve’s syndrome

A

combination of osteogenesis imperfecta, otosclerosis, and blue sclera

237
Q

Albright’s syndrome

A

polyostotic, unilateral form of FD w/ ipsilateral cafe-au-lait spots and endocrine dysfunction that produces precocious puberty in girls

238
Q

Albright’s syndrome

A

polyostotic FD + pigmented skin macules and sexual precocity. Skin pigmentations have irregular margins (“coast of Maine”) as opposed to the smoother-bordered pigmentations (“coast of California”) of neurofibromatosis. Young girls

239
Q

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

A

histiocytosis X w/ involvement of soft tissues

240
Q

Kallmann’s syndrome

A

combination of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia secondary to agenesis of olfactory bulbs

241
Q

Kallman syndrome

A

olfactory aplasia/hypoplasia + hypogonadotropic hypogonadism; pituitary gland hypoplasia as well as visual and septal anomalies are common; neuronal migration disorder that results in hypoplastic or absent olfactory nerves and sulci

242
Q

Dorello’s canal

A

CN VI passes through somewhere in the sphenoid bone

243
Q

syndrome of Weber

A

ipsilateral III, contralateral hemiparesis; lesion in the III fascicles/crus cerebri

244
Q

Claude’s syndrome

A

ipsilateral III, contralateral hemiparesis and ataxia; lesion in the III fascicles/crus cerebri, red nucleus

245
Q

Millard-Gubler syndrome

A

ipsilateral VI and/or VII, contralateral hemiparesis; lesion in the ventral pons affecting the VI fascicles/corticospinal tract

246
Q

Bill’s bar

A

vertical bony ridge separating the facial nerve from the superior vestibular nerve; surgical landmark not usually seen on any imaging

247
Q

Haller’s cells

A

infarorbital ethmoid cells; pneumatized ethmoid air cells that project along the medial roof of the maxillary sinus and the most inferior portion of the lamina papyracea, below the ethmoid bulla and lateral to the uncinate process; most often arise from the anterior ethmoid air cells and are closely related to the infundibulum; contribute to the narrowing of the infundibulum and may also compromise the adj ostium of the maxillary sinuses

248
Q

Onodi cells

A

most posterior ethmoid cells, being superolateral to the sphenoid sinus and closely assoc w/ the optic nerve; posterior ethmoid cells extending into the sphenoid bone, situated either adjacent to or impinging upon the optic nerve

249
Q

Gorlin’s syndrome

A

nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome; assoc w/ early development of multiple basal cell ca, w/c can occur within preexisting sebaceous nevi, palmar and plantar pitting, and skeletal developmental abnormalities, as well as within POKCs

250
Q

Gardner’s syndrome

A

AD, consists of multiple osteomas, multiple colonic polyps, epidermoid and sebaceous cysts, desmoid tumors of the skin, and impacted supernumerary and permanent teeth

251
Q

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

A

disseminated chronic skeletal and extraskeletal form of histiocytosis X; intermediate stage b/n EG and Leterrer-Siwe disease; 3 classic signs: single/multiple sharply defined calvarial defects, unilateral/bilateral exophthalmos, and D.I.)

252
Q

Van der Hoeve’s syndrome

A

osteogenesis imperfecta; error in type I collagen formation manifested as deficiency in fibroblastic and osteoblastic activity; fragile bones, blue sclerae, and deafness

253
Q

Albers-Schonberg disease

A

osteopetrosis

254
Q

Lemierre’s syndrome

A

uncommon complication of acute pharyngotonsillitis in which an anaerobic oropharyngitis results in septic thrombophlebitis of the ispsilateral internal jugular vein, with subsequent septicemia and septic emboli, most often to the lungs and large joints. There usually is associated regional reactive lymphadenitis.

255
Q

Heerfordt’s syndrome

A

triad of involvement of parotid glands in patients with sarcoidosis who have uveitis and facial nerve paralysis

256
Q

Macewen’s triangle

A

postauricular location where by direct extension, mastoid disease may spread via a defect or thinning of the outer mastoid cortex to form a subperiosteal abscess

257
Q

Griesinger’s sign

A

perimastoid edema and cellulitis may occur, w/o a cortical defect, due to thrombosis of the mastoid emissary veins

258
Q

nodes of Virchow

A

most inferior nodes in the deep cervical chain