neruology pass med Flashcards

1
Q

symptoms of progressive supranuclear palsy

A

parkinsonism, falls, slurred speech, impaired vertical gaze, poor response to l dopa

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2
Q

symptoms of ulnar nerve damage

A

lack of adductor policies for thumb adduction and wasting of hypothenar, claw hand, wasting of 1st web space

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3
Q

where is the lesion in a pure sensory presentation

A

lucunar infarct

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4
Q

investigation used to differentiate location of stroke

A

carotid endarterectomy

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5
Q

symptoms of a total anterior circulation infarct

A

homonymous hemianopia
unilateral hemiparesis
higher cognitive dysfunction

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6
Q

symptoms of partial anterior circulation infarct

A

2 of TACS criteria

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7
Q

arteries involved in posterior circulation

A

vertebrobasilar

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8
Q

what is definition of TIA based on

A

tissue appearance, not duration

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9
Q

cluster headache symptoms

A

episodic eye pain, autosomal symptoms (lacrimation and nasal stuffiness), around eye

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10
Q

treatment of cluster headache

A

100% o2 and SC triptan, CCB prophylaxis

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11
Q

where is the lesion in bitemporal hemianopia

A

optic chiasm

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12
Q

dorsal column accounts for what

A

light touch, proprioception, vibration

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13
Q

spinothalamic tract accounts for what

A

pain and temperature

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14
Q

symptoms of meningitis

A

photophobia, headache, fever, rash, papilloedema

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15
Q

nerve involvement of horners

A

T1

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16
Q

nerves involved in erbs palsy (pronated and medically rotated arm)

A

C5-6

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17
Q

nerve in danger at neck of humerus fracture

A

axillary

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18
Q

anti epileptic causing macrocytic anaemai

A

pheytoin as alters folate metabolism

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19
Q

symptoms of 3rd nerve palsy

A

down and out
ptosis
dilated pupil

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20
Q

causes of 3rd nerve palsy

A

DM
vasculitis
riased ICP due to herniation

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21
Q

upper quadrant bitemptal hemianopia

A

pituitary tumour with inferior compression

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22
Q

lower quadrant bitemporal hemianopia

A

cranipharyngioma

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23
Q

prophylaxis of migraines

A

topiramate or propanolol

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24
Q

treatment of migraines

A

triptans, NSAIDs

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25
Q

eye defect in acromeagly

A

bitemporal hemianopia

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26
Q

most common muscular dystrophy

A

Becker’s

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27
Q

what is gower’s sign

A

using arms to stand up in duchennes muscular dystrophy

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28
Q

dystrophinopathies type of genetics

A

x linked

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29
Q

plucking of clothes is seen in what type of seizure

A

temporal lobe - also have lip smacking, aura, dejavu

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30
Q

jacksonian movements are in which type of seizure

A

frontal lobe

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31
Q

what drugs can cause myasthenia crisis in MG

A

BBs, lithium, pheytoin, antibiotics, penicillamine

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32
Q

what is a MRC power of 2

A

movement of joint with gravity eliminated

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33
Q

eye defect in left parietal lobe infarct

A

right inferior quadrantopia

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34
Q

immediate treatment of TIA

A

aspirin 300mg and review in 24hours

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35
Q

what isn hoover’s sign

A

differentiates between organic and non organic leg weakness

organic = feel effort in trying to lift left
non organic = fails to feel effort

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36
Q

what is roberts test

A

investigates cause of ataxia

37
Q

what is hoffmann signs

A

reflex to investigate corticospinal tract lesions

38
Q

what is jendrassik manorvveure

A

comapres a reflex with reinforcement

39
Q

when is the latest a thrombectomy can be performed in acute stroke management

A

6 hours later (thrombolysis = 4.5 hours)

40
Q

causes of weak dorsiflexors /foot drop

A

common peroneal nerve lesion
L5 radiculopathy
sciatic nerve lesion

41
Q

symptoms of L5 nerve lesion

A

weak dorsiflexors/inversion and eversion of ankle

42
Q

what is ROSIER

A

used to assess stroke in acute setting

43
Q

GCS

A
Motor response	
6. Obeys commands
5. Localises to pain
4. Withdraws from pain
3. Abnormal flexion to pain (decorticate posture)
2. Extending to pain
1. None
Verbal response	
5. Orientated
4. Confused
3. Words
2. Sounds
1. None
Eye opening	
4. Spontaneous
3. To speech
2. To pain
1. None
44
Q

what is the most important thing to rule out as a cause for status epillepticus

A

hypoxia

45
Q

how to terminate a status eppillepticus

A
diazpam/lorazepam
then 
phenytoin/sodium valproate 
then 
induction
46
Q

causes of siezure

A
subdural haematoma
hypoxia
alcohol withdrawal
meningitis
epilepsy
47
Q

diagnosing investigation for MS

A

MRI with contrast to see demyelinating lesions with dissemination in time and space

48
Q

dopamine antagonist anti emetics

A

metaclopramide and domperidone

49
Q

how does onsanserton work as an anti emetic

A

5-HT3 antagonist

50
Q

complication of meningitis in children and should be tested for

A

sensorineural hearing loss

51
Q

how does pyridostigmine work

A

MG drug

long acting anti cholinesterase inhibitor

52
Q

treatment of degenerative cervical myelopathy with increasing neurological symptms

A

decompressie surgery

53
Q

MND with worst progosis

A

progressive bulbar

54
Q

migraine triggers

A

chocolate, hangovers, orgasms, cheese, caffeine, COCP, alcohol, travel, exercise

55
Q

what is autonomic dysrefelxia

A

severe HTN and flushing and sweating above level of spinal cord injury

56
Q

treatment of acute MS relapse

A

high dose steroids (methylprednisolone)

57
Q

treatment of long term MS

A

B-IFN

58
Q

first line treatment for spasticity in MS

A

baclofen

59
Q

treatment for bladder dysfunction in MS (residual volume dependent)

A

intermitted self catheterisation if residual volume

anticholinergics if no residual volume

60
Q

symptoms of T1 lesion

A

finger abduction weakeness

medial epicondyle weakness

61
Q

treatment of trigmeinal neural

A

carbamazepine

62
Q

when could trigeminal neuralgia be more sinister

A

<40years, sensory changes, ear problems, optic neuritis, FHx of MS

63
Q

management after first seizure

A

refer to epilepsy clinic for specialist review

64
Q

best management for idiopathic intracranial HTN

A

lose weight

then acetazolamide

65
Q

symptoms of essential tremor

A

worse if arms outstretched, improved at rest, can lead to vocal cord changes

66
Q

treatment of essential tremor

A

propranolol

67
Q

symptoms of MND

A

mixed UMN and LMN symptoms with no sensory loss

68
Q

symptoms of wernickes encephalopathy

A

nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia

69
Q

how does acetazolamide work

A

a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

70
Q

antiemetic for parkinsons

A

doperidone as does not cross BBB

71
Q

symptoms of tuberous sclerosis

A
ash leaf spots
siezures 
developmental delay
cafe au lait spots
shagreen patches
sublingual fibroma
72
Q

symptoms of ataxic gait

A

wide based gait with loss of heel to toe walking

73
Q

causes of ataxic gait

A

ceberallar lesion

74
Q

most common cause of GBS

A

campylobacter jejune

75
Q

what type of headache is linked to diffuculty from getting up in chair

A

temporal arteritis due to link with polymyalgia rheumatic

76
Q

first line treatment for parkinson’s if motor symptoms are effecting life

A

LEVODOPA

77
Q

symptoms of multi system atrophy

A

parkisonism with autonomic disturbance

78
Q

what is bells palsy and symptoms

A

LMN facial nerve palsy so can’t raise eyebrow

79
Q

treatment of bells palsy

A

prednisolone

80
Q

treatment if meningitis with seizuresq

A

start acyclovir IV

81
Q

what veins are affected in subdural haemorrhage

A

bridging veins between cortex and venous sinus

82
Q

what veins affected in extra dural haemorrhage

A

middle meningeal

83
Q

what veins affected in SAH

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage

84
Q

post stroke, when should they be started on statin

A

> 3.5 cholesterol

85
Q

what dementia is linked to MND

A

frontotemproal

86
Q

CI of triptans

A

CVD

87
Q

what nerve adducts the fingers

A

ulnar

88
Q

what nerve extends the fingers

A

radial

89
Q

what will MRI show linked to NFM2

A

vestibular schwannomas