Mixto 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Consider Antisocial personality disorder if

A

> 18 yo
Evidence of conduct disorder before 15yo

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2
Q

Testo, DHT and AMH effect on male genital formation

A

Testo-> Wolffian duct to int male genitalia development
DHT -> ext male genitalia devp
AMH-> suppresses int male geniatalia

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3
Q

Pt with cyanotic after Invasive vasc procedure (angiography), think of

A

Cholesterol (needle-shaped) containing debris that obstruct arteries

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4
Q

HLA class l vs ll (disease association)

A

HLA class ll -> RA, DM I, celiac disease
HLA class l-> Ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, arthritis with inflammatory bowel disease, and psoriatic arthritis

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5
Q

Leptin fx is

A

Decrease food intake

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6
Q

Gabapentin mec

A

Inh presynaptic Ca channels

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7
Q

First mediator to make effect in type l hypersensitivity

A

Histamine

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8
Q

CCK fx

A

Pancreatic secretion
Gallbladder contraction
Oddi sphincter relax
Decrease gastric emptying

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9
Q

Expected number of words by 18mo old

A

3 or more + dada and mama

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10
Q

Expected number of words by age 2

A

2 Word phrases

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11
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich sd features

A

Recurrent infections that worsen with age
Easy bleeding
Eczema

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12
Q

Chédiak-Higashi sd features

A

• Oculocutaneous albinism
• Pyogenic infections
• Progressive neurologic dysfunction

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13
Q

DiGeorge sd features

A

• Congenital heart disease
• Dysmorphic facies
・Hypocalcemia

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14
Q

Power formula

A

1 - Error type ll

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15
Q

Elastin properties are due to

A

Interchain cross-links involving lysine

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16
Q
A
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17
Q

Lamgerhans cells are

A

Dendritic cells, antigen presenting, interact with T cells. Have racquet shape and intracytoplasmic granules

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18
Q

HBeAg, anti-HBc mean

A

1)Increased replication and infectivity
2) no replication, low infectivity

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19
Q
A
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20
Q

HBsAg vs AntiHBsAg

A

1) first marker to appear after HBV inoculation
2) successful HBV vaccination

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21
Q

Isolated hand twitching that progressed to bilat tonic-clonic seizure is characteristic of ___ and it comes from ___

A

Focal-onset seizure
A single hemisphere

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22
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa key Words

A

Fibrinoid necrosis in medium-sized musc arteries (kidneys, skin, brain, gastrointestinal tract)
Presents with tissue ischemia/bleeding

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23
Q

Mucormycosis features

A

Caused by Mucor, Rhizopus and Absidia.
Associated to DKA, immunosuppressed.
Presents with paranasal sts (peri orbital pain, headache, discharge)
Nonseptate hyphae with 90 degrees branch

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24
Q

Chest XR findings in viral pericarditis

A

Enlarged globular cardiac silhouette with clear lung fields

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25
Q

M protein is a virulence factor that prevents ipsonization used by

A

Group A strep

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26
Q

Major virulence factor in gram-Neg rods

A

Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin

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27
Q

The use of fibrinolytic (thrombolytic) agents like alteplase, tenecteplase or streptokinase can cause

A

Reperfusion-related arrhythmia

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28
Q

Abdo Ao aneurysm vs Acute mesenteric ischemia

A

AAA: acute severe abdo pain, syncope, hypotension, shock. Smoking, male, >60yo
AMI: severe abdo pain but minimal tenderness, no shock/hypotension

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29
Q

Fibular neck fracture will likely cause

A

Common fibular nerve damage:
-unable to evert foot, loss of sensation on foot dorsum (superficial branch)
-unable to dorsiflex foot and toes (deep branch)

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30
Q

Opioid antagonists that doesn’t cause withdrawal sts

A

Methylnaltrexone

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31
Q
A
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32
Q
A
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33
Q

What’s Hawthorne effect in statistics?

A

tendency of study subjects to change their behavior as a result of their awareness (observer effect)

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34
Q

What’s Pygmalion effect in statistics?

A

researcher’s beliefs in the efficacy of treatment can potentially affect the outcome

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35
Q

What’s Berkson’s bias in statistics?

A

Selection bias

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36
Q
A
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37
Q

Why is there a relationship between sarcoidosis and kidney stones?

A

Increased alpha-1- hydroxylase activity -> increases 1-25 hydroxy Vit D

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38
Q

Meningococcemia main complications

A

Septic shock
DIC (petechial rash, mucous memb bleeding and venipunture bleeding)
Waterhouse-Friderichsen sd: Adrenal hemorrhage/ adrenal insufficiency

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39
Q

Facial nerve injury central vs peripheral

A

Peripheral affects forehead
Central (UMN) spares forehead musc

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40
Q

Facial nerve innervates

A

Face musc
Ant 2/3s taste of tongue
Parasympathetic innerv to lacrimal, submandibular and sublingual salivary glands
Stapedius musc in ear

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41
Q

Bell palsy is

A

Complete ipsilat facial nerve palsy
Rel to reactivation of HSV

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42
Q

Main features Yolk sac tumor

A

SAC:
Schiller Duval bodies (glomeruli-like figures)
Alpha-feto protein (AFP) increased
Children affected most commonly

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43
Q

From all germ cell tumors, which is not associated to high AFP or hCG

A

Teratoma

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44
Q

Dextromethorphan is a common ingredient of antitussives which blocks N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) causing dissociation, which other substance is similar ?

A

Ketamine

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45
Q

In menopause, most common sts are ___ rather than ___

A

Vasomotor (hot flashes, night sweats) rather than mood or libido changes

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46
Q

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) TTO

A

Hyperactivity predominance-> treat with dopamine
Inattention predominance -> treat with Norepinephrine

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47
Q

Ovarian hormone secreating tumor features

A

Granulosa tumor and Tecoma will secrete female hormones and alter menstrual cycle.
Sertoly and leydig tumor will have high Testosterone but no 17-ketosteroids (not adrenal related)

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48
Q
A
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49
Q

Maximal incidence of recurrent disease acceptable Formulation

A

(100 - Drug rate) x Standard rate

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50
Q
A
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51
Q

Acute vs delayed transfusion Rx

A

Acute: Rx against ABO products
Delayed: Rx against minor RBC antigens

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52
Q

Endurance training affects type ___ fibers which have a lot of ___

A

I
Mitochondria

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53
Q

Resistance training (weight lifting) amplifies type __ fibers which have low___

A

II
Mitochondria (glycolytic)

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54
Q

Obturator nerve damage impaires

A

Thigh adduction

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55
Q

Poxvirus features

A

Shiny round Papules on trunk and face (children) on genitals/groin (adults) and widespread (immunocompromised)
** microscopy: circles filled with pink litte balls (eosinophilic bodies)

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56
Q

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is about___ . Rules are

A

-Genetic variation remains consistent when there are no disturbing factors
-no mut, random mating, no migration, no natural selection, large population needed

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57
Q

Febrile gastroenteritis (watery diarrhea) and gram-positive rod, think of __. Major virulence factor

A

Listeria M
Cytotoxic created pores in phagosomes (reqs CD8 resp)

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58
Q

Pte with 1 or more maniac episodes are diagnosed with

A

Bipolar I disorder

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59
Q

Blood supply to ureters

A

Prox: renal artery
Distal: int iliac and sup vesical arteries

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60
Q

Decrease integrin expression (typical in malignancies ) will affect binding to ___

A

Fibronectin

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61
Q

Pearly mass behind tympanic mb, think of___. This is made of__

A

Cholestoma
Squamous cell debris

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62
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitor (oseltamivir) impair

A

Virion particle release

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63
Q

Pt with HiV and multiple nodules that bleed a lot when squeezed, HHV-8 is neg, think of

A

Bartonella h

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64
Q

Crossover studies

A

Subjects receive 2 or more sequence tto

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65
Q

If after vasopressin is administered, urine osmolality remains the same, think of

A

Primary polydipsia

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66
Q

Coag factor Vlll binds

A

Factor laxa and X to create factor Xa

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67
Q

Papillary thyroid carcinoma biopsy

A

Branching papillae
psammoma bodies (concentric calcifications)
Nuclei with dispersed chromatin
Nuclear grooves and intranuclear inclusions

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68
Q

Subacute granulomatous Thiroiditis (de quervain) features

A

Post infection
High T3 and T4
High TGb
Low iodine uptake
Mixed cell infiltrate + giant cells +disrupted follicles on biopsy

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69
Q

Graves’ disease biopsy

A

Follicular hyperplasia with tall cells projecting into follicular lumen

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70
Q

Hashimoto’s diseases biopsy

A

Lymphocytic infiltrate active with germinal centers

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71
Q

Most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Autoimmune adrenalítis

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72
Q

Primary adrenal insufficiency key feature

A

Hyperpigmentation
(Not seen in 2ary due to tumor)

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73
Q

Glucokinase deficiency are one cause of__, characterized by

A

MODY
Mild hyperglycemia worsened by pregnancy-induced insulin resistance

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74
Q

Leuprolide mec

A

GnRH analogue that first stimulates and then down regulates production of LH

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75
Q

Permanent central Diabetes insipidues occurs as injury to

A

Hypothalamic nuclei
*damage to post pituitary is transient due to regeneration capacity

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76
Q
A
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77
Q
A
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78
Q

Deficiency of which enzyme is associated with abnormal male ext genitalia

A

5a-reductase

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79
Q

Which enzyme def is associated with female virilization

A

Aromatese (forms estrogens from androgens)

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80
Q

Rapid acting insulins are

A

Lispro and aspart
*postpandrial hyperglycemia

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81
Q

Long acting insulins are

A

Degludec
Detemir
Glargine

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82
Q

Weight loss hypoglycemics

A

GLP-1 agonists
SGLT-2 inhibitors

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83
Q

Pt with severe sistemic illness, low T3, normal/low TSH, normal thyroid physical exam, think of

A

Euthyroid sick sd

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84
Q

Boy with normal secundary characteristics but abnormal genitalia

A

5a-reductase def

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85
Q

Female looking male pt with abnormal genitalia (blind vagina)

A

17 a-hydroxylase def

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86
Q

If 2-6 fructose biphosphate is increased, ___ pathway will too because___

A

Glycolisis
It increases PFK-1

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87
Q

Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) fx

A

Iodide oxidation
TGb iodination
MIT-DIT DIT-DIT coupling

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88
Q

Glupizide is a __ which means it acts via __

A

Sulfonylurea
K channel inhibition -> depol-> Ca increases -> insulin secretion

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89
Q

PCSK9 inh like Evolocumab help statins via

A

Decrease of LDL-R degradation-> more LDL-R on cells -> more LDL uptake in liver

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90
Q

Menopause average age is __, confirmed with high levels of __

A

51
FSH

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91
Q

Urine turned black when left exposed to air, think of __ which affects conversion of __ into__

A

Alkaptonuria/homogentisic acid accumulation
Tyrosine into fumarate

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92
Q

Cushing sd + high/normal ACTH. Differential dg and tests

A

Pituitary adenoma: if ACTH is suppressed after high dose dexametasone.
Ectopic tumor: if still remains the same after dexametasone test

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93
Q

Effect of glucocorticoids on Graves ophthalmopathy

A

Anti-inflam

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94
Q

CF is associated to ___ due to pancreatic fibrosis

A

Diabetes

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95
Q

Aluminum hydroxide effects

A

pH increase
Constipation

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96
Q
A
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97
Q
A
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98
Q

Esophagus irrigation

A

Prox: thyroid artery
Mid: thoracic Ao branches
Distal: left gastric artery

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99
Q

Lynch sd features

A

Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer
Due to defective nucleotide mismatch repair system (mut genes MSH2 and MLH1)

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100
Q

Infant with descending weakness, absent gag reflex, history of honey consumption, think of __. *Mec__

A

Infant botulism by Clostridium b
*toxin blocks presynaptic ACh release.

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101
Q

Extensive noncaseating hepatic granulomas, think of

A

Hepatic sarcoidosis

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102
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis features

A

Adherent yellow pseudomemb
By C. difficile

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103
Q
A
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104
Q

Gilbert Sd features

A

Decrease UDP UGT activity but not absent
Mild jaundice
Provoked by stress
No tto needed

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105
Q
A
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106
Q

Increased and incomplete relaxation of LES, think of

A

LES

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107
Q

Hyperammonia effect on encephalopathy and key elevated molecule

A

Excess NH3 -> excess glutamine production to bind -> less glutamate synthesis-> disruption of excitatory conduction

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108
Q

Hepatic abscess in the USA are rare but when seen, they’re usually caused by

A

Bacterial infections

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109
Q

Acute viral hepatitis B histopathologic findings

A

Panlobular lymphocytic inflam
Cytotoxic T cells
Eosinophilic round bodies

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110
Q

Crohn disease is associated to gallstones because of

A

inflamof the terminal ileum causes decreased bile acid reabsorption -> bile acid wasting in feces.

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111
Q

Superficial inguinal nodes drain

A

Most cutaneous lymph from umbilicus down including anal orifice

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112
Q

Graft versus host disease is similar to primary biliary cholangitis because

A

It’s immune mediated
Destructs intrahepatic drugs after bone marrow transplant

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113
Q

Most specific ultrasound findings in cholecystitis__. If not clear, try___

A

-gallbladder wall thickening, pericholecystic fluid, and a positive sonographic Murphy sign.
-Failed gallbladder visualization on
radionuclide biliary scan

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114
Q

Vit K def impaires __

A

Gamma carboxylation of coag factors

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115
Q

Pancreatic ductal adenocacinoma is caused by a mut of

A

KRAS gene

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116
Q

Well demarcated liver mass, nodular with a central, gray-white, depressed stellate scar from which fibrous septa radiate to the periphery, think of

A

Focal modular hyperplasia (benign)

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117
Q
A
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118
Q

What happens when there’s testicular trauma?

A

Damage to blood-testis barrier (sertoli cells + tight junctions) -> antisperm antibodies

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119
Q

Homeobox gene (body pattering and positioning reg) mechanism

A

Coded transcription factors that bind regulatory regions on DNA

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120
Q

deficiency of IL-12 receptors on naive T cells prevents

A

differentiation into Th1 cells -> no IFN-gamma -> no macrophage and CD8 activation

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121
Q

IL-4 deficiency prevents

A

Formation of Th2 cells is-4 -> no B cell differentiation -> no production of immunoglobulins.

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122
Q

Porphyria is characterized for a deficiency of___

A

Porphobilinogen deminase

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123
Q

Porphyria is treated with heme infusion which downreg

A

Aminolevulinate synthase

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124
Q

When studying the difference of two groups, istatistically significant means that

A

The confidence interval doesn’t pass 0 (null value)

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125
Q

Statins mec

A

Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase -> less cholesterol synthesis-> more LDL receptors-> more uptake of circulating LDL

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126
Q

Tetanus mec

A

Puncture wound-> presynaptic terminal lower motor neurons -> retrograde axonal transport-> ant horn -> toxin blocks inhibitory neurons -> spasmodic contractions

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127
Q

Only tissue where there increase in vasc resistance when O2 goes down ___. This prevents ___

A

Lungs (hypoxic vasoconstriction)
Perfusion wasting

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128
Q
A
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129
Q

Androgen insensitivity sd features

A

Androgen receptor dysfunction (high LH and testosterone, normal FSH)
Complete: female body and genitalia
Partial: undervirilization, gynecomastia, oligospermia

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130
Q

Pool/beach fungus

A

Malassezia versicolor (pityriasis)

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131
Q

Which adverse effect persist even after weeks of opioid tto ?

A

Constipation
Miosis

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132
Q

Amyloid seen under polarized light looks __ but in Alzheimer’s it looks

A

Apple-green
Yellow-green

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133
Q

Aggregates of tau protein in brain, think of

A

Pick bodies from frontotemporal dementia (Pick disease)

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134
Q

Huntington disease affects

A

Caudate nucleus

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135
Q

Intracel eosinophilic inclusions composed of alpha-synuclein (lewy bodies), think of

A

Párkinson

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136
Q
A
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137
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum features

A

Failure to repair DNA damage by UV-rays (thymine dimers) via specific nuclease

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138
Q

Suspect Pancoast tumor when there is

A

Unilat upper limb pain (compression braquial plexus)
Areflexic weakness
Ipsilat ptosis/miosis (autonomic injury)

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139
Q

2 key factors for osteoclast differentiation un Paget’s disease

A

Macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF) and receptor for activated nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANK-L),

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140
Q

What can help with empyema after chest tube drainage

A

Fibrinolytic agent + deoxyribonuclease
Surgical drainage

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141
Q
A
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142
Q

Which Folate derívate is crucial for nucleic acid synthesis and to prevent apoptosis

A

Thymidine

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143
Q

Sporotricosis (rose disease) histopathologic finfings

A

Mixed granulomatous and neutrophilic inflammatory reaction

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144
Q

Sts in Myasthenia Gravis can be explained by

A

Reduced amplitude of motor end plate potential (post synaptic musc cell)

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145
Q

Drugs used in muscarinic toxicity

A

Glycopyrrolate
Hyoscyamine
Propanthrline

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146
Q

Mononucleosis (EBV) features

A

Fever + fatigue + lymphocytosis + splenomegaly
Transmitted via saliva (kiss disease)

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147
Q

Attention deficit medication

A

Stimulants: methylphenidate, amphetamines
Non-stimulants: atomoxetine**

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148
Q
A
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149
Q

Genetic features of down sd

A

Trisomy- meiotic non disjunction
Unbalanced translocations
Mosaicism (some cells have the trisomy, some others do not)

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150
Q

Pyridoxine (B6) is needed in

A

Transaminayion and decarboxylation of aa
Gluconeogenesis
NTs, heme and histamine synthesis

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151
Q

Biotin (B7) is a cofactor of

A

Carboxylase enzymes
*pyruvate (gluconeo)
*acetyl-CoA (fatty acid synthesis)
*propionyl-Coa (fatty acid oxidation)

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152
Q
A
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153
Q

Contact dermatitis features

A

Hair dye or other alkergenics
Type lV hypersensitivity
Phase 1/sensitization: langerhan cells take haptens and present them to naive T cells
Phase 2/ elicitation: CD8+ activate and release interferon gamma when happen is reexposed

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154
Q

2nd generation antipsychotics have less___ than high potency 1st generation (haloperidol)

A

Extrapyramidal sts

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155
Q

Pt with generalized rash + lymphadenopathy + corkscrew-shaped organism on dark microscopy, think of

A

Secondary syphilis

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156
Q

Penicillin in syphyliis mec

A

disrupts cell wall synthesis by inhibiting transpeptidase, necessary for cell wall cross-linking.

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157
Q

Salicylate toxicity is treated with HCO3 because

A

It converses it to lipophobic salicylate ion (Sal-) and traps it in the bloodstream
It increases its expretion in urine

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158
Q

Dopamine dose dep effect

A

Low dose: increases cardiac output and renal blood flow (beta 1adrenergic receptor stimulation)
High dose: opposite (alpha1 stimulation)

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159
Q

Opioid toxicity will occur if there is a problem with ___ elimination bc metabolites start to accumulate

A

Renal
(Metabolized in liver but excreted renally)

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160
Q

Niacin (B3) is req in reactions that use

A

NAD and NADP

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161
Q

Marker of monocyte-macrophages in TB granulomas

A

CD14

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162
Q

Branching, filamentous gram positive with similar TB presentation, think of

A

Nocardia

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163
Q

Nocardia key features

A

Branching filaments + my colic acid wall (partially acid-fast staining)

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164
Q

Embryologic development probs in Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Abnormal neural crest cell migration -> ant and cephalad deviation of the infundibular septum = malaligned ventral septal defect and overriding aorta.

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165
Q

Transpeptidases are

A

A type of PBP targeted by penicillins and cephalosporins

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166
Q

ATB that binds to cell wall glycoproteins

A

Vancomycin

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167
Q

ATB that interfere with DNA replication binding to ADN gyrase

A

Fluoroquinolones

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168
Q

Optimal site for femoral nerve block in case of quadricep injury

A

Right bellow inguinal ligament

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169
Q

Pudendal nerve block site for vaginal delivery

A

Ischial spine tip

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170
Q

Lung biopsy with large, rounded, well-circumscribed “cannonball” cell, probable metastasis from ___

A

Kidney
* Renal clear cell carcinoma

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171
Q

Long term OCPD complication

A

Secundary polycythemia (increasing EPO)

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172
Q

E.coli and Shigella have in common ___, capable of ___

A

Shiga Toxin
Ribosomal 60S subunit inactivation-> Protein synthesis inhibition

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173
Q

V. Cholerae infection mec

A

increases intracellular cAMP in intestinal mucosal cells -> decreased absorption and increased secretion of Na+, Cl- and water.

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174
Q

Pseudomonas infection mec

A

inhibition of elongation factor 2 -> no protein synthesis

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175
Q

Right ovarian vein drains into__
Left drains into__
Thrombosis is most common in__

A

IVC
Left renal vein
Right ovarian vein

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176
Q

Low cortisol, low ALD, high 17-hydroxyprogesterone, think of

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (low 21-hydroxylase)

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177
Q

Recurrent Respiratory infections + congenital absence of vas deference, think of

A

Cystic fibrosis

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178
Q

Complicated delivery using vacuum assistance can cause__ due to damage to ___

A

Subgaleal hemorrhage
Emissary veins (hemorrhage between periosteum and galea aponeurosis)

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179
Q

Infantile hemangioma features

A

Common
Bright red plaque
Days or weeks after birth
Benign proliferation of endothelial cells
Increases its size and then regresses

180
Q

Zoloidem and eszopiclone are

A

short-acting nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic agent.
GABA A agonists
Used for sleeping problems

183
Q

hemorrhage and necrosis in the mammillary bodies and periaqueductal gray matter, think of

A

Wernicke encephalopathy.

184
Q

Thiamine (B1) is a cofactor of

A

Pyruvate DHG
Alpha-ketoglutarate DHG
Branched alpha ketoacid DHG (needed for aa)
Transketolase

186
Q

Old age changes in respiratory system

A

Decreased chest wall compliance/mobility
Decreased alveolar elastic recoil
Increased alveolar-arterial O2 gradient
Increased dead space

187
Q

Preeclampsia widespread endothelial dysfunction, vasospasm, microthrombi deposition can produce

A

Seizures
Renal insufficiency
DIC

188
Q

FOXP3 function

A

Converts CD4 into regulatory T cells -> failure keeps immune activation going

190
Q

Nitrates must be given in intervals throughout the day because of

A

Tolerance development

191
Q

Opioid induced constipation can be treated with

A

Methylnaltrexone (does no cause withdrawal sts)

192
Q

Bisacodyl and senna help with constipation vía

A

Enteric nerve stimulation-> increasing peristalsis

193
Q

Why does preeclampsia cause vascular dysfunction?

A

early cytotrophoblast invasion is abnormal-> maternal spiral arteries underdeveloped-> not good perfusion to placenta -> low VEGF -> endothelial dysfunction

194
Q

Tetanus vaccine mec

A

Humoral antibody response neutralizes bacterial products

195
Q

Failed obliteration of allantois leads to

A

Patent urachus and urine leakage from umbilicus

196
Q

N. meningitidis virulence factor responsable for severity (sepsis)

A

Lipo-oligosaccharide

197
Q

Coxiella features

A

Q fever (lobar consolidation pneumonia is primary sign)
Animal waste inhalation
Severe debilitating retroorbital headaches

199
Q

Most common cause of retina artery occlusion

A

Atherosclerosis in the internal carotid

200
Q

Pseudogout key features

A

High WBC count with neutro predominance
Rhomboid shaped calcium pyrophosphate crystals
Blue when parallel, yellow when perpendicular

201
Q

DNA mismatch repair defect is associated with

A

hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC, or Lynch syndrome).

202
Q

Nucleotide excision repair failure is associated with

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum

203
Q

Inherited (not acquired) p53 mutations are associated with

A

Li-fraumeni sd

204
Q

Superficial vs deep fibular nerve

A

Superficial everts the foot
Deep dorsiglexes foot and toes

205
Q

Primary ciliary dyskinesia/Kartagener sd associated diseases

A

Respiratory infections, bronchiectasis (dilated bronchioles)
Infertility
Situs inversus (organs in opposite sites)

206
Q

Listeria features

A

Flagellar tumbling motility
Reproduces in the cold
Transmuted by consumption of contaminated food

207
Q

Medication induced esophagitis

A

Tetracyclines
Aspirin
NSAIDs
Biphosphonates

208
Q

Protein A is a wall component of

209
Q

M Protein is a wall component of

A

Strepto pyogenes

210
Q

Toxin A/lecithinase is a virulence factor of

A

Clostridium perfringens

211
Q

Trehalose dimycolate is a major virulence factor of

A

M. tuberculosis

212
Q

Locked-in sd is associated with

A

Osmotic desmyelination
Infarction

213
Q

Class l antiarrythmic effect on Na and K channels

A

IA: blocks Na, blocks K (most extended)
IB: weak Na block, shortens repol (very short Na plateau, Thinnest curve)
IC: Strong block Na, very little effect on K.

214
Q

Quinidine, procainamide and disppyramide are

A

Class IA antiarrythmics

215
Q

Lidocaine and mexiletine are tú

A

Class lB antiarrythmics

216
Q

Flecainide and propafenone are

A

Class lC antiarrythmics

217
Q

Organophosphate toxicity or cholinesterase inhibitors toxicity can be treated with atropine. However, it has no effect on ___ meaning ___ can persist

A

Nicotinic receptors
Muscle paralysis, weakness and fasciculations

218
Q

Pt with DM and overflow urinary incontinence. Cause?

A

loss of autonomic afferent innervation -> inability to sense a full bladder.
Loss of efferent fibers to the bladder -> incomplete emptying. (Increase postvoid residual volume test)

219
Q

TTN gene mutation will likely cause impairs titin protein in charge of binding myosin to z discs. This will likely cause

A

Familial dilated cardiomyopathy

220
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy features

A

Heart failure sts
Due to direct insult (infection, toxicity or disease) to myocardium -> decreases ventricular contractility

221
Q

SatO2 in right heart vs left heart

A

Right: 70% (SVC, RA, RV, Pulm a)
Left: 96% (LA,LV, Ao)

222
Q

Higher SatO2 on right heart, think of__ likely due to ___ which produces___ , best heard in__

A

Left to right shunt
Ventricular septal defec
Holosystolic murmur
Lower left sternal border

223
Q

Atrial septal defect

A

High SatO2 in SVC, RA and RV have the same Sat
Fixed splitting of S2

224
Q

1 or 2 month old baby with dark urine, acholic stools, high direct bilirubin and GGT, hepatomegaly, think of

A

Biliary atresia/obstruction of extrahepatic bile ducts

225
Q

Hirschprung disease features

A

NB with bilious emesis after feeding (failure to pass meconium)
Abdo distension with active bowel sound
**Forceful gas/stool expulsion, megacolon (main difference with other similar diseases)
Neural crest cell migration failure -> aganglionic rectosigmoid

226
Q

Young woman with eye pain worsened by eye movement, decreased vision and optic disc swelling, think of ___. Suspect ___ as main origin of the disease.

A

Optic neuritis
Multiple sclerosis

227
Q

Multiple sclerosis diagnosis

A

• Episodic/progressive symptoms disseminated over time & space
• Hyperintense lesions/ demyelinating periventricular plaques
• Oligoclonal IgG bands on cerebrospinal fluid analysis

228
Q

Glucosuria begins with a serum glucose of ___

229
Q

Diastolic blood pressure is directly related to ___. During exercise this goes down and so does DBP

A

Systemic vascular resistance

230
Q

Piriform recess protects the internal laringeal nerve. Injury to this area will likely affect

A

Afferent limb of cough reflex

231
Q

Low fecal elastase, Sudan staining (+), OH abuse, foul smelling stools, diarrhea, epigastric pain after eating, think of

A

Pancreatic insufficiency

232
Q

Pterygoid musc innervation

A

Mandibular nerve (CN V3)

233
Q

West Nile virus features

A

Replicates in birds, transmitted by mosquitoes
Flu-like sts, meningitis/encephalitis, asymmetric weakness

234
Q

Cleft lip and palate is associated to recurrent otitis media due to

A

Levator or tensor of veli palatini dysfunction-> Eustachian tube dysfunction

235
Q

Attention deficit desorder features

A

Innattention and or hyperactivity in 2 or more settings (school and home)
Sts before age 12

236
Q

Drug induced parkisonism (antipsychotics or antiemetics) is best treated with

A

Central antiACh like benztropine or trihexyphenidyl

237
Q

HSV-1 and 2 and VZV are susceptible to acyclovir because

A

They have viral phosphorylating enzyme which activates the drug

238
Q

Fructokinase deficiency dg test

A

Glucose oxidase (-)
Copper reduction (+)

239
Q

Fanconi sd affects

A

Proximal tubule

240
Q

HBV like HIV has

A

Reverse transcriptase activity

241
Q

Dengue shock sd is due to

A

Infection either different viral serotype

242
Q

Anti-Rh (D) immunoglobulin is a product consists of

243
Q

Pts with cryptorchidism have higher risk for which type of malignancy ?

A

Testicular seminoma

244
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae features

A

Gram positive
Bacillus
Diphtheria sd
Becomes toxigenic thanks to phage conversion (lysogenic bacteriophage)
AB toxins halt protein synthesis

245
Q

Majority of anal fissure occur in

A

Posterior midline distal to dentate line

246
Q

Pt recovering from sepsis can’t be disconnected from ventilator due to chest wall weakness, think of

A

Critical illness neuromuscular weakness due to peripheral axon degeneration and loss of myosin (atrophy)

247
Q

Genitals effect due to complete androgen insensitivity sd

A

Internal genitals absent
Female external genitals

248
Q

ANOVA/ analysis of variance is used in studies that

A

Compare 3 o more groups

249
Q

Beta-2 agonists help with broncocontriction vía

A

Increasing cAMP-> smooth muscle relaxation

250
Q

VPH virulence factor

A

Production of E6 (blocks p53) and E7 (blocks Rb) -> altogether inhibit cell cycle regulation

251
Q

Plasmodium ovale and vivax req use of primaquine to prevent

A

Disease relapse during dormant phase within hepatocytes

252
Q

Pharmacokinetic vs phamacodynamic tolerance

A

Kinetic: has to do with ADME: Absorption, distribution (plasma or fat) metabolism (P450c) or excretion problems
Dynamics: has to do with drug target problem (receptor or intracell signaling)

253
Q

Kid with cognitive/behavioral problems + musc weakness + family member with musc weakness, think of

A

Myotonic dystrophy (trinucleotide repeat expansion)

254
Q

What’s main risk factor for pelvic organ prolapse

A

Vaginal delivery-> injury to pundendal nerve -> no innervation to pelvic floor muscle

255
Q

Pulm embolism causes what type of hypoxemia?

A

Ventilation/perfusion mismatch
*typically has respiratory alkalosis

256
Q

Gastrojejunostomy will req __ supplementation

257
Q

Tto of agitation and psychosis associated with delirium

A

Haloperidol

258
Q

Neoplasm under nail, suspect ___ or ___

A

Melanoma (pigmentation rel)
Glomus tumor (thermoregulation rel)

259
Q

Which parasites have Loos cycle

A

Strongyloides
Toxocara canis and gatis
Ascaris L
Ancylostoma
Trichuris trichuria

260
Q

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is caused by

A

Debris in semicircular canals

261
Q

Elevated endolymphatic pressure, think of

A

Ménière disease

262
Q

Zero vs first order kinetics

A

Zero: constant amount of drug is metabolized and excreted (line)
First: Fixed proportion of drug is metabolized (curve)

263
Q

Pt with clicking noise when chewing +headache +neck stiffness, think of ___ caused by__

A

Temporomanfibular joint sd by maser yet and pterygoid spasms

264
Q

What’s 2nd leading cause of lung cancer in the US?

A

Radon found in contaminated groundwater affecting basements of houses

265
Q

Montelukast (-lukasts) mec of action

A

Antagonist of leukotriene receptors

266
Q

Pt with ptosis, dysphagia, dry mouth after tasting canned food, think of __ which impaires ___

A

Botulism
ACh release

268
Q

H. influenzae features

A

Oxidase positive
Gram-negative coccobacillus
Some strains don’t have capsule -> cause otitis, sinusitis, bronchitis
Type b- has capsule -> causes epliglotitis

270
Q

Only thiamine-dependent dehydrogenase in the TCA

A

Alpha-ketoglutarate

271
Q

Elderly female, groin pain, one femur shorter than the other, leg laterally rotated, think of

A

Femoral neck fracture

272
Q

Sciatic nerve function and mucs innervated

A

Extends the hip and Flexes the knee
Semimembranosus, semitendinosus and biceps femoralis (long and short head)

273
Q

Elderly pt with shortened leg and medially rotated, think of

A

Posterior hip dislocation

274
Q

Nerves responsable for wrist drop and foot drop respectively

A

Radial and common peroneal/fibular

275
Q

What structures are affected in Trendelenburg gait ?

A

Superior gluteal nerve -> musc gluteus medius and minimus

276
Q

Which nerve is affected in trendelenburg gait, the one on the dropping hip or the one on the rising hip ?

A

Rising hip

277
Q

Physiologic response to altitude

A

Increased pulm arterial resistance
Increased cardiac output
Decreased plasma volume
Increased renal HCO3 synthesis
Resp alkalosis-> Hb curve to the left (increased O2 uptake)

278
Q

Minutes following a burn, ___ is released from ___

A

Histamine
Mast cells

279
Q

CD55 and CD59 deficiency is associated with

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

280
Q

E Coli virulence factors

A

Lipopolysaccharide -> sepsis
K1 capsule-> neonatal meningitis
Shiga toxin-> enterohemorrhagic
Heat-stable or labile toxins -> enteroroxigenic (cholera like)
P-fimbrias -> UTI

281
Q

Which nerve is at risk of being injured during appendicectomy

A

Ant branch of illiohypogastric nerve

282
Q

Alzheimers occurs due to decrease___ due to deficiency of___

A

ACh
Choline acetyltransferase

283
Q

First line Tto for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder ___. Most common adverse effects are

A

Methylphenidate and amphetamines (psycostimulants)
Less appetite, weight loss and insomnia

284
Q

Diuretic that increases survival in HF

A

Spironolactone
*less effect from ALD -> improves ventricular remodeling

285
Q

Which structure is responsible for sudden muscle relaxation ?

A

Golgi tendon organ

287
Q

Excess varus laxity, think of ___ tear. This is in charge of preventing ___

A

LCL
Hyper adduction

288
Q

__ prevents hyper abduction of leg at knee. If there is excess valgus laxity, suspect

A

MCL
MCL tear

289
Q

Meniscus tear key words

A

Knee pain with locking specially when squatting or twisting.
Mcmurry test

290
Q

Most common injured ligament in an ankle sprain

A

Ant inf talofibular ligament (inward sprain)

291
Q

Which musc abducts the arm?

A

Supraspinatus

292
Q

Which muscs adduct the arm ?

A

Teres minor
Subscapularis

293
Q

Which musc externally rotate the arm

A

Infraspinatus (mainly in adduction)
Teres minor (mainly in abduction)
*one compensate the other if one fails

294
Q

The external auditory canal is innervated by ___ with the exception of the posterior part innervated by__

A

Auriculotemporal branch of the Trigeminal
Vagus nerve (only part of the ear that causes vasovagal response)

296
Q

What part of the ear does the facial nerve innervate?

297
Q

Which musc are responsible for closing and opening the jaw?

A

Lat pterygoid muscs

298
Q

Pathway for a cardiac catheterization

A

Femoral a -> external illiac-> common illiac -> Ao

299
Q

Puncture above inguinal ligament increases the risk of hemorrhage in___

A

Retroperitoneal space

300
Q

Decreased blood flow in spermatic cord is likely due to a problem with the Gonadal arteries, which arises from___.

302
Q

Lateral leads (l and aVL) ST elevations, think of ___ occlusion which originates from__

A

Left circumflex artery
Left main coronary artery

303
Q

Ant chest lead (V1-V4) correspond to __ artery which supplies to

A

Left ant descending
Ant ventricle and interventricular septum

304
Q

Inferior chest leads (ll, lll, aVF) correspond to __ artery which supplies___

A

Right coronary artery
Right ventricle and inf left ventricle

305
Q

Severe constipation + occasional fecal incontinence and history of vehicle collision, think of

A

Conus medularis (sacral spinal cord injury)

306
Q

Pt with involuntary,large amplitude movement of arm and history of HTN, DM. Think of __ due to ___ in ___

A

Hemiballism
Lacunar stroke
Subthalamic nucleus (inh nucleus Pallidus Inter is -> no inhibition of Thalamus-> excess mov)

307
Q

In the absence of findings upper UTI signs but presence of gross hematuria, think of

A

Renal papillary necrosis

308
Q

Obstruction of which vein will cause face, neck and arm swelling? brachiocephalic vein or subclavian or axillary vein will cause

A

Brachiocephalic. The other two do not affect the face

309
Q

Glossopharyngeal

A

Elevate larynx during swallowing (stylopharyngeus musc)
Taste and sensory fx on post 1/3 tongue
Tonsils sensory fx
Afferent portion gag reflex
Parotid gland secretion

310
Q

incision at the 5th intercostal space in the midaxillary line could injure __ musc

A

Serratus ant

311
Q

Most common compression of median nerve Is between ___. The other possible compression is between __\

A

Two heads of pronator teres muscle (due to excess pronation. Ex: playing tenis)
Flexor digitorum superf and profundus

312
Q

Wound in 4th intercostal space, next to sternal border will hurt __

A

Right ventricle
*left ventricle is midclavicular

313
Q

Pt with head trauma + talk and die phenomena, think of ___ due to___ located in __

A

Epidural hematoma
Middle meningeal artery (comes from maxillary that comes from ext carotid)
Foramen spinosum

314
Q

Pt with shear injury (shaken baby sd) + crescent shaped mass on MRI, think of ___ due to__

A

Subdural hematomas
Tearing of bridging veins

315
Q

Pt with Marfan sd or ADPKD , altered mental status, parenchymal bleed, MRI shows blood following sulci and gyri, think of___ due to ___

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Rupture of berry aneurysm (in any communicating/ Willis polygon)

316
Q

Contact lenses nerve injury__ and common infection organism __

A

Ophthalmic branch of the Trigeminal (V2)
Pseudomonas

317
Q

Pharyngeal arch associated to CN Vll

A

2nd pharyngeal arch

318
Q

Pharyngeal arch associated to CN V

A

1st pharyngeal arch

319
Q

Bell palsy associated organisms?

A

Hiking history: Borrelia B/ Lyme disease (intracel spirochete)
No hiking history: HSV

320
Q

Pharyngeal arch associated to CN lX

A

3rd pharyngeal arch

322
Q

Jugular foramen craneal nerves

323
Q

40-50 year old pt with aggressive behavior + writhing body movements + flailing arms + intermitent smile + similar family history, think of

A

Huntington’s
*trinucleotide repeat is CAG, anticipates with every new generation (anticipation)

324
Q

15 yo male with broad-based gait, diabetes, scoliosis, loss of sensation in his feet and HCM, think of

A

Friedrich’a ataxia
*trinucleotide repeat is GAA

325
Q

30 year old male is off-balance + hair loss + failure to relax after shaking Dr. hand, think of

A

Myotonic Dystrophy
*trinucleotide repeat is CTG

326
Q

A patient with intellectual disability. Big ears + gonadal enlargement. Think of

A

Fragile X
*trinucleotide repeat is a CGG

327
Q

Dopamine pathways disease association

A

Mesolimbic-> Reg behavior-> schizophrenia, psychosis
Nigrostriatal-> coordinated movement-> Parkinson, Wilson’s, Lewy body dementia
Tuberoinfundibular -> D2 inhibition of prolactin -> antipsychotics (risperidom), metoclopramide

328
Q

Young female with focal neurological deficit, think of __ and if on top of that she has eye problems, consider

A

Multiple sclerosis
Optic neuritis (if Afferent pupillary light reflex defect) or intranuclear ophthalmoplegia (if inability to look medially upon contralat gaze)

329
Q

Port-wine stain on face in trigéminas distribution + tram-track calcifications

A

Sturge Weber

330
Q

Ataxia telangectasia mec

A

Defective dsDNA break repair

331
Q

Brain tumors in children vs adults

A

Adults: supratentorial.
1.metastasis, 2. gioblastoma, 3. meningioma, 4. schwanomma.
Children: infratentorial
1. Astrocytoma, 2. medulloblastoma, 3. ependymoma

331
Q

Brain mass crossing mid-line + pseudo-palisading tumor. Think of

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

332
Q

Loss of pain and temperature Ipsilat in face and contralat in body, think of __ or __ stroke.

A

PICA (has dysphagia, hoarseness or decreases gag, affects lat medulla) o
AICA (has facial droop, affects lat pons)

333
Q

Pernatal HBV infection high risk marker

A

HBeAg (high viral replication and infectivity)

334
Q

Middle age man with steatorrhea, abdo pain + arthralgias + dementia + macrophages filled with inclusions positive for acid-schiff stain, think of

A

Whipple disease by Tropheryma whipplei

335
Q

Cyanide disrupts which part of the electron transporter chain?

A

Complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase)

336
Q

Blood type A or B develope ___ antibodies, AB develops ___ and O develops ___

A

A : antiB (IgM)
B: antiA (igM)
AB: none
O: antiA and antiB (IgM and IgG)

337
Q

Pt with neurological st not explained pathophysiologically or without anatomical correlation, think of

A

Conversion disorder/ functional neurological st disorder

338
Q

Baby boy with thickened bladder wall, vesicoureteral reflux and hydronephrosis, this is likely do to___

A

persistent urogenital mb (common cause is post urethral valve)

339
Q

Primary Tto for acute opioid intoxication is ___ however it reqs redosing because___

A

Naloxone
It’s a short acting opioid antagonist and most opioid take long to be cleared out

340
Q

Rate-limiting enzyme in de novo fatty acid synthesis

A

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

341
Q

Late complication of radiation

342
Q

TRH effect on prolactin

A

Increase its secretion

343
Q

Chronic Oh use leads to ___ and ___ receptors

A

Downregulation of GABA A
Upregulation of NMDA

344
Q

Pt with hypoxemia, increased A-a gradient, no response to 100% O2, think of ___. Best Tto is

A

Intrapulm shunt
Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP)

345
Q

Child with arm trauma after being pulled by the arm. Think of ___ ligament tear. Make ___ or ___ maneuver to correct

A

Annular
Hyperpronation or
flexion and supination

346
Q

Loperamide mec of action

A

Binds to mu receptors and inhibits ACh release from myenteric plexus -> slows peristalsis

347
Q

Glucocorticoids inhibits

A

Nuclear factor kappa B (NF-kB)

348
Q

-xaban anticoagulants affect the conversion of ___ to ___ by blocking ___

A

Prothrombin to thrombin
Xa

349
Q

Mutation order in colorectal adenoma to carcinoma formation

A

1.APC inactivation
2. Methylation abnormalities
3.COX2 overexpression
4.KRAS activation
5.DCC inactivation
6.p53 inactivation

350
Q

HIV pt with ascites and large mass in small intestine, think of which organism?

A

EBV (Burkitt lymphoma affects gastrointestinal track)

351
Q

Which chemotherapy agent is associated with causing cancer?

A

Cyclophosphamide (bladder ca)

352
Q

In metabolic alkalosis HCO3 is __ because ___

A

High because Cl depletion impairs HCO3 excretion

353
Q

Which antihistaminics have antiACh side effects

A

1st generation

354
Q

Which abdominal pathology is associated with acute respiratory syndrome (ARDS)

A

Pancreatitis (enzymes released-> neutros infiltration->edema, inflam and fibrin deposits in alveolar mb)

355
Q

Pt on antipsychotics (haloperidol,sertralin) develops fever, confusion and diffuse rigidity without clonus. Think of

A

Neuroleptic malignant sd

356
Q

Baby boby with hyperuricemia + self mutilating behavior. Think of__ . Hyoeruricemia is due to ___. This is compensated by __ enzyme

A

Lesch Nyhan sd
Mutation of Hypoxanthine-guanine PRT
Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate amidotransferase

357
Q

Complications of Primary cytomegalovirus in babies

A

chorioretinitis , sensorineural deafness, seizures, jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and microcephaly.

358
Q

Fragile X sd occurs due to expansion of a repetitive sequence in __ gene

360
Q

Treat severe or refractory Neuroleptic malignant (antipsychotics OD) sd with __. Mec is ___

A

Dantrolene
Inhibits Ca+2 release from sarcoplasmic reticulum via antagonism of ryanodine

361
Q

Avoiding using trailing zeros (decimals) and abbreviations helps reducing

A

Transcription errors

363
Q

Pts with DM and painful neuropathy can be treated with

A

Gabapentinoid (gabapentina, pregabalina)
SNRI (duloxetina, venlafaxina)
Antidepresivos (tricyclics)

364
Q

Pharyngeal pouches structures associated

A

1st: ear and mastoid air cells
2nd: tonsil
3rd: inf parathyroid and thymus
4th: sup parathyroid and thyroid

365
Q

Retinopathy of prematurity (abnormal retinal vascularization) can be exacerbated if

A

NB is exposed to O2 supplementation

366
Q

ACh colinesterase (donepezil or rivastagmine) are associated with __ because they enhance ___

A

Vasovagal syncope, bradycardia and AV block
Parasympathetic tone

367
Q

Bromocriotine and pramipexole are both___. Levodopa on the other hand ___

A

Dopamine agonists (directly stimulate dopamine receptors).
Replaces dopamine depletion

369
Q

UMN lesion sts

A

Increased deep tendon reflexes (3+)
Increased tone
Babinski (+)
Spastic paresis
Clasp knife spasticity
**everything is UP in upper motor neuron problems

370
Q

LMN lesion sts

A

Fasciculations
Atrophy
Flaccid paralysis
**everything is LOW in lower motor neuron problems

371
Q

Opsonings responsable for e inflam and edema

A

C5a and C3a

372
Q

Pt with soft mobile nontender subcutaneous mass/masses, stable or slow growth, think of ___ made of

A

Lipoma
Mature adipocytes arranged in lobules and separated by fibrous septa

373
Q

Fetal Hb is made of 2 alpha chains and two __ chains

374
Q

Which hormones are mediated by JAK/STAT pathway

A

EPO, prolactin, GH, theombopoietin

375
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is product of a mut that affects __ and ___

A

Beta-myosin heavy chain
Myosin-binding prot C

376
Q

H. pylori virulence factor

A

Urease splits gastric urea into ammonia (NH3) and CO2 -> pH increase -> survives

377
Q

Tumors marking positive for cytokeratin, desmin and vimentin have origins from

A

Epithelial cells
Muscle cells
Mesenchymal

378
Q

S100 (+) think of

A

Melanocytic neoplasms

379
Q

Medication that promotes hyperthermia

A

Anticholinergics (amitriptyline)
Sympathomimetics (cocaine, amphetamines)
D2 antag (haloperidol, chlorpromazine)
Diuretics

380
Q

Northerm blot vs western vs southern

A

N: detects mRNA
W: detects proteins
Southern: detects DNA

381
Q

Female pt with 20-40 years old with severe RV hypertrophy, progressive dysnea and sudden death, think of

A

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

382
Q

NB with deep sacral pit and hair tuft over midline lumbosacral region, think of ___ which is caused by__

A

Spina bífida occulta
Failure of vertebral arch fusion

383
Q

Thick-walled spherules packed with endospores (balls filled with little balls) + pt has hilar adenopathy and lung infiltrate, think of

A

Coccidioides

384
Q

Rotavirus features

A

Age<5 yo
Abrupt onset vomiting
Watery diarrhea
Blunting of the villi in the duodenum and prox jejunum

385
Q

Fluoroquinolones mec of action

A

Inhibit bacterial DNA topoisomerase and gyrase

386
Q

Doxycycline mec of action

A

Disrupts 30S ribosomal subunit

387
Q

Azothromycin and chloramphenicol mec of action

A

Inhibit 50S ribosomal subunit

388
Q

Small cell cancer (from lung, breast, ovary,utero) is associated with __ , this is due to __

A

paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration (ataxia, dysarthria, visual problems)
Immune response

389
Q

All patients with major depressive episode should be screened for ___ before tto

A

History of mania

390
Q

ATBs that target cell wall of bacteria are

A

Penicillins, vancomycin, cephalosporins, carbapenems

391
Q

Penicillins, vancomycin, cephalosporins, carbapenems are not useful on Mycoplasma because ___. Must treat with __

A

They lack cell wall
Bacterial ribosomal blockers (macrolides and tetracyclines)

392
Q

Crucial component for peptidoglycan synthesis in bacteria

A

Glycosytransferase

393
Q

Fat redistribution is a common side effect of

A

Antiretroviral therapy

394
Q

Tto for pulmonary arterial hypertension

A

Bosentan (endothelin antagonist)

395
Q

Baby with Triad (cataracts + sensorineural hearing loss + patent ductus arteriosus) think of ___. Prevent with

A

Congenital rubella
Live attenuated vaccine prior to conception

396
Q

Monoamine oxidase inhibitor/MAOis (phenelzine or tranylcypromine) are reserved for___

A

Tto resistant major depressive disorder or with atypical features like mood reactivity, leaden paralysis, rejection sensitivity or increase sleep and appetite

398
Q

Urease positive organisms like ___ or ____ , ___ pH,

A

H.pilory
Proteus
Increase

399
Q

Most common UTI agents and their key difference

A

E.Coli does not produce nitrites, E faecalis does.

400
Q

Major mec for Shigella ATB resistance

A

Conjugation

401
Q

Asplenic pts must vaccinate against ___ because

A

Encapsulated bacteria (Strep pneumo, H. influenzae, N. meningitidis)
They can only be cleared by the spleen

402
Q

Organism associated to cat scratch vs cat feces contact

A

Bartonella
Toxoplasma

403
Q

Acyclovir mec of action

A

Competes for viral DNA polymerase

404
Q

Viral proteases inhibitors are important in

A

HIV and HCV

405
Q

Pelvic inflam disease is associated to which organism?

A

Chlamydia
N. gonorrhoeae

406
Q

Ectopic pregnancy main risk factor is __ caused by __

A

Tubal scarring
N. gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia t

407
Q

To prevent tetanus in neonate __

A

Vaccinate mom with inactivated vaccine

408
Q

Pt with groin pain, not painful ulcers and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies, think of

409
Q

Enterococcus features

A

Gram +
Catalase negative
Gamma hemolytic (no hemolysis)
Grows in saline and bile
Most common gram + UTI cystoscopy can cause enterococcal endocarditis

410
Q

Ring shaped intraerytrhocytic parasite

A

Babesia (Protozoa)

411
Q

Mulberry-shaped, intracytoplasmic inclusions or morulae in monocytes, think ok

412
Q

Corynebacterium features

A

Diphtheriae
Gram +
No capsule
AB exotoxin (B affects prot synthesis)
Sore throat, fever, pharyngeal exudates
Brain and heart main complications

413
Q

Profilaxis for close contacts in Meningitis

A

Rifampin, ceftriaxone and criprofloxacine

414
Q

Cryptococcus n and cryptosporidium are usually associated with

A

Meningoencephalitis in AIDS
High volume diarrhea and biliary disease in AIDS

415
Q

Pt with sickled-shaped RBC in blood smear + fever, chills and leukocytosis. Think of

A

Encapsulated organism (due to possible asplenia due to sickle cell anemia)

416
Q

Painless genital ulcer, think of

A

Syphilis by treponema p
Granuloma inhíbame by Klebsiella
Lymphogranuloma v by Chlamydia

417
Q

Which virus has the capacity of inducing indefinite proliferation of B cells ? Which test is dg?

A

EBV
Heterophile antibodies

418
Q

P. Falciparum has more parasitemia and therefore more severe than ovale, malariae or vivax because

A

It affects RBC of all ages while malariae affects only old RBC and the other 2 affect only young and large RBC

419
Q

Pt with fever, just returned from Africa or south America and has positive Giemsa stained. Think of

420
Q

Pt with hemorrhagic bullae ,Gram (-) and history of being in recent contact with salt water (ocean) or ingestion of raw oysters.Think of ___. Pts with ___ have higher risk

A

Vibrio vulnificus
Liver diseñas or iron overload

421
Q

Parvovirus key words

A

“Slapped-cheek” flushed, red.
sDNA
Replication in erythrocyte precursor in bone marrow

422
Q

Pt with minor laceration on the skin, inflam sts, gram (+) and PYR (+) but coagulase and catalase (-). Think of ___ infecting via

A

Strepto pyogenes (necrotizing fasciitis)
Hyaluronidase and streptokinase production

424
Q

Most common congenital heart defect is ___. It’s main risk in adulthood is ___

A

Bicuspid aortic valve
Ao stenosis

425
Q

Pt with recurrent sinopulm infections + failure to thrive and low immunoglobulin levels (all types). Think of ___ which affects__

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Maturation of B cells (look for CD19, 20, 21 absence in cells)

426
Q

Low total thyroxine but normal free T4, think of

A

TBG deficiency

427
Q

Antipsychotic most important side effects

A

Extrapiramidal
Tardive dyskinesia
Nueroleptic malignant sd

429
Q

Omeprazol blocks what type of transport ?

A

Primary active transport (H-K bomb used atp)

430
Q

Cimetidine is a ___ which acts decreasing ___

A

H2 antagonist
intracell cAMP

431
Q

Soldenefil is used for __ and __ whose mec of action is

A

Penile disfunction
Pulmonary hypertension
Upregulation of cGMP

433
Q

Direct vs indirect inguinal hernia location

A

Direct -> into ext ingunal ring -> abdo
Indirect-> into int inguinal ring -> scrotum

434
Q

Which pneumoconioses is very similar to sarcoidosis?

A

Berylliosis (both have noncaseating granulomas)

435
Q

Stellae shaped granulomas, think of

A

Cat-scratch disease by Bartonella

437
Q

Ovoidal or spherical nodules in the peripheral mesangium. Think of

A

Diabetes Mellitus
*Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules in nodular glomerulosclerosis

438
Q

Medullary tumors origen depending on location

A

-Intramedullary: primary tumors
-Intramural extramedullary: meningiomas, schwannomas, neurofibromas.
-extradural: metastases

439
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (ex acetazolamide) mec

A

Block NaHCO3 reabsorption in proximal tubule -> increased urinary HCO3 excretion

440
Q

6-18 month old baby girl who initially had normal development and then regressed (can’t talk, can’t walk, has microcephaly) think of

A

Arrested brain sd (Rett sd) by MECP2 mut

441
Q

Microcytic anemia + High HbA2 + target and hypochromic RBCs, think of __. It occurs due to __

A

Beta thalassemia trait
Point mut -> faulty mRNA or early translation termination

442
Q

Biopsy findings in poststrepto glomerulo nephritis

A

IgG and C3 granular deposits

443
Q

Minimal change glomerulonephriris biopsy

A

Podocyte effacement

444
Q

Several fleshy, raised, soft cutaneous tumors + pigmented spots on trunk. Think of ___ which derived from __ cells

A

Cutaneous neurofibromas
Schwann

445
Q

Which anti epileptic is used to prevent seizure recurrence

A

Na channel inhibitor, Phenytoin