7/16 Flashcards

1
Q

how do you calculate RBF and RPF

A

RBF = (PAH clearance) / (1-Hct)

RPF = (PAH clearance)

PAH clearance = [(urine PAH) x (urine flow)] / (plasma PAH)

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2
Q

how does the lecithin-sphingomyelin L/S ratio change in a developing baby

A

they’re ~the same until about 30 weeks, then L starts increasing while sphingomyelin stays roughly the same.
This increases the L/S ratio

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3
Q

how is glucose taken into the cells

A

facilitated diffusion via carrier-mediated transport

the GLUT carrier proteins are stereoselective for D-glucose

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4
Q

what is ferritin

A

an intracellular iron-binding storage protein

useful serum marker of total body iron stores

decreased in iron-deficiency anemia
elevated in iron-overload or infection

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5
Q

what is transferrin

A

molecule that delivers iron to liver and bone marrow

measure of iron in blood

for every 3 transferrin molecules, 1 will be bound to Fe.

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6
Q

what is TIBC and % saturation

A

TIBC:
measure of transferrin molecules in the blood

% saturation:
percentage of transferrin molecules that are bound by iron (normal is 33%)

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7
Q

what happens to Iron lab values when you have low iron

A

Low ferritin
(storage of Fe is depleated)

high TIBC
(always opposite of Ferritin)

low serum Fe

low % saturation

high Transferrin (when there’s low Ferrying, the liver will make more TF to try to increase Fe, and that’s also where the high TIBC comes from)

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8
Q

where is the majority of water reabsorbed in a nephron

A

proximal convoluted tubule

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9
Q

what is the thin descending loop known as

A

concentrating segment
passively reabsorbs water.
impermeable to Na+

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10
Q

what happens in the thick ascending loop

A

Na/K/2Cl transporter to reabsorb some of these ions.
urine becomes less concentrated as it ascends

impermeable to water, so it stays in the tubules.

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11
Q

what happens in the early Proximal convoluted tubule

A

reabsorbs >60% water filtered by glomerulus, regardless of hydration status

reabsorbs all glucose and amino acids

reabsorbs most small ions and uric acid

isotonic absorpption

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12
Q

what happens in the early distal convoluted tubule

A

makes urine fully dilute by reabsorbing Na and Cl.

urine is at its lowest osmolality here

H2O is impermeable in the early portion. becomes variable later on with Vasopressin

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13
Q

what is Hepatitis B’s replication sequence

A

dsDNA –> (+)RNA template –> dsDNA

HBV replicates via reverse transcriptase, even though it is a DNA virus

it occasionally goes to a single strand mode

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14
Q

what is the only ssDNA virus

A

Parvovirus B19

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15
Q

what is the histologic progression of an ischemic stroke

A
12-48 hrs:
Red neurons (eosinophils! and loos of Nissl substance!!)

1-3 days:
necrosis + neutrophils

3-7 days:
macrophage/microglia and myelin phagocytosis

1-2 weeks:
reactive gloss and vascular proliferation
(liquefactive necrosis)

> 2 weeks:
glial scar formation w/ astrocytes

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16
Q

Run through Aortic/Pharyngeal arch derivatives

A

1st:
maxillary artery
CN 5
“1st is maximal”

2nd:
stapedial artery and hypoid artery
CN 7
“Second = Stapedial”

3rd:
Common Carotid artery and proximal internal Carotid
CN 9
“C is 3rd letter”

4th:
on left, aortic arch
on right, proximal R subclavian artery
CN 10
"4th arch = 4 limbs = systemic"

6th:
proximal pulmonary arteries and (L) ductus arteriosus
CN 10
“6ulmonary arch”

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17
Q

run through pharyngeal pouch derivatives

A

1st:
ears

2nd:
tonsils

3rd:
inferior parathyroid
thymus

4th:
superior parathyroid
parafollicular C cells of thyroid

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18
Q

what stimulates neutrophil migration to inflammation

A

Leukotriene B4

“Neutrophils arrive B4 others”

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19
Q

what does PGI2 do

A

PGI2 inhibits platelet aggregation and promotes vasodilation

“Platelet gathering Inhibitor”

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20
Q

what does complement do

A

they’re inflammatory anaphylotoxins that trigger histamine release from mast cells

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21
Q

what does interferon-gamma do

A

activates macrophages, increases MHC expression, and promotes Th1 cell differentiation

produced primarily by activated T cells and NK cells

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22
Q

what does Thromboxane A2 do

A

increases platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction

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23
Q

what are the 3 important chemotactic agents

A

LTB4
C5a
IL-8 (clean up on aisle 8)

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24
Q

what does hydroxyurea do

A

increases HbF synthesis

reserved for sickle cell pts with frequent pain crises

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25
what is the defect in xeroderma pigmentosum
NER, a defect in an ENDONUCLEASE pts have increased sensitivity to UV light and cannot repair pyrimidine dimers
26
what is caused by a defect in DNA mismatch repair
HNPCC or Lynch syndrome high incidence of colorectal, endometrial, and ovarian cancer (CEOs) this is EXONUCLEASE proofreading defects
27
what do Ras mutations cause
commonly pancreatic or colorectal cancer
28
what do p53 mutations cause
Li-Fraumeni syndrome (wide range of malignancies at a young age)
29
what is Fanconi anemia
mutations in genes responsible for repairing DNA crosslinks ``` causes: aplastic anemia short stature ABSENT THUMBS increased malignancy risk PCT defect, where everything is excreted ```
30
what is gold standard for detecting a microdeletion
FISH
31
what does DiGeorge present with
micro deletion!!! CATCH22 ``` cleft lip/palate/UVULA Abnormal facies Thymic aplasia Cardiac abnormalities Hypocalcemia/hypo-PTH ``` 22q11.2 microdeletion
32
what defect causes the most common heme synthesis disorder
defect in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase causes porphyria cutanea tarda, manifesting as photosensitivity with blisters!!
33
what are the stop codons
UAA UAG UGA "you are annoying you are gross you go away"
34
what is the Duchenne pathogenesis
frameshift or nonsense mutation --> truncated dystrophin
35
what does dystrophin do
dystrophin is supposed to help anchor muscle fibers connect the intracellular cytoskeleton to the transmembrane proteins and EC matrix mutated in Duchenne
36
what is a nonsense mutation
premature stop codon "stop the nonsense"
37
what is a missense mutation
nucleotide substitution that changes the amino acid
38
what does acute mitral regurg cause
high LA pressures and pulmonary edema increased LV preload decreased LV after load (the regurg pathway back to the LA helps remove some LV blood during systole) overall increased Ejection fraction (increased preload + decreased afterload) however, much of that total SV is lost back to the LA, causing a decreased forward SV and reduced CO (hypotension)
39
what is eccentric hypertrophy
dilated cardiomyopathy volume overload 2/2 aortic regurg
40
what is concentric hypertrophy
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy LV is having to pump against a stiff aortic valve (aortic stenosis)
41
when you hear S3 vs S4 heart sounds
S3: dilated cardiomyopathy blood is entering a huge space, so it "plops" in S4: hypertrophic cardiomyopathy blood is being forced into the small (muscular) ventricle, so it the atrial does one last "kick" to fill it the rest of the way
42
how does hypovolemia affect RPF, GFR, and FF
very reduced RPF reduced GFR) this leads to compensatory efferent arteriole vasoconstriction via RAS (and afferent dilation) which raises the FF and maintains GFR at near normal increase in FF (FF = GFR/RPF) as RPF contines to decline, increasing the glomerular oncotic pressure will eventually overwhelm the compensatory increase in hydrostatic pressure, leading to a quick drop in GFR and renal failure
43
what is poison ivy
type of contact dermatitis, a delayed-type hypersensitivity TYPE 4 HYPERSENSITIVITY T-CELL MEDIATED
44
What are the 2 phases of a delayed type hypersensitivity
type 4: 1: sensitization phase creation of hapten-specific T cells takes 10-14 days cutaneous dendritic cells take up the haptens and express them on MHC class 1 and 2 molecules as happen-conjugated peptides. these dendritic cells travel to the draining LNs and interact w/ happen-sensitive CD4 and CD8 T cells, causing activation and clonal expansion 2: elicitation phase occurs within 2-3 days following re-exposure to the same antigen (or after 1st exposure to something highly antigenic like urushiol/poison ivy) the hapten is taken up by skin cells and causes activation of hapten-sensitized T cells in the dermis/epidermis. causes inflammatory response and clinical manifestations of contact dermatitis
45
what does primary (psychogenic) polydipsia present with labs
hyponatremia with a low initial urine osmolality a water deprivation study will differentiate between Primary Polydipsia and DI.
46
how does a water deprivation test work
pt not allowed to drink measure urine osmolality then administer vasopressin (ADH) and re-check urine Primary polydipsia: pts will concentrate urine during water deprivation (appropriate response) ADH admin does not significantly change urine concentration because the pt has already appropriately concentrated urine themselves DI: inability to concentrate urine 2/2 either low ADH (central DI) or decreased renal response to ADH (nephrogenic DI) plasma Na will be high (losing dilute water) water deprivation will not lead to a significant change in osmolality
47
how do you treat central DI
desmopressin (synthetic ADH)
48
how do you treat nephrogenic DI
thiazide diuretics (to induce mild hypovolemia, increasing proximal tubule Na and water reabsorption) ``` or indomethacin (decreases prostaglandin synthesis, which inhibit ADH) ```
49
what are sclerotic bone lesions
osteoblastic think prostate cancer
50
what type of bone manifestation is found in multiple myeloma
osteolytic lesions (lucent)
51
what drug can cause priapism
trazodone
52
how do schwannomas present
biphasic pattern of cells S-100 positivity (neural crest origin) commonly with acoustic neuromas with CN8
53
what is a C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency
causes hereditary angioedema due to unregulated activation of kvllikrein --> bradykinin (potent vasodilator associated w/ angioedema) ACE inhibitors are contraindicated C1 esterase inhibitor normally prevents excessive cleaving of C2 and C4
54
what does a DIC peripheral smear show
schistocytes and thrombocytopenia decreased fibrinogen prolonged PT, PTT elevated D-dimer
55
how do competitive inhibitors work
compete with substrate for active binding sites of enzymes add more substrate to achieve the same rxn rate (increases Km- shifts the curve to the right) enzyme function is not changed, so maximal velocity is unchanged
56
what do noncompetitive inhibitors do
most bind allosteric sites, resulting in conformational change that decreases activity and slows rxn rate (decreases Vmax- shifts curve down) they don't change Km and cannot be overcome with higher substrate concentrations
57
what is a renal tumor composed of vessels, smooth muscle, and fat
angiomyolipoma
58
what are angiomyolipomas associated with
they're renal tumors associated with tuberous sclerosis
59
what is tuberous sclerosis
``` Hamartomas in CNS and skin Angiofibromas Mitral regurgitation Ash-leaf spots cardiac Rhabdomyosarcoma (tuberous sclerosis) auto dOminant Mental retardation renal Angiomyolipomas Seizures Shagreen patches ``` "HAMARTOMAS"
60
what is the Rathke pouch from embryogenically
oral ectoderm
61
what comes from ectoderm
surface ectoderm: lots of external "attract-o-derm" structures Rathke pouch neuroectoderm: brain/CNS neural crest: PNS and nearby non-neural structures
62
what comes form mesoderm and endoderm
Endoderm: gut tube-derivatives and internal organs EXCEPT SPLEEN Mesoderm: SPLEEN "means of living" muscle, bone, cartilage, etc
63
what is the most common acute compartment syndrome injury in the leg
deep peroneal (fibular) nerve also includes anterior tibial artery
64
what does total peripheral resistance and heart contraction velocity look like when you're in hypovolemia
both are high due to sympathetic activation fluid administration will reduce sympathetic activation and decrease both of these
65
what is oseltamivir's MOA
neuraminidase inhibitor decreases release of virion particles
66
what does oseltamivir treat
Influenza A and B viruses
67
what do you see delta waves in
Wolf-Parkinson White syndrome
68
what is wolf parkinson white syndroem
accessory pathway that bypasses the AV node and directly connects the atria and ventricles
69
what is the prominent artery and often spared artery in polyarteritis nodosa
prominent: renal artery spared: pulmonary
70
what is a common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell pts
salmonella | also staph, so you should pick abx to cover both
71
what is salmonella's main virulence factor
special capsule called "Vi antigen" that prevents it from opsonization and phagocytosis
72
how are particles cleared in the alveoli
phagocytosis from alveolar macrophages | mucociliary transport is used in bronchi and proximal bronchioles
73
what is tennis elbow
lateral epicondylitis repetitive wrist extension, giving you pain on lateral elbow
74
what is special about Herpes meningitis
particular affinity for temporal lobe, | causing personality changes and receptive aphasia (Wernicke's aphasia), cranial nerve palsies, and seizures
75
which two antibiotics bind directly to transpeptidases
penicillin and cephalosporins
76
what are transpeptidases
penicillin-binding proteins they function to build the bacteria cell walls
77
what does vancomycin bind to
cell wall glycoproteins, which prevents transpeptidases from forming cross-links
78
what is deposited in PSGN
immune complex of IgG, IgM, and C3 this gives you "spike and dome"
79
what gives you spike and dome renal biopsies
PSGN and immune complex deposition of IgG, IgM, and C3
80
when do you see renal fibrin deposition
RPGN
81
what does chronic graft rejection look like
obliterative intimal thickening, (renal) tubular atrophy, and interstitial fibrosis
82
where do fish toxins bind
voltage-gated Na channels
83
what's the pathogenesis of MS
T cell and antibody-mediated response against the CNS- oligodendrocytes and myelin
84
what are the 2 uncommon ways to inherit Down Syndrome
unbalanced Robertsonian translocation (extra genetic material from Chr 21 attached to another chromosome) mosaicism: 2 distinct cell lines as a result of nondisjunction during mitosis (one nl genotype, one with trisomy 21) proportion determines severity of Down
85
what does Hepatitis B histology look like
finely granular, pale pink/eosinophilic, ground-glass appearance granular eosinophilic "ground glass" or "sand nuclei" appearance
86
what does Hepatitis C histology look like
lymphoid aggregates w/ focal areas of macrovascular steatosis
87
what does Hepatitis A histology look like
hepatocyte swelling, monocyte infiltration, and Apoptotic Councilman bodies!
88
what does hepatic steatosis and later, alcoholic hepatitis look like on histology
macrovascular fatty change (triglyceride accumulation) alcoholic hepatits: swollen and necrotic hepatocytes with neutrophilic infiltration MALLORY BODIES (intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions of damaged keratin filaments)
89
what does alcoholic cirrhosis biopsy look like
micro nodular, irregularly shrunken liver w/ "hobnail" appearance sclerosis around central vein (zone 3)
90
what happens if you have Hemoglobin that has an increased affinity for oxygen
you reduce its ability to reduce oxygen in the peripheral tissues this means your kidneys will see lower oxygen levels, and cause compensatory erythrocytosis
91
how can PID cause infertility
inadequate Antibiotic treatment (too short or not enough coverage), leading to fallopian tube scarring, which can turn into infertility
92
describe scarlet fever
blanching, sandpaper-like body rash strawberry tongue! circumoral pallor possible gray-white exudates in the setting of group A strep pharyngitis can predispose you to rheumatic fever and PSGN
93
what does TB's cord factor do
inactivates neutrophils, damages mitochondria, and induces release of TNF grows as "serpentine" cords
94
how is anthrax typically acquired
occupational hazard those who handle livestock that have not been immunized or those who handle hides
95
what is the progression of alcohol withdrawal
6-24 hrs: anxiety, insomnia, tremor, diaphoresis, palps, GI upset, intact orientation 12-48 hrs: seizures 12-28 hrs: hallucinations ; intact orientation 48-96hrs: delirium tremens: confusion, agitation, fever, tachy, HTN, diaphoresis, hallucinations
96
why can you not use daptomycin in pneumonia
inactivated by surfactant
97
major side effect of daptomycin
myopathy monitor with CPK level
98
what's a common cause of aspiration pneumonia
bacteroides fragilis "bacteroides in the back of your mouth"
99
what's a common saying to remember how to use clindamycin and metronidazole
"clindamycin above the diaphragm, metronidazole below the diaphragm"