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Most common 2 Flashcards

LS

1
Q

MC site of schwannomas

A

skin and subcutaneous tissues (outside CNS)

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2
Q

MCC of unilateral sensorineural hearing loss

A

vestibulochochlear schwannoma

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3
Q

MCC of multiple enhancing CNs

A

mets

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4
Q

MC cerebellopontine cistern mass

A

vestibular schwannoma

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5
Q

MC of all Meckel cave tumors

A

schwannomas

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6
Q

MC jugular foramen schwannoma but still rare

A

glossopharyngeal schwannomas (IX)

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7
Q

MC site of facial nerve schwannomas

A

geniculate fossa

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8
Q

MC of the pure motor nerve shwannomas but rare

A

oculomotor (III)

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9
Q

MC location of CN III schwannoma

A

interpeduncular cistern (2nd mc: cavernous sinus)

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10
Q

MC reported sites of intraparenchymal schwannomas

A

frontal and temporal lobes

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11
Q

Scalp and orbital plexiform neurofibromas most commonly involve what nerve?

A

V1 (ophthalmic)

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12
Q

Most commonly affected CNs in malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors

A

vestibular, facial, and trigeminal

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13
Q

MC site of distant extracranial mets in malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors

A

lung

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14
Q

MC type of (CNS) lymphomas / Vast majority of primary CNS lymphomas / Approximately 80% of secondary CNS lymphomas

A

diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

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15
Q

Preferred site of primary CNS lymphomas

A

cerebral hemispheres - deep-seated w/ predilection for periventricular WM, esp the corpus callosum (next mc: basal ganglia and thalami)

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16
Q

MCC of a solitary ring-enhancing lesion in an HIV/AIDS patient

A

lymphoma

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17
Q

MC involved site in lymphomatoid granulomatosis

A

lung > skin

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18
Q

MC manifestation of LCH / MC overall manifestationf of LCH

A

bone lesions / skin and bone lesions

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19
Q

MC presenting symptom of CNS LCH

A

central diabetes insipidus

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20
Q

MC presentation of CNS LCH

A

craniofacial involvement

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21
Q

MC manifestations of LCH on NECT

A

one or more sharply marginated lytic skull or facial bone defects

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22
Q

Most commonly affected sites in LCH

A

craniofacial bones and skull base (followed by hypothalamic-pituitary region)

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23
Q

MC sites of LCH-related neurodegenerative lesions

A

brainstem and/or cerebellum (bilaterally symmetrical confluent T2/FLAIR typically in dentate nuclei)

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24
Q

MC site of punctate foci of parenchymal enhancement in LCH

A

pons

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25
Q

MC form of childhood cancer / MC malignancy in children

A

leukemia (ALL (80%) > AML)

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26
Q

Solitary bone plasmacytomas/solitary plasmacytomas are most commonly found in the?

A

vertebrae and skull

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27
Q

Solitary bone plasmacytomas occur most frequently in the?

A

spine > skull - always red marrow

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28
Q

MC primary bone malignancy

A

multiple myeloma

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29
Q

Most sensitive imaging modality for detecting diffuse and focal bony lesions

A

whole-body MR

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30
Q

MC etiologies/MC underlying causes of extramedullary hematopoiesis

A

anemias (thalassemia, SCD, hereditary spherocytosis) > myelofibrosis/myelodysplastic syndromes

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31
Q

MC site of extramedullary hematopoiesis

A

axial skeleton

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32
Q

MC head and neck sites of extramedullary hematopoiesis

A

face and skull

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33
Q

MC intracranial location of extramedullary hematopoiesis

A

subdural space

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34
Q

Pathologic hyperplasia most commonly occurs in response to?

A

end-organ failure

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35
Q

MCC of pathologic pituitary hyperplasia

A

primary hypothyroidism -> TSH cell hyperplasia

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36
Q

MC physiologic form of pituitary hyperplasia / MC etiology of pituitary hyperplasia

A

diffuse PRL cell hyerplasia (during preg and lactation) / PRL cell hyperplasia

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37
Q

MC abnormality in children w/ isolated growth hormone deficiency

A

hypoplastic pituitary gland (pag multiple - stalk abnormalities)

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38
Q

MC suprasellar mass in children / MC suprasellar mass in the pediatric population

A

craniopharyngioma (2nd MC: optic pathway/hypothalamic pilocytic astrocytoma)

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39
Q

MC nonglial neoplasm in children

A

craniopharyngioma

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40
Q

MC nonneuroepithelial intracranial neoplasm in children

A

craniopharyngioma

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41
Q

MC site of ectopic pituitary adenomas

A

sphenoid sinus

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42
Q

2 MC pituitary adenomas

A

prolactinomas and GH-secreting tumors

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43
Q

MC extracranial sources of mets to the stalk and/or pituitary gland

A

lung and breast

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44
Q

MC type of hypophysitis

A

lymphocytic hypophysitis (MC in pregnant and postpartum females - difficult to distinguish from physiologic PRL cell hyperplasia; if (+) stalk enlargement - hypophysitis > hyperplasia)

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45
Q

MC site of sarcoidosis

A

hilar lymph nodes

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46
Q

MC type of sphenoid pneumatization

A

sellar

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47
Q

5 MC overall suprasellar masses / big 5

A

macroadenoma, meningioma, aneurysm, craniopharyngioma, and astrocytoma

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48
Q

MC calvarial site of fibrous dysplasia

A

frontal bone

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49
Q

MC sites of FD in the face

A

orbit, zygoma, maxilla, and mandible

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50
Q

2nd MC pediatric primary skull lesion (after dermoid cysts)

A

fibrous dysplasia

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51
Q

Most exaggerated example of abnormal osseous remodeling

A

Padet disease

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52
Q

Most commonly affected CN in Paget disease

A

CN VIII

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53
Q

MC overall aneurysmal bone cyst location

A

metaphysis of long bones 70-80% (vertebrae, generally posterior elements 15%)

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54
Q

2nd mc pathologically proven bone tumor of childhood

A

aneurysmal bone cyst

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55
Q

MC site of chordomas

A

sacrum > sphenooccipital (clival) region > spine

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56
Q

Most helpful feature in the classification of intracranial cysts

A

location

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57
Q

MC scalp mass in children

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

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58
Q

3 statistically mc scalp cysts

A

epidermoid, trichilemmal, and dermoid

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59
Q

MC type of extraaxial cyst / MC off-midline extraaxial supratentorial cyst / 2nd MC cystic-appearing extraaxial mass in the CPA cistern (after epidermoid) / MC of all congenital intracranial cysts / MC nonneoplastic intracranial cyst

A

arachnoid cyst

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60
Q

Nearly 2/3 of arachnoid cysts are found in the?

A

middle cranial fossa, anteromedial to the temporal lobe (next mc: cerebral convexity, pred over frontal lobes 15%)

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61
Q

MC supratentorial midline location for arachnoid cysts (although relatively rare)

A

suprasellar cistern > quadrigeminal cistern and velum interpositum

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62
Q

MC location of arachnoid cysts in the posterior fossa

A

CPA cistern > retrocerebellar

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63
Q

Best sequences to distinguish cystic-appearing intracranual masses from one another

A

FLAIR and DWI

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64
Q

MC intracranial developmental cyst / 3rd mc CPA mass (after vestibular schwannoma and meningioma) / MC cystic mass in the CPA

A

epidermoid cyst

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65
Q

Single mc site of epidermoid cysts

A

CPA cistern - nearly half (other locations: middle cranial fossa (sylvian fissure) and parasellar region - 10-15%)

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66
Q

MC site of dermoid cysts

A

suprasellar cistern > posterior fossa and frontonasal region

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67
Q

MC location of intracranial neurenteric cysts

A

midline posterior fossa (anterior to the pontomedullary junction)

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68
Q

MC CNS site of neurenteric cysts

A

spine > skull - always red marrow

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69
Q

MC parenchymal cysts

A

prominent perivascular spaces > hippocampal sulcus remnants

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70
Q

MC nonneoplastic parenchymal brain “cysts”

A

perivascular spaces

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71
Q

Perivascular spaces have striking predilection for?

A

inferior 3rd of basal ganglia, esp near anterior commissure

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72
Q

MC site of neuroglial cysts

A

frontal lobe (supratentorial) (adj to but no communication w/ ventricles)

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73
Q

MC location of choroid plexus cysts

A

atrium of the lateral ventricle (within the choroid plexus glomus)

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74
Q

MC of all intracranial cysts

A

choroid plexus cysts

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75
Q

MC “lesion” that mimics a colloid cyst on MR

A

pulsatile CSF flow

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76
Q

MC location of ependymal cysts

A

atrium of the lateral ventricles

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77
Q

Largest and most prominent of the deep GM nuclei

A

thalami

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78
Q

MC bilateral basal ganglia lesions

A

normal variants, such as physiologic calcification and prominent perivascular spaces

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79
Q

MCC of abnormality in the bilateral basal ganglia

A

vascular, hypoxic-schemic insults, common metab disorders, such as chronic liver failure

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80
Q

MC lesion to affect the putamen

A

hypertensive hemorrhage

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81
Q

Part of basal ganglia most sensitive to hypoxia

A

globus pallidus

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82
Q

Most commonly affected locations in Wernicke encephalopathy

A

mammillary bodies, hypothalamus, medial thalamic nuclei (adj to 3rd ventricle), tectal plate, and periaqueductal GM

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83
Q

MCC of Wernicke encephalopathy

A

alcohol use disorder

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84
Q

Most characteristic imaging feature of methanol poisoning

A

bilateral basal ganglia

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85
Q

Most commonly abused opioid

A

heroin

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86
Q

MC acute complication of injected heroin

A

stroke (inhaled - leukoencephalopathy)

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87
Q

MC secondary complication of heroin abuse

A

infection - endocarditis

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88
Q

Radiation-induced vascular malformations are most commonly seen in?

A

children who have recevied whole-brain RT for ALL

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89
Q

Single most important risk factor for developing a new primary CNS neoplasm

A

radiotherapy (70% meningiomas, 20% malignant astrocytomas or medulloblastomas)

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90
Q

2 mc abnormalities in chemotherapy-assoc acute toxic CNS injury

A

PRES and treatment-induced leukoencephalopathy

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91
Q

MC single protein or enzyme deficiency disease to present in childhood

A

X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy

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92
Q

MC inborn error of amino acid metabolism

A

phenylketonuria

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93
Q

2nd mc inherited disorder of amino acid metabolism

A

nonketotic hyperglycinemia

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94
Q

MC type of neurodegeneration w/ brain iron accumulation (NBIA)

A

PKAN - panthothenate kinase-associated neurodegeneration

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95
Q

MC manifestation of acute hypertensive encephalopathy

A

PRES

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96
Q

MC overall cause of PRES

A

preeclampsia

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97
Q

MC imaging pattern of PRES

A

dominant parieto-occipital pattern

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98
Q

MC overall condition predisposing to malignant hypertension

A

essential hypertension

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99
Q

2nd mc manifestation of chronic hypertensive enceph (after WM lesions)

A

microhemorrhages

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100
Q

MC location of hypertensive microhemorrhages

A

basal ganglia

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101
Q

Childhood hypoglycemic enceph is most commonly associated w/ ?

A

type 1 DM

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102
Q

MCC of transient (neonatal/infantile) hypoglycemia

A

maternal diabetes

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103
Q

MCC of severe, persistent (neonatal/infantile) hypoglycemia

A

congenital hyperinsulinemia

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104
Q

MC imaging abnormality in patients w/ acute DKA

A

vasogenic cerebral edema

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105
Q

MC location for an ectopic thyroid

A

central tongue base

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106
Q

MC findings in the brain in primary hyperparathyroidism

A

basal ganglia calcifications on NECT

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107
Q

MCC of secondary HPTH

A

chronic renal disease

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108
Q

MC progressive compressive CN involvement/neuropathy in secondary hyperparathyroidism due to renal osteodystrophy

A

optic neuropathy

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109
Q

Most commonly associated condition / MCC of cytotoxic lesions of the corpus callosum

A

use and subsequent withdrawal of antiepileptic drugs

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110
Q

Iron accumulation is greatest in the?

A

pars reticulata of the substantia nigra

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111
Q

MC site of obstructing membranes

A

foramina of Luschka

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112
Q

MC mass found at the foramen of Monro

A

colloid cyst

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113
Q

MC tumor that causes intraventricular obstructive hydrocephalus in children

A

medulloblastoma

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114
Q

MC general imaging feature of normal pressure hydroceph

A

ventriculosulcal disproportion

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115
Q

Spontaneous intracranial CSF leaks are most commonly associated with

A

arachnoid granulations in the lateral sphenoid sinus

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116
Q

Largest and deepest of all cranial fossae

A

posterior fossa

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117
Q

MC type of Chiari malformation

A

Chiari 1

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118
Q

MC of all congenital brain malformations / MC CNS malformation / Single mc malformation that accompanies other developmental brain anomalies and syndrome

A

anomalies of the cerebral commissures (especially the corpos callosum) / corpus callosum dysgenesis

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119
Q

MC congenital cerebellar malformation

A

Dandy-Walker malformation

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120
Q

MC presentation of DWM

A

increased ICP sec to hydrocephalus

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121
Q

MC brain morphologic defects in fetal alcohol syndrome

A

CC agenesis and regional increases in cortical thickness

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122
Q

MC inherited cause of mental retardation in boys

A

fragile X syndrome

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123
Q

MC causes of secondary microcephaly

A

ischemia, infection, maternal diabetes, and trauma

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124
Q

MC and mildest form of primary microcephaly

A

microcephaly with simplified gyral pattern (MSG)

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125
Q

MC type of focal cortical dysplasia

A

Type IIb

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126
Q

Single mcc of severe early-onset drug-resistant epilepsy in children and young adults

A

focal cortical dysplasias

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127
Q

MC form of cortical malformation in adults

A

periventricular nodular heterotopia (PVNH)

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128
Q

MC associated abnormality w/ PVNH

A

ventriculomegaly

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129
Q

Mildest form of classic licencephaly

A

subcortical band heteroptopia / double cortex syndrome

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130
Q

MC location of polymicrogyria

A

bilateral perisylvian

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131
Q

MC imaging abnormality in infants with CMV infection / MC malformation of cortical development associated with CMV infection

A

polymicrogyria (more common than calcification)

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132
Q

Most severe end of the holoprosencephaly continuum

A

aprosencephaly and atelencephaly (AP/AT) - rare

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133
Q

Most severe form of holoprosencephaly

A

alobar

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134
Q

MC form of holoprosencephaly

A

alobar > semilobar > lobar > unclassifiable

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135
Q

MC human forebrain malformation / Only malformation in which the posterior corpus callosum forms while the anterior aspects are absent

A

holoprosencephaly

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136
Q

Most developed and least anomalous form of HPE

A

lobar

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137
Q

MC CNS tumor predisposition syndromes

A

neurofibromatoses

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138
Q

MC CNS neoplasm in NF1 / MC glioma in NF1

A

pilocytic astrocytoma

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139
Q

MC site of NF1 pilocytic astrocytomas

A

optic pathway

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140
Q

MC site of plexiform neurofibromas

A

orbit

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141
Q

MC sites of meningiomas in NF2

A

falx and cerebral convexities

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142
Q

2nd MC inherited tumor syndrome (after NF1)

A

tuberous sclerosis complex

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143
Q

MC site of subependymal nodules in tuberous sclerosis complex

A

along the caudothalamic groove

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144
Q

MC site of hemangioblastomas

A

dorsal half of the cerebellum (2nd: medulla)

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145
Q

MC site of supratentorial hemangioblastomas

A

pituitary stalk

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146
Q

MC location of leptomeningial angioma in Sturge-Weber

A

parietooccipital

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147
Q

MC site of extracutaneous hemangiomas

A

subglottis

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148
Q

MC location of atretic cephalocele (contains just dura, fibrous tissue, and degenerated brain tissue)

A

obelion (sagittal suture at the level of the parietal foramina)

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149
Q

MC type of cephalocele in European/North America Caucasians / MC type of cephalocele among Caucasians

A

occipital

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150
Q

MC location of congenital cephalocele

A

squamous portion of occipital bone

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151
Q

MC type of cephalocele in SEA

A

frontoethmoidal

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152
Q

MC type of cephalocele among Australian aborigines, Malaysians, and select Southeast Asian groups

A

sincipital (sabi ni Osborn synonymous ang frontoethmoidal at sincipital)

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153
Q

MC of the 3 subtypes of frontoethmoidal cephaloceles

A

frontonasal > nasoethmoidal > nasoorbital

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154
Q

MC single-suture craniosynostosis / MC nonsyndromic craniosynostosis

A

sagittal/scaphocephaly > coronal > metopic > lambdoid

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155
Q

Rarest type of nonsyndromic craniosynostoses

A

lambdoid

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156
Q

MC syndromic craniosynostosis

A

bilateral coronal

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157
Q

MC of all soft tissue tumors

A

ordinary lipoma

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158
Q

MC overall site of intracranial lipomas

A

interhemispheric fissure (supratentorial, mostly in or near midline)

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159
Q

MC posterior fossa site of intracranial lipomas

A

CPA cistern

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160
Q

Prob the MCC of marrow reconversion seen on MRI

A

incidental finding in women who are obese (and who are often smokers)

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161
Q

MC tendon abnormalities seen on MRI

A

degeneration, tenosynovitis, and tears

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162
Q

Most commonly affected tendon in xanthomas

A

Achilles tendon and extensor tendons of the hand

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163
Q

MC injuries in sports

A

muscle strains

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164
Q

Fascial herniation of muscle is most commonly seen where?

A

anterior lower leg or thigh

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165
Q

Most commonly involved in (diabetic) muscle ischemia

A

thigh, especially the vastus musculature (80%); next is the calf (20%)

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166
Q

Site most commonly involved in fibrolipomatous hamartoma

A

hand, especially the median nerve

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167
Q

Most commonly affected by ganglion cysts

A

peroneal nerve at the knee

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168
Q

MC location of pain and numbness because of Morton’s neuromas

A

2nd and 3rd web spaces

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169
Q

MC locations for Morton’s neuroma

A

2nd and 3rd intermetatarsal spaces

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170
Q

MC sites of involvement of Brodie’s abscess (or subacute osteomyelitis?)

A

tibia and femur

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171
Q

Most specific sign of active chronic osteomyelitis

A

sequestrum (best shown w/ CT)

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172
Q

MC causative agent of pyomyositis

A

S. aureus

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173
Q

MC sites of involvement of neuroathropathy (diabetes)

A

Lisfranc joints, Chopart joints (talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints), and subtalar joints

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174
Q

MC tumor-like entities that originate in joints and may manifest as a swollen joint

A

synovial chondromatosis and PVNS

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175
Q

MC site of loose bodies

A

knee

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176
Q

MC location of intraosseous lipoma

A

calcaneus, proximal femur, and humerus

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177
Q

MC benign tumor of bone

A

osteochondroma

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178
Q

MC mechanism of injury that results in a complete tear of the ACL

A

twisting force combined with a valgus stress

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179
Q

MC mechanism of ACL injury

A

forced valgus in external rotation

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180
Q

Site that is most vulnerable to injuries from excessive tensile forces

A

musculotendinous junction

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181
Q

MC site of avulsion fractures

A

pelvis

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182
Q

MC avulsion fracture in upper limb

A

medial epicondyle apophysis (common flexor/pronator tendon) in children

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183
Q

MCC of insufficiency fractures

A

osteoporosis

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184
Q

MC site of transient osteoporosis

A

hips

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185
Q

MC site of spontaneous osteonecrosis of the knee

A

weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle

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186
Q

MC site of osteochondritis dissecans

A

knee, ankle, elbow

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187
Q

MC site of osteochondritis dissecans in the knee

A

lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle along its non-weight-bearing surface

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188
Q

MC location of partial-thickness tears of the supraspinatus tendon

A

undersurface/articular aspect (rather than superior/bursal surface)

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189
Q

MC partial-thickness tear / MC cuff tear of all kinds

A

rim rent tear - insertional fibers of the cuff on the greater tuberosity are disrupted from the bone / PASSTA or PASTA lesions - partial supraspinatus tendon avulsion; can occur either anteriorly on greater tuberosity involving supraspinatus or posteriorly on greater tuberosity involving infraspinatus

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190
Q

Abnormalities in posterosuperior impingement most commonly affects the?

A

supraspinatus tendon, posterosuperior labrum, and humeral head where the greater tuberosity abuts the posteriosuperior glenoid during abduction and ER

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191
Q

After rotator cuff disease, the major abnormality that affects the shoulder

A

instability

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192
Q

Most variable of the 3 glenohumeral ligaments / Most variable in morphology of all the anterior glenohumeral capsular ligaments

A

middle

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193
Q

Most important of the glenohumeral ligaments for anterior and posterior joint stabilization

A

inferior

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194
Q

Glenohumeral ligament most frequently affected with instability

A

inferior

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195
Q

Largest and most important of the glenohumeral ligaments

A

IGHL or IGL

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196
Q

MC of all glenohumeral joint instabilities

A

anterior instability, particularly that prooduced by lesions of the IGHL-labral complex

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197
Q

Primary restraint to anterior translation of the humeral head at 90 deg of abduction

A

anterior band of the IGHL

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198
Q

MC labral shapes

A

triangular > round > flat > absent

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199
Q

Bennett lesion is most commonly seen in?

A

pitchers

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200
Q

MC injury after anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint

A

Bankart lesion

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201
Q

MC location of paralabral cysts

A

seen postero-superiorly in assoc w/ a superior or posterior labral tear

202
Q

MC location of posterior labral tears

A

posterior superior quadrant of the glenoid labrum

203
Q

MC predisposing factors for adhesive capsulitis

A

trauma, immobilization, hemiplegia, DM, cervical disk disease

204
Q

MC site of calcium hydroxyapatite deposition

A

around the shoulder, w/ the supraspinatus tendon being the site most frequently involved

205
Q

MCC of suprascapular nerve compression

A

ganglion cyst (usually assoc w/ superior or posterior labral tear)

206
Q

2nd MC site of osteonecrosis after the femoral head

A

humeral head

207
Q

MC site of osteonecrosis in the humeral head

A

superomedial aspect

208
Q

MC signal in the center of osteonecrosis

A

fat

209
Q

MC benign tumors that affect the shoulder girdle

A

lipoma and benign fibrous histiocytoma

210
Q

MC primary bone tumor found incidentally on shoulder MRI

A

enchondroma

211
Q

MC focal primary malignant tumor in the shoulder

A

chondrosarcoma

212
Q

MC malignant processes that affect the shoulder

A

mets and myeloma

213
Q

MC malignant soft tissue tumors in the shoulder

A

malignant fibrous histiocytoma and liposarcoma

214
Q

Most sensitive for assessing fracture and edema

A

T1, STIR, and fat-suppressed FSE

215
Q

Least sensitive technique for evaluating marrow

A

GRE

216
Q

MCC of lateral ulnar collateral ligament rupture

A

posterior dislocation or varus stress, often FOOSH

217
Q

MC ulnar collateral ligament tear

A

midsubstance rupture of the anterior bundle

218
Q

Most commonly (completely) torn tendon of the elbow

A

distal biceps tendon (but uncommon, 3% of all biceps ruptures)

219
Q

Least commonly ruptured tendon in the body

A

triceps

220
Q

MC location of elbow pain in the general population

A

lateral aspect of the elbow

221
Q

MC neuropathy / Most frequently injured nerve in the elbow

A

ulnar neuropathy / cubital tunnel syndrome / ulnar nerve - because superficial

222
Q

MCC of median nerve entrapment

A

pronator syndrome

223
Q

MCC of pronator syndrome/median nerve compression

A

2 heads of pronator teres w/ pronation / dynamic compression by the pronator teres muscle

224
Q

MC causes for distention of the olecranon bursa

A

gout, trauma (hemorrhage), and infection

225
Q

Strongest portion of scapholunate ligament / Most important for carpal instability

A

dorsal portion

226
Q

Results in the MC type of carpal instability

A

scapholunate pathology

227
Q

MC instability in wrist / MC carpal instability syndrome

A

dorsal intercalated segmental instability (DISI) / scapholunate dissociation

228
Q

2nd MCC of carpal instability

A

tears of the lunotriquetral ligament - VISI

229
Q

Largest ligament of the wrist

A

radiolunotriquetral ligament

230
Q

Primary stabilizer of the distal radioulnar joint

A

triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC)

231
Q

Main component of TFCC that is most often abnormal

A

TCF

232
Q

Which surface are partial tears of the TFC noted more frequently

A

proximal articulating surface (facing the distal RU joint)

233
Q

Location where the carpal tunnel is most constricted

A

level of the hook of the hamate

234
Q

MC compressive neuropathy that affects the upper extremity

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

235
Q

MCC of carpal tunnel syndrome

A

tenosynovitis of flexor tendons from overuse of the hands (sa Stoller, median neuritis is most often idiopathic)

236
Q

MCC of postoperative failure in carpal tunnel syndrome

A

incomplete release of the flexor retinaculum

237
Q

MC nerve in the body to be affected by fibrolipomatous hamartoma

A

median nerve

238
Q

MC fractured carpal bone / Largest and most radial bone in the proximal row / MC fractures of the carpus

A

scaphoid / scaphoid fractures

239
Q

2nd mc fracture of the carpus

A

fractures of the triquetrum

240
Q

2 MC sites for osteonecrosis in the wrist

A

proximal pole of the scaphoid and the lunate

241
Q

MC carpal coalition

A

lunate and triquetrum / lunotriquetral fusion

242
Q

MCC of a mass involving the wrist

A

ganglion cyst

243
Q

2nd MC soft tissue mass of the hand and wrist

A

giant cell tumors of the tendon sheath

244
Q

MC soft tissue masses in the hand and wrist

A

ganglion cysts, GCTs of the tendon sheath, nerve sheath tumors, soft tissue chondromas, glomus tumors, and anomalous muscles

245
Q

MC site of GCTs of the tendon sheath

A

volar aspects of the fingers

246
Q

(Some clinicians believe this to be the) Leading cause of failed disk surgery

A

missed sequestrations

247
Q

About 90% of all focal disk abnormalities in the lumbar spine occur at?

A

L4-L5 / L5-S1

248
Q

About 90% of all focal disk abnormalities in the cervical spine occur at?

A

C5-C6 and C6-C7

249
Q

Earliest marrow changes encountered

A

Modic type 1

250
Q

Nerve appears to be most readily identified in which aspect of the foramen?

A

superior and medial aspect (because of the large dorsal root ganglion)

251
Q

When is fibrosis best displayed?

A

after injection of gadolinium

252
Q

When is the degree of enhancement of postop fibrosis greatest?

A

1st yr after surg

253
Q

MC causes of failed back surgery

A

recurrent or persistent disk extrusions, postop scarrring, nerve root damage/neuritis, and inadequate surgery (missed free fragments, inadequate decompression of spinal stenosis, wrong level treated, or what was treated was not the pain source)

254
Q

MC appearance of avascular necrosis of the femoral head

A

focal serpiginous low signal line w/ fatty center b/n 10:00 and 2:00 on coronal (anterosuperior quadrant)

255
Q

MC finding in Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

A

diffuse low signal in the femoral head on T1 and T2

256
Q

Best predictor of growth arrest in Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

A

physeal bridging

257
Q

MC location of stress fractures in the femoral neck

A

medial aspect (compressive surface)

258
Q

MC malignant entities that affect hip and pelvis

A

mets and myeloma (plasmacytoma)

259
Q

Most frequently injured thigh muscles

A

hamstring muscles

260
Q

Of the 4 adductor muscles, chiefly implicated in groin pain in athlethes (athletic pubalgia)

A

adductor longus (usually microtear at pubic attachment)

261
Q

Largest bursa in the body

A

iliopsoas bursa

262
Q

MC malignant ST tumor in the hip

A

malignant fibrohistiocytoma

263
Q

MC location of labral tears

A

anterosuperior (US); posterior (Asians) - squatting position

264
Q

MC disease process affecting the sacroiliac joint

A

osteoarthritis

265
Q

MC type of meniscal tear

A

oblique/horizontal tear that affects the undersurface of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus - commonly degenerative

266
Q

Most reliable sign for a radial tear

A

cleft

267
Q

More commonly affected in discoid meniscus

A

lateral meniscus

268
Q

MC knee bursa

A

popliteal bursa / Baker’s cyst / semimembranosus-gastrocnemius bursa

269
Q

Most commonly involved in meniscal tear with double anterior horn sign

A

lateral meniscus

270
Q

MC location of Morel-Lavalle lesion

A

gluteal region

271
Q

MC location of posterior tibial tendon tears

A

at the level of the medial malleolus (rather than more distally)

272
Q

MC location of tibialis posterior tendon injuries

A

midportion at the level of and immediately distal to the medial malleolus, corresponding to the relative zone of tendon hypovascularity

273
Q

MC abnormal tendon on the medial side of the ankle

A

posterior tibial tendon

274
Q

Most likely of all anterior tendons to be abnormal

A

anterior tibial tendon

275
Q

Most commonly torn of the ankle ligaments

A

anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)

276
Q

MCC of sinus tarsi syndrome (70%)

A

trauma

277
Q

2 MCC of tarsal tunnel syndrome

A

ganglion cysts and nerve sheath tumors

278
Q

2 MC types of tarsal coalition

A

calcaneonavicular and talocalcaneal

279
Q

MC syndromes in the foot

A

os trigonum syndrome/posterior ankle impingement syndrome, accessory navicular bone, hallux sesamoids

280
Q

MC ST abnormality to occur in the region of the hallux sesamoids

A

turf toe

281
Q

MC malignant ST tumor of the foot

A

synovial sarcoma

282
Q

MC accessory muscles encountered in the foot and ankle

A

accessory soleus and peroneus quartus muscles

283
Q

MC location of neuropathic changes / MC site of neuropathic
osteoarthropathy in diabetes

A

tarsometatarsal joints / Lisfranc joint

284
Q

Most sensitive and specific technique for evaluation of chondrocalcinosis and CPPD deposition disease

A

T2* gradient-echo contrast

285
Q

Most anterior hip muscle

A

sartorius

286
Q

Most posteromedial tendon on axial knee images at the joint line

A

semitendinosus

287
Q

MC initial location of chondral degeneration in the hip joint

A

anterior superior quadrant

288
Q

Most commonly involved in avascular necrosis

A

femoral head

289
Q

MC site of muscle strain

A

midsubstance location

290
Q

(MC location of muscle fiber failure / weakest biomechanical link)

A

muscle-tendon unit

291
Q

Most frequently injured quadriceps muscle

A

rectus femoris

292
Q

Structures in the hip region most prone to avulsion injury

A

iliac crest, ASIS, AIIS, lesser and greater trochanters, ischial tuberosity, acetabular rim, adductor insertion at the symphysis pubis

293
Q

MCC of the piriformis syndrome

A

trauma to the gluteal region

294
Q

MC type of the snapping hip syndrome or coxa saltans

A

external

295
Q

MC type of femoroacetubular impingement / MC mechanism of femoroacetabular impingement

A

mixed cam-pincer / mixed cam-pincer impingement

296
Q

Most substantial part of the labrum

A

posterior superior extent (anteroinferiorly - thinner)

297
Q

MC location of labral tears

A

anterosuperior (US); posterior (Asians) - squatting position

298
Q

MC location of labral tears

A

anteroposterior or posterosuperior

299
Q

MC type of (traumatic) labral tears

A

radial flap

300
Q

MC location of paralabral cysts

A

anterosuperior > posterosuperior, inferior

301
Q

MC femoral head migration in OA (?)

A

superolateral

302
Q

MC location of loose bodies

A

acetabular fossa

303
Q

MC source of chondral debris

A

OA

304
Q

Most commonly affected locations in the hip by RA

A

femoral head, acetabulum, and joint capsule

305
Q

Most commonly affected joint in pigmented villonodular synovitis

A

knee

306
Q

Most frequently involved in stress fractures of the hip

A

femoral neck

307
Q

MC acetabular fracture type

A

posterior wall fracture / posterior lip or posterior rim fracture

308
Q

MC type of associated or complex acetabular fracture

A

transverse and posterior wall fracture

309
Q

Most complex of acetabular fractures

A

fracture of both anterior and posterior columns

310
Q

Most weight-bearing surface of the acetabulum

A

posterior wall

311
Q

MC type of hip dislocation (90%)

A

posterior (femoral head lateral and superior to the acetabulum)

312
Q

MCC of hip dislocations

A

traumatic injurues from motor vehicle accidents and sports injuries

313
Q

MC mechanism of hip dislocations in older patients over 65 yo

A

trauma secondary to a fall

314
Q

MC infecting organism in osteomyelitis among all age groups

A

Staph aureus

315
Q

View/images that provide the most information in early synovial reactions (defining the free-edge contour of Hoffa’s fat pad) and cartilage erosions in patients with degenerative or inflammatory arthritis

A

sagittal

316
Q

MC location of meniscal grade 2 signal intensity / Receives the greatest femoral tibial forces during biomechanical loading / MC location for the occurrence of a meniscal tear / Grade 3 signal intensity is most frequent in? / Horizontal tears are mc within? / Flap tears most commonly involve the?

A

posterior horn of medial meniscus

317
Q

MC classic radial meniscal tear

A

involves the anterior horn-body junction of the free edge of the lateral meniscus

318
Q

MC clinical tear type

A

flap tears

319
Q

MC findings in flap tears / MC meniscal tear type / Most commonly seen tear pattern

A

vertical grade 3 signal intensity in the inner 1/3 to 1/2 of the meniscus and relative deficiency of the inferior surface of the meniscus

320
Q

Most specific secondary sign in ACL tear / Most commonly seen osseous injury associated w/ ACL tears

A

lateral compartment osseous contusions (posterolateral tibial plateau)

321
Q

Most commonly involved component of ACL in incomplete or partial tears

A

anteromedial bundle

322
Q

MC and successful procedure for ACL reconstruction

A

bone-patellar tendon-bone graft using central (middle) third of the patellar tendon

323
Q

MC injury present in graft impingement

A

fractured bundles involving the anterior portion of the graft

324
Q

MCC of failed ACL reconstruction

A

anteriorly placed femoral tunnel

325
Q

MC site of PCL tears

A

midportion

326
Q

MCC of damage to the PCL

A

MVA (dashboard injuries) and injuries sustained in contact sports such as football

327
Q

Most sensitive signs of grade II MCL injury

A

fascial edema and loss of demarcation from adjacent fat

328
Q

MC patellar facet configuration

A

type 2 (medial facet is smaller than the lateral)

329
Q

MC form of patellar malalignment and abnormal tracking

A

lateral subluxation of the patella

330
Q

MC location of patellar chondromalacia

A

central area (ridge) of the patella w/ sparing of the superior and inferior thirds of the articular surface

331
Q

MC location of bipartite patellar dysplasia

A

superolateral corner

332
Q

Most commonly affected portion in patellar tendinitis

A

proximal posterior (deep) fibers

333
Q

Most commonly affected portion (demonstrating focal thickening) in patellar tendinitis

A

medial to central portion

334
Q

MC site of patellar tendon ruptures

A

proximal patellar tendon at the inferior patellar pole junction

335
Q

MCC of patella baja

A

postop complication of ACL surgery or lateral retinacular release

336
Q

MCC of lateral knee pain in long-distance runners

A

iliotibial band syndrome

337
Q

MC subtype of juvenile chronic arthritis (formerly juvenile RA) in the absence of other rheumatic disorders

A

pauciarticular arthritis

338
Q

MC affected joint in lyme disease/arthritis

A

knee

339
Q

MCC of spontaneous osteonecrosis involving the medial femoral condyle

A

prior insufficiency fratures

340
Q

Most frequently seen fracture about the knee

A

tibial plateau fracture (predominantly lateral plateau)

341
Q

MCC of tibial plateau fractures

A

impaction of the anterior portion of the lateral femoral condyle in a valgus mechanism of injury

342
Q

MC osseous tarsal coalitions / MC tarsal coalitions

A

calcaneonavicular (MC) and talocalcaneal

343
Q

First involved cord in most plantar aponeurosis pathology

A

medial cord

344
Q

The most likely of the extensor tendons to tear

A

tibialis anterior

345
Q

MC mechanism in (lateral?) osteochondral talar lesions

A

strong inversion force w/ dorsiflexion of the foot and internal rotation of the tibia

346
Q

3rd most frequently ruptured tendon / Largest tendon in the body

A

Achilles tendon

347
Q

Site of Achilles tendon most susceptible to rupture

A

2-6 cm superior to the os calcis

348
Q

MC etiology of tibialis posterior dysfunction

A

chronic degeneration

349
Q

MC flexor hallucis longus tendon abnormality

A

paratendinitis (tenosynovitis)

350
Q

2nd most frequently injured ankle ligament

A

calcaneofibular ligament

351
Q

2nd MC ankle injury after lateral ligament injury

A

syndesmotic injuries

352
Q

MC of the ST impingements

A

anterolateral impingement

353
Q

MCC of anterolateral impingement

A

posttraumatic change with planterflexion inversion

354
Q

2nd MC accessory bone of the foot

A

os tibiale externum

355
Q

MC site of plantar plate tears

A

distal attachment

356
Q

MC epiphyseal injury

A

lateral malleolus Salter-Harris type I fracture - through the growth plate

357
Q

MC of tarsal bone fractures

A

fractures of the calcaneus

358
Q

2nd most commonly fractured bone of the foot

A

talus

359
Q

MC site of talar fractures

A

neck

360
Q

MC type of talar neck injuries

A

type II - subluxation and/or dislocation of the talus w/ respect to the subtalar joint (dislocation of the posterior facet)

361
Q

MC location of tarsometatarsal or Lisfranc fractures

A

bases of the second and third metatarsals

362
Q

MC fractures leading to compartment syndrome

A

tibial fractures, especially open fractures involving prox and middle thirds

363
Q

MC of the four compartments involved

A

anterior compartment

364
Q

Most susceptible to injury/muscle strains

A

gastrocnemius, rectus femoris, hamstring, and adductor longus

365
Q

MCC of peroneal spastic flatfoot

A

tarsal coalition

366
Q

MC etiology of Morton’s neuroma

A

entrapment neuropathy secondary to compressive forces against the deep transverse intermetatarsal ligament

367
Q

Most commonly affected site in plantar fasciitis

A

origin of the plantar fascia from the calcaneal tuberosity

368
Q

MC manifestation of plantar fasciitis

A

pain in the area of the medial tuberosity of the calcaneus

369
Q

Most commonly involved in Freiberg’s infraction

A

second metatarsal head

370
Q

Most frequently affected joint in the hindfoot in rheumatoid arthritis

A

talonavicular joint

371
Q

Joint in the hindfoot that is affected with the greatest severity in rheumatoid arthritis

A

subtalar joint

372
Q

MC sites of ganglia of the foot and ankle

A

dorsolateral aspect of the foot, where ganglia may cause sinus tarsi syndrome, and at DIPJ in assoc w/ arthritis

373
Q

MCC of sciatic neuropathy at the hip

A

iatrogenic, assoc w/ total hip replacements, usually after revision

374
Q

Most prominent feature of sciatic neuropathy

A

foot drop (anterior tibial muscle - peroneal division)

375
Q

MC neurovasculalr injury after knee arthroscopy

A

saphenous nerve injury

376
Q

MC location of the trifurcation/division of the common peroneal nerve

A

at or distal to the fibular neck

377
Q

MC mononeuropathy in the LE

A

common peroneal neuropathy

378
Q

MC entrapment syndrome along the deep peroneal nerve

A

anterior tarsal syndrome (underneath the distal edge of inferior extensor retinaculum or at talonavicular joint)

379
Q

MC of the thin septa separating the tarsal tunnel into multiple compartments

A

transverse interfascicular septum

380
Q

Truncation artifact occurs at high signal interfaces and is most typically seen in the?

A

spinal cord at thr spinal fluid-cord interface, creating a pseudo-syrinx

381
Q

Most commonly, tears of the subscapularis tendon begin in the?

A

superior articular margin

382
Q

MC starting point for tears of the supraspinatus tendon

A

anterior leading edge (anterior-most portion of the distal supraspinatus tendon)

383
Q

MC acromial spurs

A

inferior spurs, arising from the anterior margin of the acromion at or near the coracoacromial ligament attachment, and broad-based undersurface spurs that extend along the majority of the acromial undersurface area

384
Q

Most frequently involved in impingement-related rotator cuff tears

A

supraspinatus and superior aspect of the infraspinatus

385
Q

MC location for impingement

A

between the anterior 3rd of the acromion and the underlying tendons

386
Q

MC type of os acromiale (based on the location of articulation of the unfused ossification centers)

A

mesoacromion-meta-acromion type

387
Q

MC form of anterior dislocation

A

subcoracoid dislocation

388
Q

MC site of origin of superior paralabral cysts

A

spinoglenoid notch

389
Q

MCC of biceps tendinitis (tendinosis)

A

impingement tendinitis

390
Q

MC site of biceps tendon tears

A

rotator interval

391
Q

Most commonly affected tendons in calcific tendinitis

A

supraspinatus > infraspinatus > teres minor > subscapularis

392
Q

Most biceps brachii tears occur where?

A

proximally involving the long head

393
Q

MC tendon involved in medial epicondylitis/golfer’s elbow/pitcher’s elbow/medial tennis elbow

A

flexor carpi radialis along w/ the pronator teres

394
Q

MC tendon involved in lateral epicondylitis/tennis elbow

A

extensor carpi radialis brevis

395
Q

MC location for ulnar neuritis

A

posterior to the medial epicondyle

396
Q

2nd mc joint to be dislocated, after the shoulder

A

elbow

397
Q

2nd mc major joint dislocation (after the shoulder) in adults (although unusual) / MC dislocation in children under 10 years of age

A

posterior dislocation of the elbow

398
Q

MCC of lateral collateral ligament complex insufficiency

A

elbow dislocation

399
Q

MC finding after complete dislocation

A

complete disruption of the MCL

400
Q

MC elbow fracture in adults / MC injury assoc w/ a coronoid fracture

A

fractures of the radial head

401
Q

MC fracture in the juvenile or adolescent throwing athlete

A

medial epicondylar avulsion fracture

402
Q

MC pediatric elbow injury

A

supracondylar fracture / Gartland fracture

403
Q

MC complication of supracondylar fractures

A

cubitus varus

404
Q

Most severe complication of supracondylar fractures

A

Volkmann’s contracture

405
Q

MC physeal injury / MC specific type of physeal injury about the elbow

A

lateral condylar fracture (usually Salter-Harris type IV)

406
Q

2nd MC site of loose bodies, after the knee

A

elbow

407
Q

MC location of loose bodies in the elbow

A

anteriorly or lodged in the trochlear notch

408
Q

Most commonly observed biceps tendon injury (?)

A

complete rupture from its insertion on the radial tuberosity

409
Q

MC compression site of radial nerve entrapment in the elbow (radial tunnel syndrome)

A

arcade of Frohse

410
Q

MC site of bursitis in the body / MC superficial site of bursitis in the body

A

olecranon bursitis / olecranon bursa - subcutaneous

411
Q

MCC of olecranon bursitis / miner’s elbow / student’s elbow

A

trauma, either acute or repetitive

412
Q

MC site of bone infection in the elbow

A

olecranon

413
Q

MC site for osteomyelitis (?)

A

elbow

414
Q

MC site of degenerative arthrosis in the wrist

A

radioscaphoid arthrosis

415
Q

MC pattern of degenerative arthritis of the wrist

A

SLAC wrist (develops in response to scaphoid rotation) - SLAC wrist involves the scaphoradial, capitolunate, and scaphocapitate joints,

416
Q

2nd MC site of wrist arthrosis / 2nd MC form of degenerative arthritis of the carpus

A

triscaphe joint (distal pole of the scaphoid articulating w/ the trapezoid and trapezium) / triscaphe arthritis - triscaphe arthritis involves the
scaphotrapezial, scaphotrapezoidal, and trapeziotrapezoidal
articulations

417
Q

3rd mc form of degenerative arthritis

A

combination of SLAC and triscaphe arthritis

418
Q

Strongest and most important of the scapholunate ligament components for maintaning carpal instability

A

dorsal component

419
Q

MC type of carpal instability

A

tears of the scapholunate ligament

420
Q

Degenerative tears and perforations of TFC most commonly are seen where?

A

just proximal to the radial attachment of the TFC

421
Q

MC site of carpometacarpal arthrosis

A

1st carpal-metacarpal joint

422
Q

Most radially located tendon within the carpal tunnel

A

flexor pollicis longus tendon

423
Q

Most constant and the strongest of the extrinsic ligaments

A

volar extrinsic ligaments

424
Q

Contains the most elastic tissue of any ligament in the wrist

A

radioscapholunate ligament

425
Q

MC site of tears in the TFC complex

A

central portion, or centrum - thin

426
Q

MC location of TFC tears

A

near or adjacent to the radial attachment

427
Q

MC carpal dislocations or fracture-dislocations

A

scaphoid either fractures or dislocates from the lunate

428
Q

MC non-Kienbock’s related fracture pattern of the lunate

A

volar-pole fractures

429
Q

MC carpal fracture causing compression of the ulnar nerve in Guyon’s canal

A

fracture of the hook of the hamate

430
Q

Intraosseous ganglions are most common in the?

A

lunate

431
Q

MC ST mass of the wrist

A

ganglions

432
Q

MC finding of ganglion cysts on MRI

A

homogeneous fluid-filled mass in communication w/ the scapholunate interval

433
Q

2nd mc ST mass of the hand / 2nd mc tumors of the STs in the hand

A

localized type of the giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath / tenosynovial GCTs

434
Q

MC locations of GCTTS

A

volar aspect of the hand and fingers adjacent to the DIP joint (most commonly index and long finger)

435
Q

MC stenosing tenosynovitis in athletes

A

de Quervain’s tenosynovitis

436
Q

MC finding in de Quervain’s

A

edema and fluid associated w/ the 1st extensor compartment

437
Q

2nd mc site of stenosing tenosynovitis in the upper extremity

A

extensor carpi ulnaris tendinitis

438
Q

MC location of extensor carpi ulnaris tendinitis

A

dorsal ulnar aspect of wrist and the 6th extensor comparment

439
Q

Most characteristic finding in intersection syndrome

A

peritendinous edema around the 1st and 2nd extensor compartment tendons, extending proximally from the crossover point

440
Q

Finger (flexor annular pulley) most often injured in baseball pitchers / Most frequently involved in flexor digitorum profundus avulsions

A

ring finger

441
Q

Most obvious sign of FDP avulsion

A

absent or retracted tendon (axial or sag)

442
Q

MC closed tendon injury seen in sports

A

mallet finger (zone I)

443
Q

MC closed rupture of the flexor tendons

A

distal avulsion of the FDP tendon (rugby or jersey finger)

444
Q

Most commonly affected with ganglion cysts

A

ring finger

445
Q

MC pseudotumors involving the fingers

A

ganglions and Dupuytren’s contracture

446
Q

MC benign tumors involving the fingers

A

tenosynovial GCTs and vascular malformations

447
Q

MCC of chronic infections of the tendon sheaths of the hand

A

TB

448
Q

MC type of vascular malformation (in the fingers)

A

venous malformation

449
Q

MC location of lipomas in the fingers (uncommon location)

A

proximally in the thenar and hypothenar eminences

450
Q

MC bone tumors of the hand

A

enchondromas

451
Q

MC location of GCTs in the hand / Most frequently affected bones in the hand by aneurysmal bone cysts

A

metacarpals

452
Q

Malignant bone tumors of the hand are extremely rare and are almost always?

A

chondrosarcomas

453
Q

Most common location of glomus tumors

A

subungal area, in the supporting tissue of the nail bed or the matrix

454
Q

Most frequently affected joints in the hand in OA

A

IP joints of the long fingers and thum (PIP and DIP often involved simultaneously)

455
Q

Most commonly affected joints in RA

A

MCP and PIP

456
Q

*OA of the fingers may also be secondary to crystal-induced arthropathies, w/ a predilection for the?

A

2nd and 3rd MP joints

457
Q

Most sensitive in detecting bone sclerosis

A

T1

458
Q

Most severe degree of nerve injury

A

neurotmesis (others: neuropraxia/1st-deg nerve injury and axonotmesis/2nd-deg)

459
Q

Most commonly involved nerve in shoulder dislocations

A

axillary nerve

460
Q

Most frequently compromised nerve in Parsonage-Turner syndrome

A

(dati, long thoracic nerve) now, isolated suprascapular nerve

461
Q

Most commonly affected muscles in Parsonage-Turner syndrome

A

those innervated by suprascapular nerve including supra and infraspinatus

462
Q

MC site of ulnar neuropathy

A

cubital tunnel

463
Q

MC nerve variation of the median and ulnar nerves

A

Martin Gruber anastomosis

464
Q

2nd mc neuropathy in the UE, exceeded only by carpal tunnel syndrome

A

ulnar nerve compression

465
Q

Most distal, as well as 2nd mc, site of median nerve compression

A

fibrous arch of the origin of the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle

466
Q

MC site of compression in anerior interosseous syndrome/Kiloh-Nevin syndrome

A

when anterior interosseous diverges from the median nerve

467
Q

MC compression site in radial tunnel syndrome/compression of the posterior interosseous nerve w/ motor deficit

A

arcade of Frohse

468
Q

MC malignant disease in childhood

A

acute leukemia

469
Q

MC form of leukemia in the US

A

CLL

470
Q

Most aggressive form of Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

Letterer-Siwe disease

471
Q

MC primary neoplasm of bone

A

multiple myeloma

472
Q

In adults, marrow mets most commonly results from?

A

ca of the prostate, breast, lung, kidney, GIT, and melanoma

473
Q

In pedia patients, mc primaries that metastasize to the marrow

A

neuroblastoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and Ewing sarcoma

474
Q

The halo sign is most commonly seen in?

A

osteoblastic mets from prostate ca

475
Q

Most sensitive in evaluating the extent of hyperemic marrow in transient osteoporosis and reflex sympathetic dystrophy

A

STIR

476
Q

Bones most commonly involved in Paget’s disease

A

pelvic bones > femur, skull, tibia, LSS, dorsal spine, clavicles, and ribs

477
Q

Most sensitive in detecting the nidus in osteoid osteomas

A

CT

478
Q

MC site of involvement of osteoid osteomas

A

femur - long tubular bones

479
Q

Clinical hallmark of osteoid osteomas

A

pain that is most prominent at night and can be relieved by salicylated such as aspirin

480
Q

Osteoblastomas most frequently involves the?

A

flat bones, posterior osseous elements of the vertebrae, and long bones

481
Q

Ossifying fibromas most commonly arise in the?

A

facial bones of young females

482
Q

Unicameral bone cyst are most likely to occur in the?

A

proximal humerus or femur, in proximity to the cartilaginous growth plate

483
Q

Aneurysmal bone cysts are most commonly found in the

A

posterior elements of the vertebrae and shafts of the long bones

484
Q

Most frequently involved bones in hemangiomas

A

spine and flat bones of the skull and mandible

485
Q

Most commonly affected by GCTs

A

long tubular bones - around the knee (distal femur, proximal tibia), abut the subchondral bone

486
Q

MC primary malignant bone tumor in childhood / MC primary malignancy of bone except for multiple myeloma

A

osteosarcoma

487
Q

2nd mc malignant bone tumor in childhood

A

Ewing sarcoma

488
Q

MC sites of Ewing sarcoma

A

femur, ilium, humerus, and tibia

489
Q

Chondrosarcomas most commonly arise in the?

A

central skeleton (pelvis and ribs) and within the metadiaphysis of the femur and humerus

490
Q

MC pathohistologic type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A

large cell (ie reticulum cell) lymphoma

491
Q

MC soft-tissue tumor

A

lipoma

492
Q

Most commonly, lipomas are found in the?

A

subcutaneous regions of the back and shoulder

493
Q

MC locations of cystic hygromas - often encompass neurovascular structures

A

neck and axilla

494
Q

Most commonly observed variant of liposarcomas

A

myxoid liposarcoma

495
Q

Ganglion cysts are most commonly found where?

A

around the hands and feet, especially the wrist

496
Q

MC site of intraosseous ganglion cysts

A

medial malleolus of the tibia

497
Q

The proximal radius and ulna most often dislocate where?

A

posteriorly

498
Q

Perilunate dislocations may be accompanied by fractures of the carpal bones, most commonly the?

A

scaphoid and/or capitate

499
Q

MC acetabular injury

A

both-column fractures

500
Q

A lucent lesion in the anterior calcaneus is most commonly a?

A

simple bone cyst

Most common (9 decks)

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