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Daily Flashcard Quizzes > 7/24 > Flashcards

7/24 Flashcards

1
Q

when is the cleavage to get dichorionic/diamniotic twins

A

morula cleavage

day 1-3

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2
Q

what disease presents before 40 with neuro (extrapyramidal) symptoms, cirrhosis, hemolytic anemia, and dementia

A

Wilson’s

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3
Q

how does hematopoiesis move through embryologic development

A

yolk sac (third week)
liver (1 month)
spleen and lymph (2-4 months)
bone marrow (>4 months)

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4
Q

how do you distinguish Diffuse from Limited Scleroderma?

A

Diffuse: anti-topoisomerase I (anti-Scl)

Limited (CREST): anti-centromere

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5
Q

what is the COD in scleroderma

A

rapid progression to visceral involvement with fibrosis, including pulm, renal, CVS, etc

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6
Q

how do you explain swelling and inflammation within a day after a protein inoculation

A

pre-existing antibodies react with the injected antigen, forming immune complexes, and they activate complement to cause inflammation

type 3 hypersensitivity rxn

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7
Q

what’s the buzzword for strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet fever (strep pyo; sandpaper-like rash)

or Kawasaki disease

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8
Q

which disease gives you sandpaper like rash, pharyngitis, and fever>

A

strep pyo
scarlet fever

via production of pyrogenic exotoxins

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9
Q

what is phentolamine’s MOA

A

alpha1 and alpha2 antagonist

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10
Q

what is propranolol’s MOA

A

beta1 and beta2 antagonist

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11
Q

what is epinephrine’s MOA

A

alpha1, alpha2, beta1, beta2 agonist

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12
Q

what is isoproterenol’s MOA

A

beta1 and beta2 agonist

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13
Q

what is Norepinephrine’s MOA?

A

alpha1, alpha2, beta1 agonist

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14
Q

what will give you a LMN disease with flaccid muscle weakness, hypotonia, loss of voluntary movement, loss of DTRs, and fasciculations?

A

damage to ventral horn cells

called Werdnig-Hoffman disease

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15
Q

what are these CSF findings:
100-1000 cells, mostly lymphocytes
low Glucose
high protein

A

fungal

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16
Q 
what are these CSF findings:
up to 90,000 cells, mostly PMNs
low Glucose
high protein
markedly elevated opening pressure
A

bacterial

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17
Q 
what are these CSF findings:
100-1000 cells, mostly lymphocytes
normal Glucose
high protein
slightly elevated opening pressure
A

aseptic/ viral

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18
Q

what are lab findings in Turner

A 
high FSH (no neg feedback from ovaries)
high LH
low estrogen
low inhibin
normal Growth Hormone
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19
Q

what gives you decreased plts and normal RBCs. you have auto-antibodies against platelet antigens GP1b or GP2b3a. often 2/2 viral infection, esp in children. smear will show a few large, young platelets. NO SCHISTOCYTES

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

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20
Q

what gives you decreased plts and fragmented RBCs. usually associated with Shiga-toxin (Shigella or EHEC, campylobacter, or viruses). commonly contaminated foods, bloody diarrhea, thrombocytopenia, bruising, acute renal failure, irritability, lethargy, seizures. blood smear shows low platelets and schistocytes

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome

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21
Q

what gives you fragmented RBCs, +/- low plts, depending on severity and bone marrow response. SCHISTOCYTES

A

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

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22
Q

what gives you low platelets and fragmented RBCs

thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura. ADAMTS13 deficiency, NEURO symptoms (AMS), renal dysfunction, SCHISTOCYTES

A

thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

23
Q

what gives you normal platelet numbers and decreased platelet function

A

VWF disease

24
Q 
what presents with:
facial lesions
hypo pigmented "ash leaf" spots on skin
multiple hamartomas
renal ANGIOMYOLIPOMAS,
cardiac rhabdomyomas
astrocytomas
SUBEPENDYMAL GIANT CELL ASTROCYTOMA (LATERAL VENTRICLE)
A

Tuberous sclerosis

25
Q

what can acanthosis nigricans indicate x 2?

A

diabetes

underlying carcinoma, particularly gastric`

26
Q

what iron labs do you see in anemia of chronic disease

A

low MCV
low serum iron
low TIBC

high ferritin

27
Q

what type of kidney problem has deposits of macrophages and fibrin

A

RPGN

crescents

28
Q

what type of kidney problem has deposits of C3 and IgG

A

RPGN- Goodpsture Syndrome

linear deposits of these

29
Q

which 2 parkinson’s drugs are dopamine agonists

A

pramipexole and ropinirole

30
Q

what does low C3 and C4, fever, pruritic skin rash, arthralgias mean you have?

A

serum sickness

type 3 Hypersensitivity rxn!!

you’re depositing IgG or IgM complement-fixing antibodies, so you’re getting a localized consumption of complement (low C3)

31
Q

what hormone prevents lactation in pregnancy despite rising levels of prolactin

A

progesterone

it inhibits lactation through negative feedback on prolactin in the anterior pituitary

it also inhibits FSH and LH during pregnancy

32
Q

what is beta-hCG’s role in pregnancy

A

secreted by syncytiotrophoblast during first trimester

serves to maintain the corpus luteum until the placenta can make adequate estrogen and progesterone

33
Q

which artery supplies Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area

A

middle cerebral artery

34
Q

what would a pt with CF’s Na levels be

A

low
excessive Na and Cl loss via sweat

recommend salt supplementation

35
Q

which disease presents in infants with persistent jaundice, kernicterus, early death, 2/2 lack of UGT enzyme needed to catalyze bile glucuronidation

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome

36
Q

which disease presents with deficient bilirubin excretion into bile canaliculi 2/2 absent biliary transport protein

A

Dubin Johnson syndrome

“dark” liver”

37
Q

what can atropine treatment for an organophosphate toxicity NOT prevent

A

Development of nicotinic effects such as muscle paralysis

only pralidoxime can reverse both muscarinic and nicotinic organophosphates

38
Q

how will a male baby present with dysfunctional sertoli cells but normal leydig cells

A

internal organs:
Male and female

External genitalia:
Male

Sertoli cells are responsible for producing AMH, required for involution of paramesonephric ducts and “removal” of Female organs

Leydig cells are responsible for secreting testosterone, which stimulates wolffian ducts to develop into internal male organs.

DHT transforms all the primitive structures into external male reproductive organs

39
Q

which amino acid synthesizes Nitric oxide

A

Arginine

40
Q

which 2 pathways regulate cognition and behavior

A

mesolimbic and mesocortical

dopaminergic pathway

41
Q

which pathway regulates voluntary movements

A

nigrostriatal

dopaminergic

42
Q

which pathway inhibits prolactin secretion

A

tuberoinfundibulnar

dopaminergic

43
Q

what are anti-Jo, anti-SRP, and anti-Mi-2, and anti-Histidyl-tRNA synthetase specific for

A

polymyositis

44
Q

what harm does ethanol do to biochemistry

A

alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase consume NAD+ to metabolize ethanol

this increases the NADH/NAD+ ratio, which
inhibits pathways requiring NAD+ (esp citric acid cycle)

45
Q

which vitamin is frequently deficient in chronic alcoholism

A

thiamine

46
Q

what are the 3 cofactors thiamine plays a role with

A

think “ATP”

alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
transketolase
pyruvate dehydrogenase

47
Q

what molecule can help differentiate between pancreatic vs mucosal malabsorption

A

D-xylose

it’s a monosaccharide whose absorption is not affected by exocrine pancreas insufficiency

48
Q

which cells are insulin-mediated,and which transporter do they use

A

GLUT-4

skeletal muscle and adipocytes

49
Q

which tremor do pts often self-medicate with alchol

A

essential tremor

“familial” tremor
classically worsens when maintaining a particular posture (holding an object)

50
Q

what is first line treatment for essential tremor

A

propranolol-

nonselective beta antagonist

51
Q

what is a progressive obstruction of extra hepatic bile ducts with dark urine, acholic stools, and elevated direct bilirubin presenting in the first 2 months of life, and what does its biopsy show

A

biliary atresia

biopsy shows intrahepatic bile duct proliferation, portal tract edema, and fibrosis

52
Q

what types of drugs should be avoided in HCM pts

A

drugs that lower LV volume- so the ones that reduce cardiac preload or after load, decrease venous return, or decrease systemic vascular resistance (dihydropyridine CCBs or nitroglycerin)

53
Q

what’s the hormone problem in Kallman syndrome

A

absence of GnRH neurons in the hypothalamus 2/2 defective migration

Daily Flashcard Quizzes (21 decks)

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