NBME17 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2nd generation antihitamines

A

Loratadine
Fexofenadine
Desloratadine
Cetirizine

“a fox, cert, and lonely rat”
usually end in -adine

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2
Q

which immunoglobulins are the warm and col

A

Warm: IgG
“warm weather is Great”

Cold: IgM and complement
“Cold weather is Miserable”

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3
Q

small tender blisters on genitals a few days after sex. what are they

A

Herpes simplex virus 2

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4
Q

what is Rosacea?

A

erythematous papule and pustules, no comedones

may be associated with facial flushing in response to external stimuli (alcohol, heat)

Phymatous rosacea can cause rhinopehyma (nose deformity)

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5
Q

what does Malaria vs Leishmania look like on stain

A

Malaria:
tiny little horseshoes with knobs on the end inside of RBCs

Leishmania:
macrophages containing amastigotes- which looks like a polka-dot cell

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6
Q

distinguish between visceral and cutaneous Leishmaniasis

A

Visceral: Kala-azar
AKA black fever
spiking fevers, HSM, pancytopenia

Cutaneous:
skin ulcers
brazilyensis- “flesh eating”

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7
Q

what is Cholera’s MOA

A

works w/ a Gs mechanism- so it activates adenylyl cyclase and cAMP

“GaS can” in “cAMP Cholera”

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8
Q

where would a tumor be if it gave you ataxia, but muscle strength, DTR, sensation, and proprioception are all normal

A

cerebellum

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9
Q

what might a newborn’s serum show if they have congenital CMV

A

IgG and IgM

the mom’s IgG crosses the placenta
the baby makes IgM

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10
Q

when does neural tube develop

A

neural tube forms in week 3 and closes by week 4

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11
Q

where does the femoral nerve come from

A

L2-L4

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12
Q

what are the stages of change

A

pre-contemplation: no acknowledgment of problem

contemplation: acknowledging there’s a problem, but not willing to do anything

preparation/determination: getting ready to change

action/willpower: changing behaviors

maintenance: maintaining the changes
relapse: returning to old behaviors and abandoning new ones

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13
Q

what is the reaction to poison ivy

A

type 4, cell-mediated with T LYMPHOCYTES

(linear vesicles)

antigenic activation of T lymphocytes and macrophages leads to the production of lymphokines, which produce the tissue injury.
this rxn does not require formation of antibodies.

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14
Q

what do the labioscrotal swellings make

A

Scrotum or labia majora

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15
Q

what do the urogenital folds make

A

ventral shaft of penis (penile urethra) or labia minora

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16
Q

what does the urogenital sinus make x 2?

A

1- prostate gland or
urethral and paraurethral glands (of Skene) in female

2- Bulbourehtral glands (of Cowper) or
greater vestibular glands (of Bartholin)

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17
Q

what makes the urinary bladder

A

urogenital sinus + mesonephric ducts

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18
Q

what do the genital tubercles make x 2?

A

glans penis or
glans clitoris

corpus cavernosum and spongiosum or
vestibular bulbs

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19
Q

what would happen if you were in cold water for 20 min

A

peripheral vessels would constrict, so
central blood volume would increase

ADH will be decreased, because
your body thinks it has enough volume right now with it all shifting centrally

ANP would be increased, because
it thinks you’re in a hypervolemic state (the atria is seeing more fluid)

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20
Q

delayed separation of umbilical cord is buzzword for what

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency :)

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21
Q

when someone asks about why they’re overweight

A

you can attribute it both to genes and environment

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22
Q

confused, diarrhea, not taking care of himself, stomatitis, and diffuse rash on sun exposed areas… what does he have

A

Pellagra

probably from Niacin deficiency

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23
Q

what does a highly sensitive test or specific

A

sensitivity: rules out the HEALTHY ONES, if this is high and you get a negative test result, then it’s safe to say they don’t have it.

specificity: rules in the disease
so if this isn’t super high, you still need to do additional testing to confirm dx. just because a test is positive, doesn’t mean they definitely have this

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24
Q

what causes beta thalassemia

A

point mutations in splice sites of introns, causing a retained intron

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25
Q

how could you identify HIV-2

A

less common, less pathogenic, really only in Africa

p24 (capsid) will be positive in HIV-1 and HIV-2

NAT for viral RNA is more specific, so the primers will bind to HIV-1 not HIV-2, so it can differentiate

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26
Q

what are the 2 possible cancers after complete molar pregnancies

A

gestational trophoblastic neoplasia GTN:
vaginal bleeding, enlarged uterus, super high beta-hCG
material within endometrial cavity w/ no intrauterine pregnancy
CT shows necrotic intrauterine mass and metastatic nodules

Choriocarcinoma:
can develop in mother or baby
malignancy of trophoblastic tissue
NO CHORIONIC VILLI PRESENT

it looks like these might be the same…

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27
Q

describe Basal cell carcinoma

A

locally invasive, but rarely metastasizes

Pink, pearly nodules, commonly w/ telangiectasis, rolled borders, central crusting, or ulceration
non healing ulcers with infiltrating growth
scaling plaque!

“palisading” nuclei on histo

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28
Q

describe squamous cell carcinoma

A

locally invasive, may spread to lymph nodes, but rarely metastasizes

ulcerative red lesions with frequent scale
associated with chronic draining sinuses

keratin pearls on histology

keratoacanthoma is a variant that grows rapidly then may regress

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29
Q

what is actinic keratosis

A

scaly plaque
precursor to squamous cell carcinoma
usually from people exposed to UVB

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30
Q

what 2 organs release glucose into the blood

A

liver and KIDNEY

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31
Q

what do type 2 pneumocytes look like

A

little bear claws

type 1 pneumocytes are really thin stretches of cells

a capillary lumen will have RBCs in it

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32
Q

where whats the buzzwords for suprasellar mass

A

craniopharyngioma
Rathke pouch remnants

diverticulum of the roof of the embryonic oral cavity ectoderm

ORAL ECTODERM

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33
Q

which factor recruits PMNs to inflammatory sites by epithelial cells

A

IL-8

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34
Q

what will give you infertility and PID

A

gonorrhea

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35
Q

pt has progressive thirst, drinking lots of water, and urinary frequency over last 3 days.

Specific gravity <1.006

most likely dysfunction

A

posterior pituitary- ADH

dilute urine is ADH because it purely affects water/volume

Aldosterone retains Na/water, and dumps K/H+

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36
Q

if they give you a painful blue thrombus in anus, what is it

A

inferior rectal vein
below pectinate = painful
blue = vein

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37
Q

6 week old infant w/ vomiting small amount of milk 2-3x/day. normal growth. what’s wrong

A

immature LE sphincter

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38
Q

what is buzzword for pyloric stenosis

A

olive mass palpable

non bilious projective vomiting 2-6 weeks old

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39
Q

what should you think with polyhydramnios

A

esophageal atresia- the baby can’t swallow

pure TEF = H type (esophagus and trachea are connected)

EA with distal TEF = most common (blind ending esophagus; gasless abdomen)

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40
Q

widened aortic arch is buzzword for what

A

dissecting aneurysm

diminished pulses somewhere in L upper extremity

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41
Q

what’s your next step if you suspect a defect in fatty acid oxidation

A

measure serum acylcarnitine concentration

carnitine is what breaks down fatty acids eventually to acetyl CoA to either go to ketone bodies or TCA cycle

“carnage” of fatty acids

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42
Q

what is 1st degree heart block

A

prolonged PR interval

benign, asymptomatic

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43
Q

what is 2nd degree heart block

A

Mobitz type 1 and 2

1: progressive PR lengthening that eventually drops a P wave
variable RR interval

2: randomly dropped P waves
often treated with pacemaker

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44
Q

what is 3rd degree heart block

A

atria and ventricles functioning independently of each other
atria rate > ventricular rate

treat with transvenous pacemaker

can be caused by Lyme disease

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45
Q

how does toluene toxicity present

A

glue sniffing in a teenager

daily headaches, bilateral temple aches
confused, forgetful
ataxia, frequent falls
broad-based ataxic gait
slow to answer questions
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46
Q

which nerve may cause constipation

A

a parasympathetic nerve injury, like pelvic splanchnic

47
Q

what might affect an azole/drug’s efficacy if it’s not a CYP 450 question

A

look for something that changes acid/base, like a PPI omeprazole

48
Q

which hormone will stimulate Hormone-sensitive lipase in adipocytes to accumulate insulin

A

epinephrine,

I think because it’s GH’s back-up to clearing insulin from the blood

49
Q

when a pt sees your face and knows you have bad news, what do you do

A

say “yes it is bad news”

my guess is address it right then, and don’t try to change the subject or sugar coat it?
don’t ask how they’re feeling,
don’t say you want to talk positive’s first

50
Q

mechanism of renal failure in a pt with bilateral hydronephrosis and dilated ureter

A

increased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman’s space

51
Q

what will congenital ureteral obstruction cause

A

hydronephrosis proximal to the block

recurrent bacterial infections and minimal function on that side

52
Q

what organism is non-hemolytic, catalase-neg, gram-pos cocci in pairs and chain

A

Enterococcus faecalis

53
Q

how does osteomyelitis commonly present

A

sickle cell pt with fever, pain in bones, stable Hct, elevated WBC, predominance of neutrophils

54
Q

what’s the first sign of female puberty

A

breast bud development

55
Q

what exposure risks are associated with asbestos

A

shipbuilding, roofing, plumbing

56
Q

what does asbestos look like on histo

A

“ferruginous” bodies
golden brown fusiform rods resembling dumbbells found in septum sputum sample
visualize w/ Prussian blue stain

57
Q

which structure in lungs initiate fibrosis

A

alveolar macrophages

58
Q

which type of renal stone causes stag horn calculi

A

struvite

AKA Ammonium magnesium phosphate

59
Q

how does endometrial hyperplasia present

A

abnormal endometrial proliferation, usually 2/2 excess estrogen without progesterone to oppose it

presents as more bleeding than normal- postmenopausal bleeding; or premenopausal F bleeding between cycles or irregularly

curettage shows “abundant tissue”

60
Q

what cells are most likely to have deficient function in TB lung lesions

A

macrophages

61
Q

when does cellular degradation with p53 via E6 in HPV start

A

degradation begins when p53 protein is target to ubiquitin ligase enzyme

62
Q

joint pain not responsive to aspirin

bilateral swelling of PIPs and MCPs, and wrists with small nodules

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

63
Q
pain in weight-bearing joints
asymmetric involvement
no systemic symptoms
no inflammation
involves DIP and PIP, but NOT MCP
A

osteoarthritis

64
Q

what is alondronate’s MOA

A

inhibition of osteoclast-mediated bone resorption

65
Q

what causes an NG tube to be in left hemithorax, with mediastinum displacement to the right, absence of bowel gas in abdomen?

A

incomplete formation of pleuroperitoneal membrane

diaphragmatic hernia

66
Q

lichen sclerosis- describe

A

vulvar itching
atrophy of labia minora
THIN, PARCHMENT-LIKE SKIN over vulva and anus

67
Q

where is the SA node

A

junction of SVC and RA

it’s in the name “SA” node
“superior” and “atrium”

68
Q

what drug is used for DVT treatment

A

Heparin

69
Q

what is Heparin’s MOA

A

activates Antithrombin 3, which
decreases Factor 2a (thrombin)
decreases Factor 10a

70
Q

what vessel should you ligate postpartum to control heavy bleeding

A

internal iliac branch

71
Q

what substance is released with muscle tenderness

A

myoglobin

72
Q

what determines where leprosy infects people

A

temperature sensitivity- it likes cool temperatures,

so it infects skin and superficial nerves in stocking/glove distribution

73
Q

what causes hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis

A

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

74
Q

what is amyloidosis

A

abnormal aggregated proteins of BETA PLEATED SHEETS

CONGO RED STAIN

75
Q

what causes edema

A

increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

76
Q

what does prednisone suppress

A

T lymphocytes

77
Q

prolonged PTT, hemarthrosis, and positive FHx?

A

Hemophilia

78
Q

what does Vit E deficiency look like

A

malabsorption story
hemolytic anemia
muscle weakness
neurologic symptoms that mimic B12, but NO megaloblastic anemia or high methylmalonic acid

79
Q

what blood cells do you see in HELLP syndrome

A

schistocytes

80
Q

what is gout a risk factor

A

kidney stones

81
Q

what helps infection resolutions happen

A

maintenance of basement membrane integrity

82
Q

what will happen if a hypothyroid pt takes a lot of triiodothyronine

A

low TSH (neg feedback)
low free T4 (neg feedback)
high free T3 (your drug)

83
Q

what will alcoholic liver biopsy show

A

Mallory Hyaline

84
Q

what will your HCO3 be in a COPD pt

A

high blood HCO3

(CO₂ retention, therefore H+ retention, making you acidotic, so your body holds on to more HCO3 to help neutralize the acid)

85
Q

what do NSAIDS cause in renal artery stenosis

A

in bilateral renal artery stenosis,
using NSAIDs will increase the Creatine drastically because the NSAIDs will inhibit the vasodilating prostaglandins at the afferent arteriole.

86
Q

how will early septic shock present in elderly

A
bedriden, confused
tachy, hypotensive!
BP doesn't change after 1L fluid
afebrile (elderly!!)
high CO
low PCWP
low SVR
87
Q

what could cause high beta-HCG in male

A

testicular carcinoma
beta-hCG is binding to testicle and producing estradiol, which could cause gynecomastia in a male

beta-hCG is similar to LH, FSH, and TSH

88
Q

what CN are you testing with the uvula

A

Vagus

89
Q

what’s methylphenidate’s MOA

A

increased Dopamine and NE release/retention in synaptic cleft

used in ADHD

90
Q

what is cyclosporine’s MOA

A

suppress the early response of T lymphocytes to activation (decreasing likelihood of rejection in transplant)

91
Q

what’s first line ED pharm MOA

A

inhibit phosphodiesterase

92
Q

which skin disease is associated with desmosomes

A

pemphigus vulgaris- superficial, flaccid blisters in the epidermis

93
Q

what causes menopause symptoms

A

failure of ovaries to secrete 17-beta-estradiol

94
Q

which drug inhibits transport of cholesterol through the intestinal wall

A

Ezetimibe

95
Q

what gives you string of beads sign on artery

A

fibromuscular dysplasia

96
Q

what causes fibroblast migration/proliferation, increased collagen and fibronectin, and decreased metalloproteinases?

A

TGF-beta

transforming growth factor-beta

97
Q

what does leak of H+ inward across inner mitochondrial membrane cause

A

causes increased ratio of oxygen consumption to ATP generation

(brown adipose tissue?)

98
Q

what converts Dopamine to NE?

A

Dopamine-beta-hydroxylase

99
Q

what does T10 innervate

A

area around the belly “but-ten”

think appendicitis

100
Q

whats common cause of LVH

A

this is concentric hypertrophy

caused by Aortic stenosis

101
Q

what is a lab value you see with DIC

A

low fibrinogen

102
Q

what is cyclophosphamide’s MOA

A

targets DNA replication via alkylating and forming cross-links

103
Q

what can you use for a thyroid tumor marker

A

calcitonin

104
Q

which nuclei is damaged with sudden uncontrollable irregular movements of L side of body

A

Right sub thalamic nucleus

105
Q

what causes the release of Troponin I and CK-MB in an MI

A

membrane lipid peroxidation

106
Q

young girl with round, shiny bumps on areas with eczema. similar bumps on friend at pool party. smooth, umbilicate papule 2-4mm in clusters. what virus is this?

A

poxvirus- molluscum contagiosum

107
Q

where is MLF on brain slice

A

two backside medial bilateral nubs in the pons

correspond with MS-
the affected will be on the IPSILATERAL side of the brain lesion

108
Q

what is the pathology of familial hypercholesterolemia

A

absence of functional LDL receptors on hepatocytes

109
Q

what is the pathology of familial hypercholesterolemia

A

absence of functional LDL receptors on hepatocytes

110
Q

what is a hypervascular mass on pole of kidney with flank pain, gross hematuria, and

A

renal cell adenocarcinoma

111
Q

what are IBD treatments

A

antibodies directed at TNF-alpha

112
Q

what are IBD treatments

A

antibodies directed at TNF-alpha

113
Q

what lab value is likely to be abnormal in a pt with recurrent systemic neisseria meningitidis infections

A

total hemolytic complement concentration

114
Q

what causes a friction rub 3 days after MI

A

fibrinous pericarditis