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Daily Flashcard Quizzes > 7/26 > Flashcards

7/26 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a possible complication of taking erythropoietin-stimulating meds?

A 
worsening HTN
thromboembolic events (more viscosity)
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2
Q

what can valproate do to pregnant women

A

can cause neural tube defects during the vulnerable period (4th week of gestation), often before pts discover they’re pregnant

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3
Q

which lab value is a measure of the potency of an inhaled anesthetic

A

MAC

potency is inversely proportional to the MAC: the lower the MAC, the more potent a drug

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4
Q

which drug that can be prescribed for HTN can cause peripheral edema

A

dihydropyridine CCBs (amlodipine)

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5
Q

what should HIV pts with CD4 counts <50 be administered prophylactically to prevent MAC?

A

Azithromycin

it might hint at MAC with nonspecific symptoms but a bug that grows well higher temperatures, like 41 C

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6
Q

which G protein couple receptors increase and decrease insulin secretion, respectively?

A 
increase insulin:
Muscarinic M3 (Gq)
Glucagon (Gs/Gq)
beta-2 adrenergic (Gs)
glucagon-like peptide-1 (Gs)

decrease insulin:
alpha-2 (Gi)
somatostatin 2 (Gi)

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7
Q

which drug treats trigeminal myalgia but can also give you pancytopenia/bone marrow suppression

A

carbamazepine

it inhibits high-frequency Na channels

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8
Q

what enzyme degrades 6-mercaptopurine

A

Xanthine oxidase

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9
Q

what is vincristine’s main side effect

A

neurotoxicity (peripheral neuropathy)

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10
Q

which drug preferentially binds to rapidly depolarizing and ischemic ventricular myocardial fibers, with minimal effect on normal ventricular myocardium

A 
class 1B antiarrhythmics (Lidocaine)- 
they're highly efficacious in inhibiting ischemia-induced ventricular arrhythmias

(amiodarone is 1st line though)

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11
Q

which drugs are the short vs long acting sulfonylureas

A

short: glipizide
long: glyburide, glimepiride

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12
Q

what 3 drugs do you commonly use for medical abortion

A

mifepristone is a progesterone antagonist (and a glucocorticoid antagonist)

misoprostol is a PGE1 agonist

methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist

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13
Q

what are you most concerned about with lamotrigine

A

toxic epidermal necrolysis / SJS

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14
Q

what is the factor that changes with increasing age

A

renal clearance, even in the presence of normal Creatinine levels

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15
Q

which drug MOA treats restless leg syndrome

A

dopamine agonist (pramipexole)

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16
Q

where are the Beta1 receptors that ABEAM beta blockers act on?

A

cardiomyocytes
JGA cells

(vascular SM has beta2 receptors)

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17
Q

what is the term for lip smacking, biting, grimacing, tongue protrusions, and choreoathetoid movements of the had, limbs, and trunk?

A

tardive dyskinesia

potentially irreversible movement disorder due to prolonged antipsychotic exposure (yrs)

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18
Q

what is the term for inner restlessness and inability to sit/stand in one position with antipsychotic meds

A

akathisia

frequently misdiagnosed worsening psychotic agitation
–you should decrease (not increase) this pt’s antipsychotic dosage

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19
Q

what involuntary muscle contraction of neck, mouth, tongue, or eye muscles occurs within days of starting an antipsychotic drug?

A

acute dystonia

especially high potency first gen antipsychotics (Haloperidol)

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20
Q

what is chlordiazepoxide drug type

A

benzodiazepine

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21
Q

what’s first line for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and generalized epilepsy

A

valproic acid, a broad-spectrum anti seizure

22
Q

how do you reverse arsenic/insectaside poisoning

A

dimercaprol, a chelating agent

pts present with abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, hypotension, GARLIC BREATH,

23
Q

what can you use to reverse acute lead poisoning

A

CaNa2EDTA

it forms non-ionizing salts and increases urinary lead excretion

24
Q

what do you use to reverse iron overdose/overlaod

A

deferoxamine

chelating agent that binds circulating iron and facilitates urinary excretion

25
Q

how do you reverse cyanide poisoning

A

hydroxycobalamin (Vit B12 precursor)

pts present with confusion, CHERRY RED SKIN, vomiting, etc

26
Q

which drug is a selective MAO-B inhibitor

A

selegiline

27
Q

which drug is as effective as aspirin in preventing cardiovascular events in pts with CAD

A

clopidogrel

it irreversibly blocks the P2Y12 component of ADP receptors on pltsurface and prevents platelet aggregation

28
Q

do you expect high or low phosphatidylcholine levels in a pt with gallstones

A

low

it helps dissolve cholesterol

29
Q

what is worrisome about removing an hydatid cyst in surgery

A

anaphylactic shock

30
Q

what causes Mallory Weiss tears

A

increased intraluminal gastric pressure, usually from vomiting

31
Q

what happens in kidneys with long-term NSAID use

A

CHRONIC INTERSTITIAL NEPHRITIS,
seen as patchy interstitial inflammation with fibrosis, tubular atrophy, PAPILLARY NECROSIS, scarring, and caliceal architecture distortion

NSAIDS also decrease prostaglandin synthesis, causing construction of medullary vasa recta and ISCHEMIC PAPILLARY NECROSIS

32
Q

what is pure red cell aplasia associated with

A

thymoma
lymphocytic leukemias
parvovirus B19

33
Q

what presents with renal angiomylolipomas, brain hamartomas, and ash-leaf skin patches

A

tuberous sclerosis

34
Q

what’s the most common heart problem in SLE

A

pericarditis

sharp pleuritic chest pain relieved by leaning forward

35
Q

which autoimmune disorder do you see low complement

A

SLE

binding of autoantibodies to self antigens leads to deposition of immune complexes in tissues and consumption of complement

36
Q

which disease do you see anti-CCP

A

RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

37
Q

what are pseudo gout crystals made of

A

calcium pyrophosphate

38
Q

what do you see on Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis histology

A

AKA deQuervain (pain)

lymphocytic infiltrate with macrophages and multinucleate giant cells

39
Q

what should you consider if you’re given epigastric areancalcifications

A

chronic alcoholic pancreatitis, so maybe a malabsorption problem

40
Q

what disease name presents with niacin deficiency

A

Hartnup disease

impaired transport of neutral Amino acids in the Small intestine and proximal tubule of kidney.

41
Q

which protein removes RNA primers and replaces with DNA

A

DNA polymerase 1

42
Q

what does skin blanching during IV NE infusion likely mean and how do you treat?

A

NE extravasation/leak
causing surrounding tissue to vasoconstrict

best to prevent/treat with alpha blocker, phentolamine

43
Q

what is a likely fracture in a hyperextension injury (FOOSH) near the elbow?

A

supracondylar humeral fracture

44
Q

what structure are you likely to damage in a supracondylar humeral fracture with an anterolateral vs a anteromedial displacement?

A

anterolateral: radial nerve
anteromedial: median nerve and brachial artery

45
Q

what type of treatment is most important in treating diphtheria

A

diphtheria antitoxin, passive immunization (transfer of pre-existing, neutralizing antibodies)

also antibiotics and DPT vaccine (active immunization, providing lasting immunity against future infections)

46
Q

which cells release IFN-gamma when exposed to TB?

A

T cells!

47
Q

what is the category of bordatella pertussis

A

gram negative coccobacillus

48
Q

what presents with painful genital ulcers with ragged borders, grey exudate, and inguinal lymphadenopathy

A 
CHANCROID
Haemophilus ducreyi (you "do cry" with H Ducreyi)

dx with clumping gram negative rods

49
Q

which viruses acquire their bilayer membrane from the host’s nuclear membrane

A

herpesviruses, which includes CMV

most enveloped viruses acquire their bilayer envelop by budding through the PLASMA membrane

50
Q

which drugs risk inducing mania in susceptible pts (with an unrecognized bipolar disordeR)

A

all antidepressants!

51
Q

where are serotonin-releasing neurons

A

Raphe nuclei

this is where SSRIs work

52
Q

which bug is PYR positive

A

strep pyogenes

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