NBME 31 Flashcards

1
Q

Vaginal discharge types

A

Candida A: Cottage cheese like
Chlamydia T: Watery
N. Gonorrhoeae: Mucopurulent
Trichomonas v: Green, malodorous, frothy

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2
Q

antibodies in Granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegener granulomatosis) bind to

A

Neutrophils (c-ANCA = cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies)

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3
Q

Acromegaly resistant to Somatostatine/octreotide tto, treat with

A

D2 agonist (bromocriptine, cabergolin)

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4
Q

To resect a mass in the sella turcica, one must go through

A

Sphenoid sinuses

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5
Q

How does one calculate weight loss with caloric deficit?

A

1 pound of body fat = 3.500 kcal
Caloric deficit per day /3500= number of pounds loss

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6
Q

Anorexia nervosa key feature

A

Intense fear of gaining weight
BMI usually <17
Dry skin, hypotension

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7
Q

Sulfonylureas mec of action

A

Close ATP-dep K+ channels -> depol-> Ca+2 influx -> insulin vesicles release

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8
Q

Undescended testes is called

A

Cryptorchidism

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9
Q

Primary hemostasis steps

A
  1. Vasoconstriction via endothelin
  2. Platelets adhesion via vWF (platelets attach to GpIb the vWF and vWF to collagen)
  3. Platelet activation release TXA2, ADP -> amplifies response
  4. Aggregation/ platelet plug via GpIIb/llla
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10
Q

Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome manifests as___ due to___

A

Atelectasis due to lack of pulm surfactant

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11
Q

Causes of Atelectasis

A
  1. Obstructive: something block alveoli expansion from the inside (mucus)
  2. Compressive: block from the outside (pleural effusion)
  3. Adhesive: lack of surfactant (NRDS)
  4. Cicatricial (pulm fibrosis due to toxin inh)
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12
Q

Hair cell leukemia key features

A

(Hair like)cytoplasmic projections
Acid phosphate positive in presence of Tartrate (TRAP +)
Massive splenomegaly and no lymphadenopathy
B cell tumor

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13
Q

ADPKD (cystic kidney) is autosomal dom, has complete penetrance but

A

variable expression (different phenotypic presentations)

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14
Q

Decrease penetrance means

A

Not all subjects with the genotype manifest the disease

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15
Q

Carcinoid tumor/sd features

A

Secretes Serotonin
Dg with 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (serotonin 1st metabolite)
If metastasis out of gastro track, weight loss, diarrhea and flushing are common

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16
Q

Pancreatic Cancer marker

A

Ca19.9

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17
Q

Young pt (<30) with HTA and periumbilical bruit, expected angiography ?

A

Beaded (pearl like) stenosis of renal artery -> Renin on-> HyperALD

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18
Q

Amoebiasis key feature

A

Colonoscopy showing flask shaped mucosal ulcers
RUQ pain (amoebic abscesses)
Bloody diarrhea

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19
Q

Leukemoid Rx (left shift) outside of hematologic malignancy is the product of ___ that accelerates release of cells from___

A

An acute stressor (infection/inflam/surgery)
Bone marrow postmitotic reserve pool

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20
Q

Sinusitis usually affects ___ sinus, which drains into ___ where a cannula is usually placed

A

Maxillary
At the hiatus semilunaris in the middle meatus

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21
Q

Physiologic gynecomastia can present as

A

tender, unilateral or bilateral mass behind the nipple.
Generally small, rubbery, freely mobile, and well-circumscribed (a mass)

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22
Q

Recent respiratory tract infection + hematuria + igA deposits in mesangium on renal biopsy, think of

A

IgA nephropathy-> increases IgA synthesis and alt complement pathway activation

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23
Q

Pediatric pt with recent resp tract infection and nephrotic sd, think of

A

Minimal change disease

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24
Q

Stents tend to have Paclitaxel to prevent

A

Smooth musc growth (neointima formation) over stent and restenosis

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25
Q

Exudative pleural effusion associates to

A

Infection
Malignancy
Inflam disease (lupus, RA)

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26
Q

Transudative pleural effusion associates with

A

Alt hydrostatic pressure (HF, cirrhosis and nephrotic sd)

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27
Q

pleural fluid-to-serum protein ration > 0.5; pleural fluid-to-serum LDH ratio > 0.6; think of ___ effusion

A

Exudative

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28
Q

Most common type of primary bone cancer___. This commonly originates in ___ or __.

A

Osteosarcoma
Distal femur (above knee)
Proximal tibia (Below the knee)

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29
Q

Hypoglycemia post OH consumption occurs due to

A

Increased NADH, not enough NAD left for the TCA

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30
Q

Baby found unresponsive in crib with dicarboxylic acid in urine but no ketones, think of

A

No fatty acid oxidation due to acyl-CoA DHG def

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31
Q

Basal cell carcinoma features

A

Most common skin cancer
Pink, pearly papule/nodule with central crusting/ulceration
On sun exposed areas (face and neck) *upper lip

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32
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma (skin) features

A

2nd most common skin cancer
Ulcerative, non-healing skin lesions
Commonly on face, lower lip, ears, hands
Keratin pearls on biopsy

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33
Q

Multiple Mieloma is caused by neoplastic proliferation of

A

Plasma cells

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34
Q

Multiple mieloma key features

A

History of radiation, old people
Excess IgG
M spike
Neoplastic Plasma cells-> Excess cytokine production-> Hypercalcemia, bone lesions.

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35
Q

Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia key features

A

nephritic or nephrotic sd + weakness+ purpuric rash/purpura** + arthralgias

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36
Q

Antiglomerular basement membrane disease (Goodpasture sd) features

A

IgG accumulates in basement mb in lung and kidney
Hemoptisis-Hematuria
Type ll hypersensitivity

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37
Q

Fibrinoid necrosis is associated with

A

Vasculitis and other autoimmune diseases

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38
Q

Ursodiol is used for___. It acts (mec)___

A

Cholelithiasis
Decreasing cholesterol secretion into bile via use of ursodeoxycholic acid

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39
Q

Type l hyper IgM sd features

A

Lack of CD40L on CD4+T cells -> no B cell binding -> No Ig class switching-> High IgM, low IgG, igE and IgA -> infection risk (opportunistic, sinopulm, gastro)
Small lymphoid tissue

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40
Q

When SVC is obstructed, blood from the upper body returns to the heart via

A

Int mammary and intercostal veins

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41
Q

COPD Tto

A

Beta-adrenergic agonist (Albuterol) first line
Muscarinic antagonist if sts persist

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42
Q

First degree AV block ECG

A

PRs equally prolonged
QRS are equal

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43
Q

Second degree AV block, Mobitz l ECG

A

PRs increasingly prolonged (PR1<PR2<PR3)
QRS are equal

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44
Q

Second degree AV block, Mobitz ll ECG

A

PRs are equal
Some QRS do not conduct (absent)

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45
Q

Third degree AV block ECG

A

PP intervals are equal
QRS are dissociated (Look distantly equal)
P waves in between QRSs

46
Q

Collagen synthesis requires

A

Prolyl 4- hydroxylase for lysine and proline hydroxylation + Vit C as a cofactor

47
Q

Pt with painful, pruritic rash on groin and thigh, think of ___, by__

A

Tinea cruris by Trichophyton rubrum

48
Q

Polycystic kidney disease is associated with kidney and ___ cysts

49
Q

Autosomal recessive PKD vs Autosomal dominant PKD

A

ARPKD: childhood, renal disease usually req dialysis and/or transplant
ADPKD: adulthood, berry aneurysm and liver cysts

50
Q

Defective peristalsis and relaxation of esophagus (LES contracted) suggests problem with ___. This causes___

A

Myenteric plexus/enteric ganglia (in control of LES and Meissner plexus)
Achalasia

51
Q

Pediatric male pt with history of UTI, abnormally small kidney and Hydronephrosis, think of

A

Ureteral obstruction

52
Q

Lynch Sd feature

A

High Risk for colorectal Ca (other abdo, brain and skin Ca too)
MSH1,2 and 6 mut -> DNA replication errors ->
Suspect if several family members have history of tumor

53
Q

Which Craneal nerves traverse the cavernous sinus

A

III, lV, V1,V2, Vl

54
Q

Acetylcysteine is given for Acetaminophen OD, it helps by increasing

A

Glutathione-> conjugates NAPQI (hepatotoxic) -> easier excretion

55
Q

Silicosis pathognomonic pulm lesions are

A

Silicotic nodules with spiral appearance from layered collagen

56
Q

Influenza vaccination produces antibodies again which viral protein?

A

Hemagglutinin

57
Q

Oseltamivir targets which influenza virus prot?

A

Neuraminidase

58
Q

Skin lesion with asymmetry, irregular borders, color variation, a diameter greater than 6 mm, and rapid evolution, think of

A

Malignant melanoma
Think of ABCDE

59
Q

EB virus reactivation in immunocompromised is associated with

A

Lymphoproliferative disease, nasopharyngeal and gastric carcinomas, oral hairy cell leukoplakia, and various lymphomas.

60
Q

Breast Ca can be sporadic but also a germline mut of BRCA1 or 2, which is autosomal__ . Main RF is___

A

Dominant
Family history of breast or ovarian Ca before 45 yo.

61
Q

Poorly controlled HIV pt with supraclavicular mass, think of

A

Malignant transformation of B cells (lymphoma) by EB virus

62
Q

Exposure to rat poinsons is associated to__, this will cause ___ and as a result___

A

Warfarin intox
Vit K inhibition
No carboxylation of glutamate on coagulation factors

63
Q

Ant wall duodenal ulcers have high risk of __ whereas post wall ulcers have higher risk of___

A

Perforation
Hemorrhage (traversing gastroduodenal artery is near)

64
Q

History of antiacids + HyperCa+2 + alkalosis, think of

A

Milk-alkali sd

65
Q

Celiac trunk divides into ___ arteries

A

Common Hepatic
Left gastric
Splenic

66
Q

Marfan key features

A

Connective tissue prob (impaired collagen synthesis)
Cardiaovasc: Ao dilation, regurgitation, aneurisms
Ocular: ectopia lentis, retinal detachment
Skeletal: tall, long fingers, chest abnormalities, joint hypermobility

67
Q

Cimetidine affects other drugs metab due to___

A

CYP450 inhibition

68
Q

Sural Nerve is good for nerve biopsy because it is purely ___

69
Q

Acute Tubular Necrosis features

A

Usually in the context of shock/ischemia or nephrotoxicity
Initial oligiria with subsequent polyuric phase
Muddy brown casts in urine

70
Q

Acute myelocytic leukemia features

A

Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Leukocytosis (majority are immature granulocytes/myeloblasts)

71
Q

Down and out eye position + ptosis, think of which nerve damage ? This will affect the ipsilat ___ pupillary arc

A

Oculomotor
Efferent

72
Q

Inclusion body myositis features

A

Proximal or distal weakness
Does not respond to corticoids/immunosuppressants
Basophilic-rimmed vacuoles in biopsy

73
Q

Takayasu arteritis biopsy

A

Granulomatous inflam and intimal fibrosis

74
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa (necrotizing vasculitis) histology

A

Fibrinoid necrosis

75
Q

Small vessel vasculitis biopsy

A

Leucocytoclasia ( fragmented neutrophils nuclei)
Fibrinoid necrosis (fibrin deposition)

76
Q

NB hypoglycemia with DMI mother mec

A

Placenta-> Human placental lactogen-> insulin resistance in mom-> hyperglycemia in mom and then fetal -> excess insulin continues even after birth.

77
Q

Effects of insulin excess in NB not only causes hypoglycemia but___ due to___

A

New born RDS
Insulin inhibition of surfactant production

78
Q

Borderline personality disorder features

A

Fear of abandonment
Impulsivity
Self-harm
Splitting (people are good or bad)

79
Q

Infections with Staph A, Aspergillus and Burkholderia cepacia are associated with ____ disease because they are ___

A

Chronic granulomatous
Catalase (+)

80
Q

Sputum culture of M. Tubérculo takes how long?

81
Q

Murphy sign

A

Increase pain and inspiratory arrest

82
Q

Renal papillary necrosis is associated with

A

Sickle cell disease
Acute pyelonephritis
Analgesics (NSAIDs)
DM

83
Q

Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis features

A

Drug related (diuretics, sulfa drugs,NSAIDs, ATB, PPIs, rifampin)
*eosinophils and WBC casts without infection in urine
Fever, rash, hematuria

84
Q

Duchenne dystrophy features

A

X-linked recessive
Frameshift or nonsense mut
Absent dystrophin in cytoplasm-> no actin-plasma mb anchoring-> musc fatigue and later myonecrosis -> high CK and aldolase

85
Q

Pt in early childhood with hip girldle weakness that progressed superiorly, calf pseudohypertrophy, think of

86
Q

B12 vs B9 deficiency

A

B12 deficiency has neuro sts and high methylmalonate

87
Q

Vit to give if there is Methylmalonic acidemia

88
Q

Pt coming back from developing country (Brazil) with severe anemia, think of which organism

A

Ancylostoma or Necator americanus

89
Q

Which opioids can be used to replace opioids that cause addiction and their mec

A

Methadone (long acting agonist)
Buprenorphine (partial agonist)
Naloxone (short acting antagonist)

90
Q

Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GISTs) are usually a result from a mut of

A

KIT** or PDGFRA

91
Q

Which lobe is mostly associated to partial/focal seizures?

92
Q

Temporal vs frontal focal seizures

A

Temporal usually have motor automatisms (lip smacking or fidgeting)

93
Q

Myasthenia Gravis vs Lambert-Eaton (myasthenic sd)

A

MG: post-synaptic prob, antibodies compete with ACh for cholinergic receptors (Blockade of motor nerve conduction)
LE: pre-synaptic prob, antibodies attack Ca+2 channels -> no ACh release
** L before M

94
Q

Lambert Eaton / myasthenic sd presents as

A

Anticholinergic sts (constipation, dry mouth, impotence)
Proximal musc weakness
Paraneoplasic (lung Ca)

95
Q

Myasthenia Gravis presents as

A

Ptosis
Diplopia
Dyspnea
Dysphagia

96
Q

Main cell type response in abscess containing pyogenic bacteria

A

Neutrophils!

97
Q

Main cell type response in granulomas from Tuberculosis and fungal infections

A

Macrophages

98
Q

Clear cell renal carcinoma features

A

Most common primary renal tumor
Golden-yellow tumor
Well circumscribed, can distort kidney contour

99
Q

Entero hemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) features

A

The H stands for Hamburgers (undercooked food) hemorrhage (thrombocitopenia) and Hemolytic uremic sd.
Shiga toxin
Schistocytes
AKI due to platelet-fibrin clots in renal vessels

100
Q

BCL2 suppresses___. Which means its overexpression lead to

A

Apoptosis!
Tumor formation

101
Q

Where exactly is the neurovasc package on the elbow?

A

Supracondylar region of humerus

102
Q

Which organism is known for having Glucans in its cell wall?

A

Histoplasma c.

103
Q

AKI due to hyperacute kidney rejection occurs due to

A

Fibrin thrombosis

104
Q

Laryngeal neoplasm metastasize initially to

A

Cervical lymph nodes
*in general head and neck neoplasias

105
Q

HIV infection steps

A

Binding (gp120 and 41 to CD4 mb)
Fusion
Reverse transcription (RNA to DNA)
Integration (to CD4 genome)
Replication
Assembly
Budding (infection to other cells)
Cleavage (by HIV protrase-> virus matures)

106
Q

HIV resistance is more common in which steps? Inhibition of which step is best for controlling it?

A

Retrotranscription and Cleavage
Fusion (blocking glycoproteins) *Enfuvirtide

107
Q

Prior to separation and cell division in mitosis, cell must

A

Attach to spindles

108
Q

Paclitaxel used for cancer, impairs

A

Spindle formation via microtubule breakdown inhibition

109
Q

Which is the best drug for prostate cancer and why?

A

GnRH agonists (leuprolide)
Constant adm desensitizes GnRH receptor -> less testo-> less DHT -> less proliferation

110
Q

Clomiphene is used for fertility problems because

A

It inh estrogen receptor in pituitary-> increases FSH and LH -> helps with ovulation and implantation