7/24 Flashcards

1
Q

when is the cleavage to get dichorionic/diamniotic twins

A

morula cleavage

day 1-3

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2
Q

what disease presents before 40 with neuro (extrapyramidal) symptoms, cirrhosis, hemolytic anemia, and dementia

A

Wilson’s

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3
Q

how does hematopoiesis move through embryologic development

A

yolk sac (third week)
liver (1 month)
spleen and lymph (2-4 months)
bone marrow (>4 months)

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4
Q

how do you distinguish Diffuse from Limited Scleroderma?

A

Diffuse: anti-topoisomerase I (anti-Scl)

Limited (CREST): anti-centromere

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5
Q

what is the COD in scleroderma

A

rapid progression to visceral involvement with fibrosis, including pulm, renal, CVS, etc

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6
Q

how do you explain swelling and inflammation within a day after a protein inoculation

A

pre-existing antibodies react with the injected antigen, forming immune complexes, and they activate complement to cause inflammation

type 3 hypersensitivity rxn

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7
Q

what’s the buzzword for strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet fever (strep pyo; sandpaper-like rash)

or Kawasaki disease

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8
Q

which disease gives you sandpaper like rash, pharyngitis, and fever>

A

strep pyo
scarlet fever

via production of pyrogenic exotoxins

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9
Q

what is phentolamine’s MOA

A

alpha1 and alpha2 antagonist

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10
Q

what is propranolol’s MOA

A

beta1 and beta2 antagonist

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11
Q

what is epinephrine’s MOA

A

alpha1, alpha2, beta1, beta2 agonist

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12
Q

what is isoproterenol’s MOA

A

beta1 and beta2 agonist

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13
Q

what is Norepinephrine’s MOA?

A

alpha1, alpha2, beta1 agonist

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14
Q

what will give you a LMN disease with flaccid muscle weakness, hypotonia, loss of voluntary movement, loss of DTRs, and fasciculations?

A

damage to ventral horn cells

called Werdnig-Hoffman disease

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15
Q

what are these CSF findings:
100-1000 cells, mostly lymphocytes
low Glucose
high protein

A

fungal

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16
Q
what are these CSF findings:
up to 90,000 cells, mostly PMNs
low Glucose
high protein
markedly elevated opening pressure
A

bacterial

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17
Q
what are these CSF findings:
100-1000 cells, mostly lymphocytes
normal Glucose
high protein
slightly elevated opening pressure
A

aseptic/ viral

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18
Q

what are lab findings in Turner

A
high FSH (no neg feedback from ovaries)
high LH
low estrogen
low inhibin
normal Growth Hormone
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19
Q

what gives you decreased plts and normal RBCs. you have auto-antibodies against platelet antigens GP1b or GP2b3a. often 2/2 viral infection, esp in children. smear will show a few large, young platelets. NO SCHISTOCYTES

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

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20
Q

what gives you decreased plts and fragmented RBCs. usually associated with Shiga-toxin (Shigella or EHEC, campylobacter, or viruses). commonly contaminated foods, bloody diarrhea, thrombocytopenia, bruising, acute renal failure, irritability, lethargy, seizures. blood smear shows low platelets and schistocytes

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome

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21
Q

what gives you fragmented RBCs, +/- low plts, depending on severity and bone marrow response. SCHISTOCYTES

A

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

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22
Q

what gives you low platelets and fragmented RBCs

thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura. ADAMTS13 deficiency, NEURO symptoms (AMS), renal dysfunction, SCHISTOCYTES

A

thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

23
Q

what gives you normal platelet numbers and decreased platelet function

A

VWF disease

24
Q
what presents with:
facial lesions
hypo pigmented "ash leaf" spots on skin
multiple hamartomas
renal ANGIOMYOLIPOMAS,
cardiac rhabdomyomas
astrocytomas
SUBEPENDYMAL GIANT CELL ASTROCYTOMA (LATERAL VENTRICLE)
A

Tuberous sclerosis

25
what can acanthosis nigricans indicate x 2?
diabetes underlying carcinoma, particularly gastric`
26
what iron labs do you see in anemia of chronic disease
low MCV low serum iron low TIBC high ferritin
27
what type of kidney problem has deposits of macrophages and fibrin
RPGN crescents
28
what type of kidney problem has deposits of C3 and IgG
RPGN- Goodpsture Syndrome linear deposits of these
29
which 2 parkinson's drugs are dopamine agonists
pramipexole and ropinirole
30
what does low C3 and C4, fever, pruritic skin rash, arthralgias mean you have?
serum sickness type 3 Hypersensitivity rxn!! you're depositing IgG or IgM complement-fixing antibodies, so you're getting a localized consumption of complement (low C3)
31
what hormone prevents lactation in pregnancy despite rising levels of prolactin
progesterone it inhibits lactation through negative feedback on prolactin in the anterior pituitary it also inhibits FSH and LH during pregnancy
32
what is beta-hCG's role in pregnancy
secreted by syncytiotrophoblast during first trimester serves to maintain the corpus luteum until the placenta can make adequate estrogen and progesterone
33
which artery supplies Broca's area and Wernicke's area
middle cerebral artery
34
what would a pt with CF's Na levels be
low excessive Na and Cl loss via sweat recommend salt supplementation
35
which disease presents in infants with persistent jaundice, kernicterus, early death, 2/2 lack of UGT enzyme needed to catalyze bile glucuronidation
Crigler-Najjar syndrome
36
which disease presents with deficient bilirubin excretion into bile canaliculi 2/2 absent biliary transport protein
Dubin Johnson syndrome "dark" liver"
37
what can atropine treatment for an organophosphate toxicity NOT prevent
Development of nicotinic effects such as muscle paralysis only pralidoxime can reverse both muscarinic and nicotinic organophosphates
38
how will a male baby present with dysfunctional sertoli cells but normal leydig cells
internal organs: Male and female External genitalia: Male Sertoli cells are responsible for producing AMH, required for involution of paramesonephric ducts and "removal" of Female organs Leydig cells are responsible for secreting testosterone, which stimulates wolffian ducts to develop into internal male organs. DHT transforms all the primitive structures into external male reproductive organs
39
which amino acid synthesizes Nitric oxide
Arginine
40
which 2 pathways regulate cognition and behavior
mesolimbic and mesocortical dopaminergic pathway
41
which pathway regulates voluntary movements
nigrostriatal dopaminergic
42
which pathway inhibits prolactin secretion
tuberoinfundibulnar dopaminergic
43
what are anti-Jo, anti-SRP, and anti-Mi-2, and anti-Histidyl-tRNA synthetase specific for
polymyositis
44
what harm does ethanol do to biochemistry
alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase consume NAD+ to metabolize ethanol this increases the NADH/NAD+ ratio, which inhibits pathways requiring NAD+ (esp citric acid cycle)
45
which vitamin is frequently deficient in chronic alcoholism
thiamine
46
what are the 3 cofactors thiamine plays a role with
think "ATP" alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase transketolase pyruvate dehydrogenase
47
what molecule can help differentiate between pancreatic vs mucosal malabsorption
D-xylose it's a monosaccharide whose absorption is not affected by exocrine pancreas insufficiency
48
which cells are insulin-mediated,and which transporter do they use
GLUT-4 skeletal muscle and adipocytes
49
which tremor do pts often self-medicate with alchol
essential tremor "familial" tremor classically worsens when maintaining a particular posture (holding an object)
50
what is first line treatment for essential tremor
propranolol- | nonselective beta antagonist
51
what is a progressive obstruction of extra hepatic bile ducts with dark urine, acholic stools, and elevated direct bilirubin presenting in the first 2 months of life, and what does its biopsy show
biliary atresia biopsy shows intrahepatic bile duct proliferation, portal tract edema, and fibrosis
52
what types of drugs should be avoided in HCM pts
drugs that lower LV volume- so the ones that reduce cardiac preload or after load, decrease venous return, or decrease systemic vascular resistance (dihydropyridine CCBs or nitroglycerin)
53
what's the hormone problem in Kallman syndrome
absence of GnRH neurons in the hypothalamus 2/2 defective migration