7/22 Flashcards

1
Q

what cancers does Lynch Syndrome give you, and what genes?

A

colorectal
endometrial
ovarian

MSH2
MLH1
MSH6
PMS2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what cancers does FAP give you, and what gene?

A

colorectal
desmoids and osteomas
brain tumors

APC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what cancers does VHL give you and and what gene?

A

hemangioblastomas
renal clear cell carcinoma
pheochromocytoma

VHL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what cancers does Li Fraumeni syndrome give you, and what gene?

A
sarcomas
breast cancer
brain tumors
adrenocortical carcinoma
leukemia

tp53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which nerves carry the afferent and efferent limbs of the carotid sinus reflex

A

afferent: glossopharyngeal
efferent: parasympathetic vagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which molecule recognizes stop codons

A

Releasing Factor 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are efficacy and potency of drugs

A

efficacy is the “vertical” measure- % of maximal effect

potency is the “horizontal” measure-what doses are required to reach the same height on the graph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is Sirolimus’s MOA

A

inhibits mTOR, which blocks IL-2 and prevents cell cycle progression and lymphocyte proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what can cause a dilated coronary sinus

A

pulmonary HTN,

leading to elevated Right heart pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which pharyngeal pouch does the thymus come from

A

3rd pharyngeal pouch (with the inferior parathyroids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what TB drug has to be processed by mycobacterial catalase peroxidase in order to be activated

A

isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what do you classically on crohn’s histology

A

noncaseating granulomas and transmural inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which renal pathology causes selective loss of albumin in urine

A

minimal change disease

caused by loss of anion properties of the glomerular BM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which disease has autoimmune destruction of intrahepatic, interlobular bile ducts by granulomatous inflammation

A

PBC

typically presents w/ pruritus and fatigue in middle aged F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which lung exposure die you pleural thickening and calcified lesions on diaphragm etc?

A

asbestos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what 2 lab values will be elevated in a neural tube defect

A

AchE and AFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does dermatomyositis have a strong association with

A

malignancy, including lung, colorectal, and ovarian cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is apolipoprotein E4 genotype associated with

A

Late-onset Alzheimer’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the 3 gene mutations associated with early-onset Alzheimer’s

A

APP (chromosome 21)
Presenilin 1
Presenilin 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what disease presents with tinnitus, vertigo, and sensorineural hearing loss

A

Meniere’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what causes Meniere’s disease

A

increased pressure and volume of endolymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are occupational exposures to rubber, aromatic dyes, textiles, and leather a risk factor for

A

transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder

23
Q

what cells are neurofibromas and NF’s associated with

A

neural crest cells

24
Q

what are tazobactam, clavulanate, and sulbactam MOA’s?

A

beta-lactamase inhibitors

prevent excessive destruction of the antibiotic they’re paired with

25
what vitamin can help treat measles
Vitamin A
26
what will constriction of efferent arteriole do to RPF and FF?
``` decrease RPF increase FF (by increasing GFR from back-up of fluid and increase of hydrostatic pressure) ```
27
what is Trastuzumab's MOA?
monoclonal antibody that binds to a portion of HER2 and prevents activation of tyrosine kinase, which will promote apoptosis
28
when do you give an ER modulator vs an aromatase inhibitor for breast cancer
SERM: tamoxifen premenopausal pts Aromatase inhibitor: anastrozole, letrozole postmenopausal pts
29
what is the buzzword for tissue transglutaminase
celiac disease
30
where is the best place to biopsy for celiac disease and crohn's?
celiac: duodenum crohns: terminal ileum
31
what is a collection of squamous cell debris that forms a mass behind the tympanic membrane of an ear called?
cholesteatoma
32
``` what does a young baby have with: pot-bellied pale puffy-faced protruding umbilical hernia Protuberant tongue Poor brain development ```
congenital hypothyroidism, "Cretinism" may be asymptomatic until maternal T4 wanes
33
what does stimulation of muscarinic receptors do to peripheral vasculature?
peripheral vasodilation this is because ACh or a cholinergic agonist will cause synthesis of NO in endothelial cells, which leads to vascular SM relaxation. muscarinic activation at other sites causes SM contraction
34
what renal vascular problem might you see after an invasive vascular procedure on a pt?
"cholesterol clefts in arterial lumen" the pt may have atheroembolic renal disease, which commonly involves kidneys. you're dislodging cholesterol-containing debris from the catheter procedure
35
what does carbon tetrachloride CCl4 poisoning cause?
free radical injury you'll see fatty change in a liver
36
what helps cells in the extracellular matrix bind to fibronectin, collagen, and laminin?
integrin
37
What are the 3 most common causes of acute pancreatitis
alcohol gallstones hypertriglyceridemia
38
what's the big risk in a subarachnoid hemorrhage pt for the next few days
vasospasm
39
which lymphoma presents with painless waxing and waning lymphadenopathy
follicular lymphoma
40
what do you characteristically see in pancreatic islet cells in a T2DM pt?
pancreatic islet amyloid deposition
41
what does NF-kB do?
it's a pro inflammatory transcription factor that produces cytokines can be impaired in Crohn's, so the intestinal microbes can induce an exaggerated response by the adaptive immune system, causing chronic GI inflammation
42
what are anti-centromere antibodies seen in
CREST syndrome (limited sclerodactyly)
43
what are all the antibodies that are specific for systemic sclerosis/CREST?
anti-DNA topoisomerase (Scl-70)
44
what do you see antiphospholipid antibodies in
SLE and | antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
45
what is important in calculating Cardiac output
CO = SV x HR CO = rate of O₂ consumption/ AV O₂ content difference
46
what is the most involved artery in atherosclerosis
abdominal aorta next is coronary arteries
47
what is a common cause of death in congenital long QT syndrome
V tach and sudden death
48
define "erosion"
mucosal defect that does NOT fully extend all the way through the muscularis mucosa, which is deep to mucosa and superficial to submucosa
49
what are CAAT and TATA boxes in DNA sequences?
they are the promoter sequences upstream of the start site, and they promote initiation of transcription (not enhancement)
50
what are diabetic pts most likely to die from
MI, coronary artery disease
51
what cancer do the owl eyes show up in
Hodgkin Lymphoma
52
what's the buzzword for Burkitt lymphoma
starry sky
53
which cells help make the non-caseating granulomas seen in Crohn's disease
Th1 cells they produce IL-2, IFN-gamma, and TNF