Mixto Flashcards

1
Q

Menière disease features

A

-due to increased vol of endolymph in inner ear
-recurrent vertigo
-ear fullness/pain
Unilateral hearing loss/ tinnitus

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2
Q

Labyrinthitis presentation

A

Acute hearing loss (if not present, vestibular neuritis)
Nausea
Vomiting

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3
Q

Actin binds to which part of the sarcomere?

A

Z line

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4
Q

Myosin binds to which part of the sarcomere?

A

M line

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5
Q

What does CREST stand for in Sclerosis?

A

Calcinosis
Raynaud’s phenomenon
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasias.

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6
Q

What markers are useful in Sclerosis?

A

-Anti-centromere (CREST sd)
-Anti-DNA topoisometase l (Scl-70) (diffuse scleroderma)

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7
Q

Anti- histone (+) think of

A

Drug-induced lupus:
Procainamide, hydralazine, isoniazid, and D-penicillamine

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8
Q

Anti-SSA and SSB (+), think of

A

Sjögren (Ro and La are the same)

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9
Q

Hypersensitivity type lV

A

Occurs upon exposure to an antigen
-T cell and macrophages mediated
Ex: tuberculin, candida tests

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10
Q

Hypersensitivity type lll

A

Inmune complex mediated (ag-ab deposits in tissue)
Neutros recruited
Ex: Lupus, RA, PSG

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11
Q

Cystic fibrosis physiopathology

A

-Mut of CFTR transmemb prot that unables ATP attachment to Cl channels -> less Cl secretion -> Na reabs-> water reabs-> thick mucus production
-impaired post-translational processing

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12
Q

Cardiac hemochromatosis features

A

Excess of intestinal iron absorption
Hepatomegaly, non-tender
Darkly tanned looking skin
Sinus node dysfunction
Brown granular deposits in cells

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13
Q

CT scan showing ring-enhancing lesion, think of

A

Brain abscess

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14
Q

Anaphylactic rx elevates

A

Tryptase and histamine release (due to mast cell and basophil degranulation)

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15
Q

Hypersensitivity type l

A

Allergic rx
IgE ab bind to mast cells and basophils (receptor aggregation)

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16
Q

BCL-2 inhibitors increases the activation of

A

Caspases

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17
Q

Effect of progesterone withdrawal on endometrium

A

Uterine contractions
Constriction of spiral arteries
Apoptosis of cells in the stratum funcrionalis

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18
Q

Constrictive pericarditis signs

A

Increased JVP
Pulsus paradoxus
Kussmaul sign
Pericardial knock (before S3)

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19
Q

Ao regurgitation signs

A

-decrescendo murmur
-Rapid rise-rapid fall pulsation: “bumping” pulses: musset sign (head bobbing/pounding), pistol-shot femoral pulse, etc
-palpitations

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20
Q

Thoracocentesis must be performed on

A

-upper border of ribs to avoid hurting intercostal vessels

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21
Q

Untreated hypothyroidism in NB cause

A

Neurological deficits
Neurocognitive disfx

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22
Q

Propranolol in hyperthyroidism is used to

A

-decrease adrenergic effects
-block peripheral conversion of T4 into T3

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23
Q

Tto of patent ductus arteriosus

A

-inhibition of cliclooxigenase (NSAIDs) -> inhibition of PGE2 synthesis

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24
Q

Temporal arteritis/ giant cell vasculitis signs

A

Headache
Craneofacial pain
Sudden vision loss (feared complication)
Polymyalgia rheumatica ( neck, torso, shoulder pelvic girdle pain), morning stiffness

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25
Q

Horseshoe kidney is usually asymptomatic but can cause

A

Urinary infections and nephroliths

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26
Q

Spherocytosis features

A

RBC without central parlor (spherocytes)
Increase mean corpuscular Hb concentration MCHC

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27
Q

Malignant hyperthermia features

A

Post anesthetics
Excessive Ca+2 accumulation
Muscle contraction
Hyperthermia

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28
Q

Mitochondrial myopathy

A

Maternal inheritance
Muscle weakness
Neuropathy, seizures
Red, ragged cells on biopsy

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29
Q

Hepatic conversion of pyruvate into glucose requires activation of pyruvate carboxylase via

A

Acetyl-CoA

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30
Q

Why are lysene and leucine useful in pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency?

A

They are exclusively ketogenic which helps decrease pyruvate production from glucose

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31
Q

McArdle disease features

A

Myophosphorylase deficiency
Poor excercise tolerance
Improves by consuming simple sugars

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32
Q

What’s the name for different codons producing the same amino acid ?

A

Wobble

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33
Q

Most abundant aa in collagen

A

Glycine

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34
Q

Which enzyme in DNA replication is made from RNA

A

Primase

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35
Q

Dichenne musc dystrophy is the result of

A

Deletion causing frameshift mut or nonsense mut

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36
Q

Aldolase B deficiency

A

Fructose-1,6-biph accumulation
Impaired gluconeogenesis
Severe hypoglycemia
Avoid fructose and sucrose

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37
Q

Li-Fraumeni sd affects a tumor suppressor gene on chromosome

A

17

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38
Q

Which biochemical processes take place in the cytoplasm

A

Glycolysis, fatty acids synthesis, pentose phosphate pathway

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39
Q

Which biochemical processes take place in the mitocondria?

A

Beta-oxidation of fatty acids, gluconeogenesis, creps cycle

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40
Q

Statins inhibit

A

HMG-CoA reductase

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41
Q

Which substances inhibit complex IV of the oxidative phosphorylation process?

A

CO
cyanide

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42
Q

Retonone (insecticide) inhibits oxidative phosphorylation by binding to

A

Complex l

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43
Q

Antimycin A and Oligomycin A inhibit oxidative phosphorylation by binding to

A

Complex III and V respectively

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44
Q

Most of the sts produced by heavy OH drinking are due to excess of

A

NADH

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45
Q

Northern blot transcription migration distance is due to

A

Alternative RNA Splicing

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46
Q

Homocystenirua is caused by

A

Cystathionine synthase -> cysteine cannot be produced so it becomes essential-> homocysteine accumulates (methionine cycle)

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47
Q

Genetic anticipation refers to

A

when a disease is more heavily expressed in a newer generation than the previous

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48
Q

Cystic fibrosis is produced due to a ____ mutation

A

Frameshift

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49
Q

Months old baby is recently introduced to solids (fruit) and presents with vomit and hypotension. Think of

A

Aldolase B def

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50
Q

Why does OH inhibit gluconeogenesis?

A

Not enough NAD req for gluconeogenesis due to excessive NADH

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51
Q

Transketolase participates in___ and deps on___

A

Pentose phosphate pathway
Thiamine (B1)

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52
Q

Phenylketonuria signs

A

Musty body odor
Eczema
Altered gait
Intellectual probs

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53
Q

Protein expression increased with normal mRNA concentration is likely a prob in

A

Ubiquinatination

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54
Q

Cataracts in children, think of

A

Classic Galactosemia

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55
Q

Pyruvate pathways

A

TCA cycle
Gluconeogenesis
Lactate formation
Alanine formation

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56
Q

High ATP levels ____ fructose-1,6 biphosphatase 1 and ____ phosphofuctokinase-1

A

Activate (gluconeo)
Deactivate (TCA)

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57
Q

High AMP levels _____ fructose-1,6 biphosphatase 1 and ____ phosphofuctokinase-1

A

Deactivate (gluconeo)
Activate (TCA)

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58
Q

High Frutose 2,6 biphosphate favors____ and low levels favor

A

Glycolysis
Gluconeo

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59
Q

Which cells are insulin independent?

A

Neurons
Beta-pancreatic cells
Hepatocytes
Enterocytes

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60
Q

Somatic sts disorder features and Tto

A

Multiple unexplained medical sts + excessive health care use
Schedule regular visits

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61
Q

Ant horn and Lat Corticoespinal tract injury have in common

A

Ipsilat motor sts
Ant horn (lower motor neuron) LCT (upper)

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62
Q

What type of collagen appears on myocardium after MI (on scars)

A

Type l

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63
Q

Which tissues have collagen type I

A

Skin, bone, ligaments, tendons, cornea, blood vessels and scar tissue

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64
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta affects collagen type

A

I

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65
Q

Alpert sd affects basement mb, specifically collagen type

A

IV

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66
Q

Major copper excretion occurs via

A

Biliary excretion

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67
Q

Adjustment disorder has to last

A

Min 3 months
Max 6 months

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68
Q

Most important RF of Hepatitis B transmission

A

Injection drug use

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69
Q

Recovery from acute Hepatitis B infection will have

A

Anti-HBc IgG and anti-HBs antibodies

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70
Q

Chronic hepatitis B marker

A

HBsAg for more than 6 months

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71
Q

What’s a leading cause of early neonatal sepsis in women with not adequate prenatal care?

A

Group B streptococcus (S. agalactiae)
*key: narrow zone of clear hemolysis

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72
Q

COPs are the first line for treating hirsutism due to their effects

A

Decreasing androgen production

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73
Q

What arteries are located on the lesser stomach curvature?

A

Right and left gastric

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74
Q

What arteries are located on the greater stomach curvature?

A

Gastroepiploic (right and left)

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75
Q

Pituitary (ant vs post) derived from which embryologic derivates?

A

Ant: surface ectoderm (Rathke pouch)
Post: Neural tube

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76
Q

EBV/mono is associated to which malignancy ?

A

Burkitt lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

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77
Q

Scarlet fever is associated to ___ and main complication is

A

Pharyngitis
RA

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78
Q

Placenta previa refers to

A

Placenta covers internal cervical os

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79
Q

Placenta percreta refers to

A

Placental invasion of adjacent structures
*bladder has greatest risk

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80
Q

Besides SV/HR, what other formula can be used?

A

Rate of O2 consumption/ arteriovenous O2 content difference

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81
Q

Major adverse effects of clozapine

A

Neutropenia and agranulocytosis

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82
Q

Main cause of primary nocturnal enuresis

A

Brain maturation delay
*can’t have been previous continence and have to be 5 or more years old

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83
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans features

A

Budding Yeast with thick capsules

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84
Q

Tto for native vs prosthetic valse replacement

A

Native: naficilin or oxacilin
Prosthetic: vancomycin

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85
Q

Gynecological Laparoscopic procedures can harm which nerves

A

-iliohypogastric (loss of sensation on lat gluteal skin)
-ilioinguinal (loss of sensation on Mons pubis and medial thigh)

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86
Q

Acute retroviral sd refers to what and what are its markers?

A

-early viral infection before serologic response
-HIV p24 antigen (+) and anti-HIV antibodies (-)

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87
Q

Focal seizure + awareness + auditory/olfatory hallucinations , think of

A

Temporal lobe epilepsy

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88
Q

Childhood febrile seizures are commonly associated to

A

Hippocampal sclerosis

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89
Q

hCG is most similar to

A

1.LH
1.FSH
3.TSH

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90
Q

Normal response to local alveolar hypoxia

A

Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (to limit blood flow to nonventilated alveoli)

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91
Q

Increased hemoglobin A2, think of

A

Beta thalassemia minor

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92
Q

What’s hemochromatosis?

A

Excessive intestinal iron absorption and deposition in various tissues (pancreas, heart, liver, joints)

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93
Q

Hemochromatosis causes

A

Hyperpigmentation
Arthritis
Liver damage
DM, hypopituitarism
Cardiomyopathy

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94
Q

Expected findings of Guarda lamblia under the mic

A
  1. ellipsoidal cysts with smooth, well-defined walls and 2+ nuclei or
  2. pear-shaped, flagellated trophozoites.
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95
Q

Giardia lambía features

A

-most common enteric parasite in the US and Canada.
-Chronic diarrhea, malabsorption, and flatulence.
-Hikers and campers drink contaminated water

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96
Q

MTZ can be used to treat which microorganisms?

A

Giardia lamblia
HP
E. Ameba
Trichomonas

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97
Q

Dextromethophan is a first-line cough suppressant bc ___ however it can cause ___ if OD or used with serotoninergic drugs

A

-similar to codeine but without opioid effects
-Serotonin sd

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98
Q

How does aging affect the resp system ?

A

-low PaO2 (+ dead space)
-microatelectasis -> shunting
-V/Q mismatch-> high A-a gradient
-PaCO2 does not really change (pathological if it does)
High lung compliance but total is low

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99
Q

Down sd is associated with what type of hernia?

A

Umbilical (due to incomplete closure of umbilical ring)

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100
Q

S4 suena como
S3 suena como

A

-una parranda
-una cojera

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101
Q

S3 and S4 are associated to

A

S3: eccentric hypertrophy in HF with reduced ejection fraction).
S4: normal if >70 but if <70, pathologic LV wall stiffening,

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102
Q

Organophosphate (pesticides) poisoning management

A
  1. Decontamination
  2. Atropine (reverses muscarinic effects via competitive inh)
    3.Pralidoxime (reverses nicotinic and mucarinic sts)
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103
Q

Inhibition of the intrinsic coag pathway prolongs ___ whereas inhibition of the extrinsic

A

aPTT
PT

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104
Q

Which zona in the adrenal cortex produces mineralocorticoids?

A

Glomerulosa

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105
Q

Hereditary angiogram features

A

Children or teens
Deficiency is dysfunction of C1 inh-> + bradykinin (edema without itching) and - C4 levels

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106
Q

Malignant hyperthermia is due to

A

Abnormal Ryanodine receptors (RYR1) that increase Ca+2 influx

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107
Q

Rebound rhinorrhea is associated with the use of

A

Decongestants for 3 or more days
*stop decongestant

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108
Q

What’s the irrigation for the interior LV wall?

A

Right dominance (85%) : Right coronary artery -> post descending artery
Left dom: circumflex artery -> post descending artery

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109
Q

A right coronary artery occlusion only causing RV infarction can be explained by

A

Left dominance

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110
Q

SIBO risk factors

A

(-) Gastric acid, pancreaticobiliary secretions (PPI)
(-) Intestinal motility (DM, sclerosis)
lleocecal valve resection
Low Mucosal Immune response (igA)

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111
Q

Hungtington triad

A

Mov disorder
Behavior abnormalities
Dementia

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112
Q

Subacute thyroiditis markers

A

Elevated T4, suppressed TSH (hyperthyroid phase)
• Elevated serum thyroglobulin
• Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
• Low radioiodine uptake

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113
Q

Black gallstones occur due to

A

High efflux of bilirrubin into bile

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114
Q

white pupillary reflex (leukocoria) in children <5 years old, think of

A

Retinoblastoma (most common occular childhood tumor)

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115
Q

Retinoblastoma is associated to

A

Sarcomas

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116
Q

Clinical trial phases

A

Preclinical: not in humans
I: pharmacokinetic, metab, dynamics ; adverse effects and max dosis. On a small and healthy group
Il: efficacy checking, affected subjects
lll: safety and effectiveness compared to placebo
IV: effect over time after being out in the market

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117
Q

Baby born from mother with untreated HPV will likely develop __ due to ___

A

Weak cry, hoarseness and stridor
Infection of true vocal cords (has stritified squamous epithelium)

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118
Q

Exceptional heat stroke is associated to

A

DIC (high fibrinolysis, thrombin and plasmin production )

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119
Q

Young man with hypertension, episodic headache, anxiety, and diaphoresis; and an adrenal mass on CT scan has

A

Pheochromocytoma

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120
Q

Lung abscess usually forms due to

A

the aspiration of oropharyngeal bacteria

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121
Q

RF for aspiration sd

A

• Periods of altered consciousness
• Impaired swallowing (eg, nasogastric tube, dysphagia)
• Periodontal disease (gingivitis)

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122
Q

The last structure to disappear in the respiratory epithelium is

A

Cilliated cells (until prox respiratory bronchioles

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123
Q

large hepatocytes filled with finely granular, homogeneous, pale pink cytoplasm. Think of

A

Hepatitis b

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124
Q

High Fructose 2.6-biphosphate ->high glycolysis and inh gluconeo->

A

less alanine to glucose

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125
Q

Insulin ___ fructose 2,6-biphosphate

A

Increase

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126
Q

patient developed localized erythema and vesicles 2 days after reexposure to a chemical on patch testing, think of

A

allergic contact dermatitis

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127
Q

Allergic contact dermatitis is a hypersensitivity type__, where there’s

A

IV
Migration of hapten(allergen)-activated Langerhans cells (dendritic cell) to regional lymph nodes

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128
Q

Impaired fibrillin synthesis, think of

A

Marcan sd

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129
Q

Impaired elastin degradation

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

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130
Q

The sciatic nerve is particularly susceptible to injury in patients with

A

femoral head dislocation, hip fracture, and/or arthroplasty

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131
Q

Polyarteritis modosa features

A

-weeks or months of constitutional sts and signs of organ ischemia
-biopsy: segmental, transmural inflammation with fibrinoid necrosis disruption of elastic laminae.
-rel to HBV

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132
Q

Horner syndrome classically presents with

A

hemifacial ptosis
miosis
anhydrosis
enophthalmos.

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133
Q

Bell palsy (CN Vll) presents with

A

-asymmetry of face when smiling
-effacement of nasolabial fold
-lips are drawn toward op side.
-Loss of taste from 2/3 ant tongue
-less tear production

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134
Q

Young woman with isolated thrombocytopenia and no other platelet abnormalities, think of

A

immune thrombocytopenic purpura

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135
Q

Red flags of drug-seeking behavior

A

-requesting a specific medication
-running out of medication
-claiming pain out of proportion to the physical examination
-Reporting lost or stolen medication
-obtaining multiple opioid prescriptions from different providers

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136
Q

What’s the initial approach for suspected drug-seeking behavior?

A

Clarify medication/prescription history

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137
Q

internal hemorrhoids drain into

A

superior rectal vein -> inferior mesenteric vein.

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138
Q

External hemorrhoids drain via

A

the inferior rectal vein -> internal pudendal vein -> internal iliac veins

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139
Q

Most carcinomas spread via

A

Lymphatics

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140
Q

The following CA spread hematogenously

A

Sarcomas
Renal cell carcinoma
Hepatocell carcinoma

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141
Q

These Ca spread perineurally

A

Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma
Prostate Ca

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142
Q

Most Ca spread via

A

Direct invasion

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143
Q

Formation of ketone bodies depends firstly on enzyme

A

Hormone-sensitive lipase

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144
Q

Cocaine-induced chest pain is treated with

A

Nitro (reduced preload) + BZD (reduces SNS response)

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145
Q

Young pt with MI signs, think of

A

Coronary artery vasoconstriction due to cocaine

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146
Q

Which technique is used for detecting large deletions or transloc of chromosomal segments?

A

Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

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147
Q

Key features of Coccidioides

A

Spherules full of sndospores
Endemic of southwest US (Arizona, New mex)

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148
Q

Turner sd is associated to which heart prob?

A

Bicuspid ao valve

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149
Q

Small linear splinter hermorrhages under nail (microemboli) suggest

A

Infectious endocarditis

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150
Q

Pte <40 yo with inflam back pain + tenderness at tendon insertion + forward flex reduced. Think of

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

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151
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis increased markers

A

HLA-B27
IL-17
TNF-alpha
Prostaglandins

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152
Q

Transposition of great arteries in NB causes reversed function of ventricules and arteries, in order to live, they need a

A

sx that widens foremen ovale or maintains ductus arteriosus to provide some oxygenated blood to the body

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153
Q

What anatomical landmark is used in a appendectomy?

A

Teniae coli

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154
Q

Ring-enhancing focal brain lesions on HIV patients. Consider ___ or ___

A

Toxoplasmosis
PCNSL (B cell lymphoma) by EBV

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155
Q

Class IA and III antiarrhythmics are associated to

A

acquired QT prolongation

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156
Q

Solatol and Ibutilide are class lll antiarrythmics that associate to

A

Torsades de pointes

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157
Q

Hemolytic disease of the NW features

A

Jaundice
Hepatomegaly
HypoHb
Direct Coombs (+)
Little to none prenatal care

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158
Q

Contralat complete sensory loss after signs of stroke, structure probably affected

A

Contralat Thalamus

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159
Q

Lacunar infarctions are believed to be primarily caused by

A

Lipohyalinosis and microatheromas

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160
Q

Elderly woman with rash around eye and nose + eye pain +decreased vision. Think of

A

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

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161
Q

Anemia + High reticylocyte count suugests

A

Bleeding or hemolysis (intravascular or from splenic erythrocytes destruction)

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162
Q

Anemia + very low reticylocyte count (not normal response) suggests

A

Problema producing RBCib bone marrow.
If only Hb low, think of pure red cell aplasia

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163
Q

Transient ischemic attack is characterized by

A

Focal neurological deficits (seems to be a stroke) but resolved without intervention
*due to transient brain ischemia

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164
Q

Transient ischemic attack management

A

Antiplatelets (aspirin+clopi)
Statin (HMG-CoA redactase inh)
Lifestyle modifications

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165
Q

Dog bite associated bacteria

A

Pasteurella multocida and Pasteurella canis
Capnocytophaga canimorsus

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166
Q

Cat bite associated bacteria

A

Pasteurella multocida
Bartonella henselae

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167
Q

Valproate is used as

A

Anticonvulsant and mood stabilizer

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168
Q

Anencephaly is caused by failure of ____ closure

A

Ant/rostral neuropore

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169
Q

What’s the best method for a pt with Turner sd to achieve pregnancy?

A

In vitro fermentation

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170
Q

Sporotricosis (rose disease) biopsy shows

A

Grandulomas and neutrophilic microabscesses

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171
Q

Pt with agitated delirium, sympathetic hyperactivity due to antiAcH toxidrome, give

A

Physostigmine

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172
Q

Pt with sedation/ slurred speech but normal vitals due to BZD OD, give

A

Flumazenil

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173
Q

Sedation with resp suppression + miosis due to opioid OD, give

A

Naloxone

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174
Q

Pt with altered mental status + mydriasis + sympathetic hyperactivity (serotonin sd) due to to SSRI/SNRIs OD, give

A

Cyproheptadine

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175
Q

Lung CA can cause epidural metastasis manifesting as___ and affecting__ nerve

A

Cauda equina sd
Sciatic and pelvic splanchnic

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176
Q

Pt unresponsive post partum with profuse bleeding and shock signs, think of

A

Amniotic fluid embolus sd

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177
Q

Amniotic fluid embolus sd hemodynamic effects

A

High PVR
High CVP -> high RVP
Low PCWP

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178
Q

25% pts with active TB show little to no resp to tuberculin skin test due to

A

Inadequate lymphocyte resp (T cell anergy)

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179
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease featured

A

Catalase (+) organisms recurrent infections
Normal igb levels, no leukopenia
*Impaired neutrophilic resp burst

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180
Q

MEN2B features

A

Medullary thyroid Ca signs (mass + high calcitonin
Mucosal neuromas
Marfanoid habitus
Pheochromocytoma

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181
Q

Pt with recent partum labor presents with fecal incontinence and loss of anal wink reflex. Nerve injured is

A

Pudendal

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182
Q

22q11 deletion sd features

A

Recurrent sinopulm infect
Craneofacial abnormalities
Congenital heart disease
Thymic hypoplasia

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183
Q

Where in the lymph node are T cells ?

A

Paracortex

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184
Q

Young woman with signs of internuclear ophthalmology, think of

A

Multiple sclerosis

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185
Q

Osmotic diuretics act on

A

Descending limb of henle loop and PT

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186
Q

Carbonic abhydrase inh (acetazolamide) used for angle closure glaucoma acts on

A

PT

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187
Q

Neonatal abstinance sd manifests as

A

NB with irritability, high-pitched cry, sleeping and feeding probs, autonomic disfx, tachypnea, diarrhea and vomiting

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188
Q

Anti-Smith ab relates to Smith prot, which is ____. This participates in

A

snRNA
RNA splicing removing introns via spliceosomes (which have snRNPs )

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189
Q

Peripheral artery disease management

A

Excersise + cilostazol

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190
Q

Acute management of variceal hemorrhage reqs

A

Somatostatin

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191
Q

Small gap near the tip of a long arm of the X chromosome , think of

A

fragile x sd

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192
Q

Fragile x sd features

A

Intelectual disability
Prominent forehead, chin
Long ears, long and narrow face
Macroorchidism

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193
Q

Elevated alpha fetoprotein is suggestive of ___ and represents failure of ____

A

Open neural tube defect -> hindbrain herniation
Primary neurulation

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194
Q

Primary neurulation process

A

Neural plate -> neural folds -> neural tube

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195
Q

Mediators of sepsis/syst inflam

A

TNF-a, Il-1, Il-6

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196
Q

Why are cholesterol gallstone produced ?

A

Not enough bile salts

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197
Q

Why are brown/pigmented gallstones produced?

A

Infection-> injured hepatocytes-> release beta glucuronidase-> Excess unconjugated bilirubin

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198
Q

Normal Anion gap value and formula

A

10-14
Na - (HCO3+ Cl)

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199
Q

Antipsychotics can produce acute dystonic Rx due to

A

Strong D2 inh in the nigrostriadal pathway -> excess AcH -> extrapiramidal sts

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200
Q

Proliferative phase of HBV express HBsAg and HBcAg + MHC on hepatocyte surface, this causes ___

A

CD8+ to attack hepatocytes but it’s not a direct citotoxic effect

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201
Q

HIV-2 features

A

West Africa
Low viral load
10-25 years to AIDS

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202
Q

Prot C is___. Its deficiency causes

A

Anticoag prot
Procoag state (DVT)

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203
Q

Factor Vlll deficiency causes

A

Hemophilia A

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204
Q

vWF fx

A

Binds Gplb (platelets glycoprot) to collagen
Protects factor Vlll carrier

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205
Q

Venous blanching + induration + pallor on site of norepi (extravasation), give

A

Phentolamine (op vasodilating effect)

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206
Q

During passive expiration, resp system compliance (chest wall vs lungs) reaches eq. That is at an intrapleural P of

A

-5 cm H2O

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207
Q

Sensitivity vs specificity

A

Positive truly have the disease (low rate of false neg)
Negative truly don’t have the disease (low rate of false positives)

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208
Q

Multiple sclerosis tremor is

A

Cerebellar
Action tremor
Ataxia rel

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209
Q

Mass in neck + ear effusion, suspect tumor in

A

Nasopharynx

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210
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau disease produces

A

-Cerebellar & retinal hemangioblastomas
-Pheochromocytoma
-Renal cell carcinoma (clear cell subtype)

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211
Q

Pt with episodes of irresistible need of sleep during day and inappropriate places, treat with

A

Modafinil (for Narcolepsy)

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212
Q

Alveolar ventilation is

A

Tidal vol - dead space vol

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213
Q

Cocaine withdrawal sts

A

Low mood, fatigue, hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and vivid dreams

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214
Q

Cannabis withdrawal sts

A

irritability, anxiety, depressed mood, and vivid dreams, insomnia and decreased appetite

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215
Q

Opiate withdrawal sts

A

abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, yawning, muscle aches, piloerection, lacrimation, and dilated pupils.

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216
Q

OH withdrawal sts

A

agitation, tremors, tachycardia, and hypertension

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217
Q

Pulm artery catheter/Swan-ganz reflects

A

left atrial and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures.

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218
Q

Pulm artery catheter/Swan-ganz go through

A

right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary artery

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219
Q

To reduce risk or treat estrogen tumors in post-meno women, give

A

Aromatase inhibitors (anastrozole, letrozole, exemestane)

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220
Q

Digital clobbing, think of

A

cardiopulmonary hypoxic disease
Pulm neoplasia
Chronic cardiopulmonary infection

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221
Q

Myotonic dystrophy type 1 features

A

CTG repeats
Attacks non-dividing cells: skeletal muscle, brain, myocardium

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222
Q

Sudden cardiac death due to MI usually causes

A

Malignant ventricular arrhythmia (ventricular fib)

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223
Q

Active infection of Strongyloides stercolaris is dg via

A

Rhabfitiform larvae in stool (noninfective)
*filariform larva in soil (infective)

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224
Q

To which antibody does Graves’ disease associate ?

A

Thyrotropin receptor

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225
Q

To which antibody does Hashimoto’s disease associate ?

A

Thyroid peroxidase
*thyroglobulin is more common in hypothyroidism

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226
Q

Physiological response to anaphylaxis

A

Antigent-igE contact-> igE ab receptor aggregation -> mast cell and basophil degranulation -> histamine and tryptase release.

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227
Q

Meckel diverticulum’s features

A

Persistent vitelline duct
Often by age two
Painless rectal bleeding

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228
Q

Sudden upward jerking (hanging from tree or kid pulled by the arm) may result in Klumpke palsy/ hand clumsiness because

A

It can injured of the inf trunk of brachial plexus -> median and ulnar N -> intrinsic hand musc

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229
Q

History of nasal wound or prolongs tampon + hypotension, rapid onset fever and diffuse erythematous rash, think of

A

Staphylococcal toxic shock sd (pyrogenic endotoxin superantigen)

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230
Q

Hartnup disease features

A

Deficiency of niacin due to mut of aa transporter (ex triptophan precursor of niacin)
Early childhood sts
Pellagran-like skin eruptions
Cerebellar ataxia
aa in urine

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231
Q

Predominant Hb before 8 weeks gestation?

A

Zeta or epsilon globins

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232
Q

Predominant Hb before 14 weeks gestation til first months of life ?

A

HbF (2 alpha, 2 gamma)

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233
Q

Chronic (>6mo) lung transplant rejection is marked by

A

submucosal lymphocytic inflammation in the walls of the small airways.

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234
Q

Acyclovir nephrotoxicity can be prevented wit

A

Adequate hydration

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235
Q

Twisting your ankle inward (lat ankle sprain) hurts ___

A

(Ant) talofibular ligament

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236
Q

Dg criteria for schizophrenia

A

continuous signs of disturbance for at least 6 months an at least 1 month of ≥2 of active or passive sts

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237
Q

EPO fx

A

In resp to hypoxia, it increases progenitor RBC differentiation and reduces apoptosis

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238
Q

Medicare covers

A

65 yo and older who have paid taxes, have residence and citizenship in US
Young ppl with disabilities, ESRD and ALS

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239
Q

Medicare covers

A

65 yo and older who have paid taxes, have residence and citizenship in US
Young ppl with disabilities, ESRD and ALS

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240
Q

Medicaid covers

A

Homeless
Undocumented immigrants
Pregnant women
Low-income families

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241
Q

Cleft lip is a result of failure in the fusion of

A

Maxillary prominence and intermaxillary segment

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242
Q

What test is useful to check if there’s sickle cell trait

A

Hb electrophoresis

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243
Q

Oligodendrocyte depletion, focal demyelination, T2 lesions on MRI, oligoclonal bands on CSF are typical of

A

Multiple sclerosis

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244
Q

Mass blocking ileocecal valve + air in biliary tree (pneumobilia), think of

A

Gallstone ileus

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245
Q

What type of genes are RET, TP53 and RB?

A

RET: protooncogene
TP53, RB: tumor suppressors

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246
Q

HPV oncoproteins (E6 and E7) affect

A

Tumor suppressors
E6-P53
E7-RB
*rel to head, neck, anal and penile Ca

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247
Q

Postpartum depression features

A

Up to a year
Depression sts
Guilt

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248
Q

Postpartum blues features

A

Resolves within 14 days
Mild depression
Tearfulness
Irritability

249
Q

Postpartum psychosis features

A

Delusions, hallucinations, bizarre behavior

250
Q

Old pt with Bradycardia + dropped p waves on EKG, think of

A

Sick sinus sd

251
Q

Pt with depression and ongoing cellulitis is given atb then presents with seizures, what atb did he receive?

252
Q

HSV-1 features

A

Gingivostomatitis
DNA virus
Ds
Enveloped

253
Q

Randomization refers to

A

assignment of 2 groups with similar characteristics to prevent selection bias

254
Q

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction is caused by

A

Pt’s abs against blood product ABO-group antigen (ABO incompatibility)

255
Q

Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs when

A

A pt was previously exposed (days to weeks before) to a foreign, minor RBC antigen

256
Q

Dense lung opacity with air-fluid level in an alcoholic or drug user are consistent with

A

Lung abscess (due to aspiration during loss of consciousness)

257
Q

Vaccine component of meningococcal meningitis

A

Capsular polysaccharide

258
Q

Young adult with skin-colored, well-circumscribed plaque painless or without itching, think of

A

Verruca vulgaris by HPV

259
Q

Histopathologic findings of HPV verruca

A

Epidermal hyperplasia
Hyperkeratosis
Cytoplasmic vacuolization

260
Q

Multiple drug Tto is req for TB due to

A

Altered structure of bacterial ribosomal prots resistance pattern

261
Q

Carcinoid sd dg

A

High 5-HIAA urinary excretion

262
Q

Trauma to side of the face s and probable temporal bone fracture will affect which nerves ?

A

Facial and vestibulocochlear nerve

263
Q

BRCA1/2 are responsible for

A

DNA repair

264
Q

What can reverse MTX toxicity?

A

Folinic acid

265
Q

Which antifungal drugs bind/inh incorporation of ergosterol into cell mb?

A

Amphotericin B
Nystatin

266
Q

Which antifungal drugs inh ergosterol synthesis?

267
Q

The only immune cell that doesn’t go down with aging is

268
Q

Mycophenolate is the ideal drug for

A

helping prevent organ transplant rejection

269
Q

Exercises of pelvic floor for helping with urinary Incontinence are aimed for which muscles?

A

Levator ani muscle complex

270
Q

Why is profilactic penicillin important in S.pyogenes pharyngitis?

A

Prevention of acute rheumatic fever and rel cardiovascular disease

271
Q

What type of edema does increased fluid extravasation and decreased oncotic pressure cause?

A

Pitting edema

272
Q

Child with milky plasma + low lipase activity+ hypertriglyceridemia+ acute pancreatitis + Lipemia retinalis. Suspect

A

Fam chylomicronemia sd

273
Q

Toxic shock sd toxin from SA features

A

Rel to tampons and nasal packing
Macrophages and T cells response

274
Q

Detrusor musc contraction promotes

A

Urination (+ decrease int urinary sphincter tone )

275
Q

Fatigue + depressed mood within 3 months of identifyable stressor

A

Adjustment disorder

276
Q

Chronic depressed mood for more than 2 years

A

Persistent depressive disorder (disthymia)

277
Q

Spironolactone causes gynecomastia bc

A

It blocks androgen receptor and decreases testosterone synthesis

278
Q

TAP prot are needed in the immune system bc ___. TAP Mutations lead to

A

They present antigents to MHC l which then activate T cells
Ulcers and recurrent resp infections

279
Q

Nitrates effects and adverse effects

A

Venodilation-> more blood remains in veins-> less EVDV -> less wall stress -> less O2 demand -> less pain

Headaches, hypotension, flushing

280
Q

Greatest severity determinant in Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Degree of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction

281
Q

Levothiroxyne absorption is decreased when taken with

A

Iron
Calcium
Antiacids

282
Q

Night blindness + thickened skin are suggestive of

283
Q

Causes of vit A, D, E, K def

A

Pancreatic insufficiency
Cholestasis/biliary obst
Short bowel sd

284
Q

Hemophilia inheritance probability is

A

1/2 (being carrier) x 1/2 (passing affected chromosome) x 1/2 (having a boy) = 1/8

285
Q

Which mood stabilizers are used for Manic features, manic + depressive, depressive

A

Valproate, carbamazepine
Lithium
Lamotrigine

286
Q

Giant cytoplasmic granules inside neutrophils are pathognomonic of

A

Chédiak-Higashi sd (lysosomal trafficking impaired)

287
Q

Tay-Sachs disease features

A

By age 6, developmental regression
Beta-hexosaminidase A deficiency High GM2 ganglioside
Cherry red spot on macula

288
Q

Persistence of HBsAg for more than 6mo indicates

A

Chronic HBV infection

289
Q

Anti-HBs in HBV represents

A

Long term immunity

290
Q

Which organisms exacerbate COPD

A

Viral: rhinovirus, influenza, RSV
Bacterial: Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, Streptococcus pneumoniae

291
Q

The number needed to harm is

A

1/ ARI (prob of adverse effect in Tto group - prob of adverse in placebo group)

292
Q

Resistance to Vanco is due to

A

replacement of the terminal D-alanine-D-alanine with D-alanine-D-lactate

293
Q

Direct inguinal hernia features

A

Older men
Weakness of transversalis fascia
Medial to inf epigastric vessels
Hasselbach’s triangle

294
Q

Indirect inguinal hernia features

A

Lat to inf epigastric vessels
In males: failure of processus vaginalis to obliterate
In females: failure of int inguinal ring to close

295
Q

MAC (dep on C3, C5-9) is most important defense against

A

Encapsulated organisms
*MAC def displays low CH50 and AH50

296
Q

Ras prot is activated when bound to

297
Q

Mastocytosis is associated with KIT mut which causes

A

Excessive Histamine release -> gastric hypersecretion

298
Q

From which vessel originate the hepatic arteries

A

Celiac trunk

299
Q

Desmopressin lowers the clearance of

300
Q

Pt with history of trauma presents with painful, firm, mobile mass on musc area, think of

A

Myositis ossificans

301
Q

Mucosal bleeding and easy bruising that resp to desmopressin, think of

A

Von Willebrand disease

302
Q

Paget disease profile

A

Old man
Multifocal bone pain (skull, vertebrae and extremities)
High alk phophatase, normal Ca, PTH and phosphorus
Thickening of cortical and trabecular bone
Possible spinal stenosis and nerve compression

303
Q

A monocular upper left visual field defect is likely due to a lesion in

A

The lower right retina

304
Q

What’s the most important measure to reduce risk of transmission in MRSA ?

A

Hand hygiene

305
Q

Young pt with platypnea, pulmonary vasc disease signs and recurrent epistaxis

A

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangectasias
(Telangenctasias might not be mentioned)

306
Q

infant with erythematous and pruritic patches on her cheeks, think of

A

has atopic dermatitis (eczema)
*high IgE, risk of other atopic diseases

307
Q

Muddy brown granular casts in urine, think of

A

Acute tubular necrosis

308
Q

Child with erythematous papules and pustules that later erupt, forming a honey/amber colored crusting, think of

A

Impetigo by SAu or SPiog

309
Q

Beta blockers lower blood pressure via 2 mechanisms:

A
  1. Reducing myocardial contractility and HR
  2. Decreasing renin release by the kidney
310
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris’ buzz words

A

Flaccid bullae -> easy eruption-> erosions
Desmosomes problem

311
Q

Bullous pemphigoid’s buzz words

A

Solid bullae
Old people
Hemidesmosome problem

312
Q

“Transforming unacceptable feeling or impulses into the opposite” refers to

A

Rx formation

313
Q

Retinal cherry-red macular spot with white surrounding ring + hepatosplenomegaly + neuro degeneration, think of

A

Sphingomyelinase def

314
Q

Thrush and Leukoplakia white-plaque like lesions on the tongue but only ____ can be scraped off

A

Thrush (C. albicans)

315
Q

Congenital primary hypothyroidism, think of

A

Thyroid dysgenesis or TSH resistance

316
Q

Which class lll antiarrhythmic has the least risk of producing Torsades de pointes

A

Amiodarone

317
Q

“Sustained, involuntary, musc contractions that for body into abnormal and painful posture” refers to

318
Q

For knowing the probability of not having a disease, use

A

Neg predictive value

319
Q

Which cells and receptors participate in a tuberculin skin test Rx?

A

CD28-T cells
CD80- dedritic cells

320
Q

Unilateral hearing loss, dg to consider

A

Perforation of tympanic mb
Vestibula schwannomas (acoustic neuroma)

321
Q

Noise-induced hearing loss affects

A

Stereocilliated hair cells of organ of Corti

322
Q

ARR = (Risk control - Risk treatment)

A

Absolute risk reduction

323
Q

Most common reactivation sd in AIDs pt is from

A

CMV (herpesvirus family)

324
Q

-navir antiretrovirals mec

A

Inh of HIV proteases -> not functional viral prots -> noninfectious virions

325
Q

Elderly pt with lightheadedness and feeling of impending fainting when tightening tie, think of ___. EKG finding __

A

Carotid sinus hypersensitivity
Sinus pause

326
Q

Tumor multidrug resistance mec

A

Increased expression of P-glycoprot-> ATP-dep efflux pump -> chemo agents expelled out of cell

327
Q

Recovery complication after Acute tubular necrosis

A

Electrolyte wasting

328
Q

Rectus femoris and sartorus hace in common ____ but differ in that

A

Hip flexion
R.F extends the knee and S flexes it

329
Q

Pt with chronic pancreatitis, UTH and tortuous veins in gastric fundus. Think of

A

Splenic vein thrombosis (due to pancreatic inflammation)

330
Q

Old male pt with back pain, suspect ___ bc it usually metastasizes to__

A

Prostatic CA
Bone (forms new bone via irreg glands)

331
Q

Between 3 weeks and 2 years, a wound heals via

A

Matrix metalloproteinases which change type lll collagen for type l

332
Q

Schizoid vs schizotypal

A

• Schizoid: prefers to be a loner, detached, unemotional
• Schizotypal: unusual thoughts, perceptions & behavior

333
Q

Most common enteric parasite infection in US and Canada has

A

Giardia lambia

334
Q

Light microscopy changes at days 1 to 3 after a MI

A

Coag necrosis
Prominent neutrophilic infiltrate (clusters of purple dots areas)

335
Q

Light microscopy changes at days 10 to 14 after a MI

A

*Collagen depo and granulation tissue (white circles
Fibroblast prolif
*Neovasc (red dots)

336
Q

Young pt with large mediastinal mass, MPO (-), TdT (+), think of

A

T-lymphoblastic leukemia if CD2-CD8 (+)
B-Lymphoblastic leukemia if CD10-CD79a (+)

337
Q

Most potent chemotactic eicosanoid that causes rapid neutro locomotion is

A

Leukotriene B4

338
Q

Which pathway can generate NADPH when cells are unable to do it directly form glucose ?

A

The pentose phosphate pathway (HMP shunt) via transketolase and transaldolase enzymes

339
Q

A patent ductus arteriosus is a left-to-right shunt that allows continuous flow of oxygenated blood from ___ to___

A

Ao to Pulm artery (which leads to a higher PaO2 there)

340
Q

Which drug can work as MTX toxicity rescue

A

Leucovorin (NS-formyl-tetrahydrofolate)

341
Q

Exceptions to pt confidentiality

A

Suspected abuse
Knife or gunshot wounds
Diseases that most be reported
Threat to harm self or others

342
Q

Pt with shortened vigina, rudimentary uterus, amenorrhea, rest of sexual features are normal, think of

A

Müllerian agenesis

343
Q

Organism that usually causes pneumonia in OH use disorder

A

Klebsiella

344
Q

Peniciline inh transpeptidases that target

A

D-alanine-D-alanine

345
Q

In lymph nodes Cortez, B cells form___ where they undergo ____

A

Germinal centers
Isotype switching (other ig apart from IgM)

346
Q

Beta Hb mut in Familial erythrocytosis produces poor binding of 2-3 BPG, which causes HbA to ___. This is similar to___.

A

Bind more O2.
HbF

347
Q

Ureters are ant to ___ in the pelvic cavity

A

Int iliac artery

348
Q

Which organism causes epiglottitis in children?

A

H.influenzae type b

349
Q

Pt with harsh, holosystolic murmur along the lower left sternal border, think of ____, which is a _____ shunt

A

Ventricular septal defect
Left to right

350
Q

Pt with Sickle cell disease taking Hydroxyurea presents with pancytopenia and macrocytosis, cause?

A

Medication-induced inhibition of a nucleic acid synthesis enzyme leading to DNA impaired synthesis

351
Q

P- value is

A

probability of obtaining a sample value at least as large as the one observed when the population value claimed in H0 is assumed to be true.

352
Q

rapid-onset muscle pain, fever, hemorrhagic bullae with dusky surrounding skin, and tissue edema/crepitus. Thinks of

A

Spontaneous gas gangrene by Clostridium septicum

353
Q

Spontaneous gas gangrene by Clostridium septicum is associated with

A

Colonic malignancy

354
Q

Gigantism is caused by hypersecretion of ___ mediated by ____

A

GH
Hepatic IGF-1

355
Q

Pt requiring rapid blood transfusion but flow rate is not helping, you should

A

Double the diameter of the intravenous catheter

356
Q

Pt with recurrent infections during childhood and absence of fluorescence in neutrophils during dihydrorhodamine flow cytometry, think of

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

357
Q

Cause of recurrent infections in pt with cystic fibrosis

A

Development of bacterial macrocolonies

358
Q

HBsAg HBeAg found in blood smear signifies

A

HBsAg: first marker of HBV infection, surface antigen, implies active infection acute or chronic
HBeAg: highly infectious if high, sts appear

359
Q

Anti-HBc (antibody) in blood test implies

A

Positive in window period (helps when ab and ag may not be detectable )

360
Q

Anti-HBe and Anti-HBs mean

A

Anti-HBe
Anti-HBs: person has recovered, seen in vaccinated people

361
Q

Most common cause of complement deficiency is ___. Marked by___

A

Auto antibodies (IgG-ag complex formation)
Low C4, C3, CH50
Normal Factor B

362
Q

Most common cause of bacterial vaginosis. Key finding is__

A

Anaerobic gram-variable Gardnerella vaginalis
Clue cells

363
Q

Unilateral renal stenosis effects on non-stenotic kidney

A

small crowded glomeruli

364
Q

Formula for calculating number needed to treat to prevent neg event in 1 person (NNT)

A

NNT: 1/ARR
ARR: control rate - tto rate
Control rate: n ppl with neg event/total in control
Tto rate: n ppl with neg event/total in tto

365
Q

Why is beta-thalassemia a problem for prot translation initiation ?

A

It affects the Kozak consensus seq which identifies AUG codon

366
Q

Insult to kinesin would

A

impair anterograde transport resulting in a deficiency of synaptic vesicles at the nerve terminal.

367
Q

Gastric band must go through ___ to encircle the stomach

A

Lesser omentum

368
Q

Testosterone replacement therapy adverse effects

A

Increased Prostate volume
Reduced erythrocytosis (must monitor)

369
Q

Which organisms usually cause CF exacerbations

A

S. Aureus, H. Influenzae, P. Aeruginosa, Burkholderia capacia

370
Q

From which aa does the eNOS make NO to cause vasodilation?

371
Q

What formula is used to know if an individual with a positive test truly has the disease ?

A

Positive predictive value (PPV)
PPV: TP/ (TP+FP)
** Do not confuse with sensibility

372
Q

Cerebral palsy causes

A

Loss of descending inh control -> severe spasticity

373
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis elevates production of

A

IL-17
TNF-a
Prostaglandins

374
Q

Propionic acidemia is caused by ___
___ must be avoided

A

Deficiency of propionyl-CoA carboxylase.
Valine, isoleucine, methionine, and threonine (create more propionic acid)

375
Q

Pt with chronic constipation and visible bulge protruding from vagina, Musc likely damaged?

A

Levator ani musc complex

376
Q

Glycosylated HIV polyprot gp160 create gp120 and gp41 whose function is

A

Mediate viral attachment and viral fusion to host cell

377
Q

Caspofungin blocks

A

Glucan synthesis needed for polysaccharide component of the fungal cell wall

378
Q

ECO showing microbubles in left heart after peripheral vein injection, think of

A

Right-to-left intracardiac shunt (PFO or ASD)

379
Q

Resting mb potential is formed with

A

High K and some Na conductance

380
Q

Myocardial granuloma or Aschoff body are pathognomonic of

A

Acute rheumatic fever carditis

381
Q

Shortened telomeres trigger

A

Permanent growth arrest

382
Q

PCA strokes affect and cause

A

Occipital lobe -> Homonymous hemianopia (visual neglect), contralat to lesion: macula is spared.
Thalamus -> contralat hemisensory loss of the face, trunk, and limbs

383
Q

If a pt is in denial about terminal illness but doesn’t interfere with medical care, pte

A

Should not be confronted. Doctor must be supportive of pt’s hopeful perspective

384
Q

immunofluorescence microscopy shows granular deposits of IgG, IgM, and C3 on the GBM, think of

385
Q

NB wit Hb irritability, poor feeding and high pitch cry. Mom with poor prenatal care, think of

A

Heroin exposure during pregnancy

386
Q

NB with growth def, smooth philtrum, palpebral fissures, thin upper lip and intellectual disability, think of

A

OH exposure during pregnancy

387
Q

NB with jitteriness, excessive sucking, and a hyperactive Moro reflex, think of

A

Exposure to cocaine during pregnancy

388
Q

Congenital Rubella sts

A

NB with cardiac defects, hearing loss and cataracts

389
Q

Extended expectrum beta-lactamase bacteria (E.coli) inactivate penicilins and cephalosporins via

A

enzymes encoded in plasmids

390
Q

Subclavian steal sd is recognized for

A

vertebral artery with retrograde (caudal) flow instead of normal antegrade

391
Q

Pt with schizophrenia and poor response to 2 or more antipsychotics, treat with ____. Must monitor____.

A

Clozapine
Absolute neutrophil count (risk of agranulocytosis)

392
Q

systolic ejection murmur that disappears during an episode of cyanosis is a characteristic of

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

393
Q

systolic ejection murmur that disappears during an episode of cyanosis is a characteristic of

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

394
Q

Drugs associated with SIADH

A

carbamazepine, cyclophosphamide, and selective serotonin reuptake inh

395
Q

Medullary thyroid cancer features

A

Palpable neck nodule
High calcitonin
Spindle-shaped cells
RET mut

396
Q

DM1 during early stages is characterized by

A

Islet leukocytic infiltration (insulitis). This is mainly due to destruction of beta cells through cell-mediated immunity.

397
Q

Pt with recent head trauma, high serum Osm, ICF and ECF contraction, think of

A

Diabetes insipidus

398
Q

Pulm Sarcoidosis features

A

-Dyspnea + cough +hilar adenopathy
-Pulm infiltrates: noncaseating granulomas, tightly clustered epitheloid macrophages.
-Immune resp: Th1, IL-2, interferon-y

399
Q

Oculocutaneous albinism is a mut of

A

Tyrosinase

400
Q

HIV fusions with host cell mb binding gp120 to CD4 and then

A

Chemokine receptor CCR5 -> gp41 -> viral fusion

401
Q

pt with DM1 has postprandial nausea, vomiting of undigested food, bloating, and early satiety, think of ___.

A

Gastroparesis

402
Q

B-hCG role is

A

Maintain the corpus luteum
Continue progesterone production

403
Q

Risk of infection in systemic chemotherapy is higher due to

A

Mucositis -> damage to digestive tract epithelial cells -> endogenous bacteria enter bloodstream
Neutropenia

404
Q

Drugs used to reverse anticholinergic toxicity

A

Tertiary amines: physostigmine, galantamine, donepezil, rivastigmine.

405
Q

Neurologic sts on upper extremity in the setting of an extra rib, think of

A

Thoracic outlet sd -> compression of brachial plexus

406
Q

Neurologic sts on upper extremity in the setting of an extra rib, think of

A

Thoracic outlet sd -> compression of brachial plexus

407
Q

To treat atrial flutter, conduction block must be made through

A

Cavotricuspid isthmus (IVC-tricuspid valve)

408
Q

Failure of post neuropore closure results in

A

Myelomeningocele (open spinal dysraphism)

409
Q

Genetic shift and reassortment in viruses is responsible for epidemics thanks to their ____

A

Segmented genomes

410
Q

Vesicoureteral reflux (retrograde flow urine) commonly occurs due to

A

Congenitallly shortened intravesical ureter

411
Q

Key difference between acute stress disorder and PTSD

A

ASD lasts <1mo
PTSD lasts >1mo

412
Q

Key Differences between Hirschsprung disease and intestinal atresia

A

HD: delayed passage meconium, obst sts. Small intestine unaffected (colon yes). Cellular migration failure.
IA: Small intestine affected (blind-ending, certain areas absent). Vasc occlusion prob.

413
Q

MTX is a folate antagonist that causes ___ and ___ to accumulate intracel

A

Folic acid
DFH polyglumate

414
Q

Most common benign liver tumor is___ and it’s recognized by___

A

Cavernous hemangioma
Cavernous, blood filled vasc spaces

415
Q

Pt with acute dystonic Rx (eg torticollis) and history of recently diagnosed schizophrenia, probable cause

A

antipsychotic property of D2 antagonism in the nigrostriatal pathway. (Eg. haloperidol, fluphenazine)

416
Q

False negative formula

A

FN= (1-sensitivity %) x (n of ppl with disease)

417
Q

Isoproterenol is a ___ and ___ agonist

418
Q

Meckel diverticulum features

A

Failure of vitelline duct obliteration
Painless lower gastrointestinal bleeding and anemia
Dg with Tc-pertechnate scan
Usually by age 2

419
Q

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis key features

A

Asthma exacerbation with proximal beonchiectasis

420
Q

Organelle in charge of VLCFAs oxidation

A

Peroxisomes

421
Q

BRCA1 and 2 muts produce

A

Defective DNA break repair

422
Q

Block of C3-C7 will not only affect the brachial plexus but also cause

A

Phrenic nerve block -> ipsilat diaphragmatic paralysis

423
Q

Allergic rhinitis immune response order

A
  1. Sensitization -> T cell induction/activarion, B cell maturation and IgE production
  2. Repeat exposure-> IgE cross-link on mast cells -> IgE receptor aggregation
424
Q

outpouching from the ileum with a fibrous band connected to the umbilicus, think of

A

Meckel diverticulum

425
Q

When do implantation, gastro latino, neurulation and neural crest cell migration occur?

A

Week 1
Week 3
Week 4
End of week 5

426
Q

Blotchy red muscle fibers on Gomori trichrome stain are characteristic of

A

Mitochondrial myopathies

427
Q

Causes of neonatal hyperbilirubinemia

A

-physiologic RBC lysis
-decreased UDP glucuronosyltransferase
-increase enterohepatic circulation with increased beta-glucuronidase activity

428
Q

Which position helps relieve tetralogy of fallot and why?

A

Squatting -> increases SVR:PVR -> increases art [o2] -> relieves TET spell

429
Q

Pts with medullary thyroid Ca should be screened for ___ prior to sx

A

Pheochromocytoma in adrenal medulla (considering MEN2)

430
Q

Positive/negative sts favor prognosis in schizophrenia

431
Q

most important limiting factor for left ventricular myocardial blood supply

A

Duration of diastole

432
Q

Key feature of cardiac tamponade

A

Pulsus paradoxus: drop in pulse amplitude (SBP) during inspiration

433
Q

Hyperacute transplant rejection hietologic findings

A

Mottling
Cyanosis
Arterial fibrinoid necrosis
Thrombotic occlusion

434
Q

Acute transplant rejection hietologic findings

A

Lymphocytic interstitial infiltrate
C4d deposition
Neutro infiltrate
Necrotizing vasculitis

435
Q

Chronic transplant rejection hietologic findings

A

Vasc wall thickening
Interstitial fibrosis
Atrophy

436
Q

Main cause of SCD in young adults

437
Q

HCM form of inheritance

A

Autosomal dom

438
Q

Which Ca blocker do not affect cardiac musc (contractility, conduction)

A

Dihydropyridines
*will only cause vasodilation

439
Q

Transposition of great arteries (pulm art behind Ao) is due to embryonic failure of

A

Spiraling of aopulm septum

440
Q

How to treat beta blockers OD and mec

A

Glucagon -> Gprot-> cAMP increase -> Ca release-> HR, contractility and CO improvement

441
Q

Peripheral neuropathy + HF (beriberi), think of

A

Thiamine (B1) def

442
Q

Hemosiderin-laden macrophages (brown cells) are seen in the context of

A

Chronic passive lung congestion
*decrease LVS fx

443
Q

Phenylephrine mec and use

A

a-1-agonist that increases peripheral vascular resistance but without direct effect on heart. VR increases and baroreceptors activate PSNS lowering HR
Septic shock

444
Q

NB with cyanosis and narrow mediastinum, think of

A

Transposition of great arteries (parallel and systemic circuits)

445
Q

Cryptogenic stroke features

A

Evaluated with ecocardio bubble study: microbubblea seen in left heart
Associated to PFO and ASD (septal probs)

446
Q

What hemodinamic mec helps with forward flow in MR?

A

Decrease SVR

447
Q

Vasospatic angina features

A

<50 yo without RF for CAD
Self-limited Chest pain after 10-15min
Due to Endothelial dysfunction
Smoking is main RF

448
Q

Ascites as a result of RHF will have what portal capillaries parameters?

A

High hydrostatic P
Normal oncotic P
Normal capillary perm

449
Q

Which factor stimulates fibrosis?

450
Q

In the context of hipovolemia which lab findings are likely to increase

A

Hto
Alb serum
Uric acid serum

451
Q

How does on recognize tRNA?

A

RNA 90 nucleotides long with high chemically modified bases and cloverleaf-like structure. CCA is 3’ end molecule

452
Q

Proximal redial N injury will cause

A

Wrist drop (can’t extend wrist) and absent tricipital reflex

453
Q

What drugs can cause aplastic anemia

A

Carbamazepine, valproic acid
Chemo
Immunosuppressants
Sulfonamides

454
Q

Detrusor musc contraction causes ___ and its relaxation __

A

Urination
Urine retention

455
Q

Midline neck mass that moves upward when swallowing or protruding the tongue, think of

A

Thryroglosal duct cyst (incomplete obliteration)

456
Q

Acute facial flushing following accidental vitamin ingestion is highly suggestive of

A

Niacin (B3) toxicity. (Nicotinamide adenine precursor)

457
Q

Best dg test for trichomonas

A

Wet mount saline microscopy

458
Q

Lung vol changes in preterm NB with RDS

A

Low compliance
Low functional residual cap and total lung cap
High airway resistance (inflammation and edema from pneumocyte injury)

459
Q

Genital ulcers diseases:
Single painless
Multiple painful vesicles
Deep purulent and painful
Painless, no lymphad, serpiginous

A

Syphilis
HSV
Chancroid (H. ducreyi)
Granuloma inguinale (donovanosis)

460
Q

HSV tto

A

Valacyclovir indefinitely

461
Q

Mania or major depressive sts + hallucinations/ delusions, think of

A

Schizoaffective disorder

462
Q

Hospice care is provided to

A

Terminally ill pts with <6 mo prognosis
Tto is no longer beneficial/desired
Irreversible decline

463
Q

Only opioid drug that is a partial opioid agonist but has very high affinity, Can end up acting as an antagonist and produce withdrawal sts

A

Buprenorphine

464
Q

Pt who ate fava beans or took dapsone recently, presents with anemia, suspect___ and expect___ in blood work

A

G6PD def
High reticulocyte count, high lactate dehydrogenase, low haptoglobin, Heinz bodies (denature Hb)

465
Q

Most common trigger in AFib

A

Pulm veins

466
Q

Most common trigger in AFib

A

Pulm veins

467
Q

What does positively skewed distribution mean?

A

Mean is greater than mean and mode

468
Q

Gout producing conditions

A

Lympho/ Myeloproliferative
Tumor lysis
CKD
Diuretics

469
Q

HVB carrier presents with rapidly progressive anorexia, nausea, abdo pain, jaundice, tender hepatomegaly, think of

A

HDV superinfection

470
Q

Why does HDV need HBV to infect?

A

HDAg must be coated by external coat HBsAg

471
Q

Unilateral bloody breast discharge, think of ____. Microscopy expected___

A

Intraductal papilloma
Epithelial cells lining fibrovasc cores

472
Q

What organisms are cephalosporin resistant?

A

MRSA
Listeria
Enterococcus
Mycoplasma
Chlamydia

473
Q

Baby with Failure to thrive + developmental delay + orotic acid crystals, think of __. Supplement with

A

Hereditary orotic aciduria.
Uridine

474
Q

Wilson’s disease causes

A

Hepatic, neurological (slurred speech, altered gait) and psychiatric symptoms

475
Q

ToF produces 4 defects, these are

A

• RVOT obstruction
• Ventricular septal defect
• Overriding aorta
• Concentric RVH

476
Q

Hepatic Angiosarcoma is rare but it’s almost always associated to

A

Old man >60
Vynil chloride exposure

477
Q

Hepatic Angiosarcoma is rare but it’s almost always associated to

A

Old man >60
Vynil chloride exposure

478
Q

Graft-vs-host disease usually occur after__. Cells involved are__

A

Bone marrow transplant or lymphocyte-rich organs (liver) transplant
Graft T cells against Host MHC Ag

479
Q

Absent Achilles reflex, nerve root affected is

480
Q

Absent Patellar reflex, nerve root affected is

481
Q

HOX genes are in charge of coding prots that

A

Bind regulatory regions on DNA of target genes that participate in segmental org of the embryo

482
Q

NB with cleft-palate, polydactylia, umbilical hernia , focal lesion on scalp, microophthalmia, think of

A

Patau sd (trisomy 13)

483
Q

The metanephric blastema and diverticulum give rise to

A

-Glomeruli (all its parts), Bowman space.
-Major and minor calyces, collecting system, pelvis and ureters

484
Q

Sickle cell trait (heterozygous) pte are different to homozygous sickle cell disease pte bc

A

HbA remains higher than HbS throughout life making the pt usually asymptomatic and normal RBC, Hb and reticulocyte count

485
Q

Staph exotoxins produce a toxic shock sd due to

A

binding of toxins to large amounts of T-cells which release massive amounts of cytokines

486
Q

Only cytokine with anti-inflammatory properties

A

IL-10 (protective in Crohn’s disease)

487
Q

Narcolepsy key features

A

Cataplexy (loss of musc tone with strong emotions)
Low hypcretin-1 in CSF
Sleep paralysis and hallucinations

488
Q

Which organism can produce a mono-like sd with a negative aglutination test (no heterophile Ab-horse erythrocyte aglutination)

A

Cytomegalovirus (immunocompetent)
HHV-6, toxoplasmosis

489
Q

Which insurance option is preferable for paying low monthly premiums (payments) and copayments)

A

Health maintenance org
*con: no access to out-of-network providers

490
Q

Pros and cons of “Preferred provider org” insurance

A

Pros: very flexible chioces for both in or out network providers
Cons: very high premiums and deductibles

491
Q

Pros and cons of “Point of service” insurance plan

A

Pro: access to out of network providers
Cons: higher premiums than HMO and high prices if pt indeed goes to out-of-network providers

492
Q

Coccidioides features

A

Southwestern US (Arizona, New Mexico,California, Texas)
Transmision by endospore inhalation
Acute pneumonia or flu-like sts + erythema nodosum
Meningitis

493
Q

Niemann Pick disease buzz words

A

Ashkenazi Jews
Lysosomal storage disorder
Sphingomyelinase def->phospholipid accumulation-> hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, neuro sts, retinal opacification

494
Q

Isolated mitral stenosis vs combined mitral and Ao valve disease

A

MS: Backward blood transmission-> pulm HT
MS/Ao: increased LVDP

495
Q

Neuropathologic findings in frontotemp dementia ?

A

Tau prot inclusions

496
Q

Neuropathologic findings in Lewy bodies dementia ?

A

Alpha synuclein

497
Q

Integrase inh antivirals inhibit viral replication via

A

Preventing synthesis of mRNA

498
Q

Mycobacterium T main virulence factor

A

Serpentin cord formation (prevents macrophage-med destruction and makes granulomas)

499
Q

Supplement breast-feeded babies with

A

Vit D
Vit K
Iron (from 4mo until solid food introduction)

500
Q

Lower cutoff in a quantitative dg means

A

More ppl with disease will test positive (high sensitivity, low specificity )

501
Q

Small engagement ring inside RBC, think of

A

Plasmodium falciparum trophozoites

502
Q

Best tto for malaria

A

Artemisinin

503
Q

Specific marker for Primary biliary cholangitis

A

Antimitochondrial

504
Q

Specific marker for autoimmune hepatitis

A

Anti smooth musc

505
Q

Immuno def pt with necrotic ulcer and surrounding erythema, think of __ caused by__

A

Ecthyma gandrenosum by P. aeruginosa

506
Q

When the inheritance expected freq < actually inherited freq, it is called

A

Linkage disequilibrium

507
Q

Sulfonylureas mec

A

Stimulate endogenous pancreatic insulin secretions (elevate c-peptide level) indep of blood glucose levels

508
Q

Pt with outpouching from lieum with a fibrous band connected to umbilicus, hematochezia and intestinal obst signs, suspect

A

Meckel diverticulum

509
Q

Chronic lung transplant rejection is marked by submucosal lymphocytic inflammation in the

A

Walls of the small airways leading to bronchiolitis obliterans.

510
Q

In order to be recognized, stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA) must

A

Reléase factor 1

511
Q

In order to release catecholamines, which NT is needed to activate chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla?

512
Q

Extrapulm features of cystic fibrosis ?

A

Pancreatic insufficiency
Azoospermia
Failure to thrive

513
Q

Most common liver neoplasm in children

A

Hepatoblastoma

514
Q

4 top metastasis places

A

Lymph nodes
Liver
Lungs
Bone

515
Q

Why can fibrates produce gallstones ?

A

fibrates inhibit cholesterol 7a-hydroxylase which reduces bile acid production

516
Q

Cholesterol synthesis deps on

A

Thiolase and HMG-CoA

517
Q

Teenage girl with amenorrhea, normal secundary sexual features and cyclic abdominal pain, think of

A

Imperforate hymen -> blood obst -> hematocolpos (bulge in vagina, palpable ant to rectum)

518
Q

Immunocompromised with Spherical yeast with thick capsule seen on India ink staining, think of

A

Cryptococcus

519
Q

Esophagitis in immunocompromised features of Candida a, HSV, CMV

A

Ca: grey/white patches
HSV: small, punched-out (distinct) ulcers and intranuclear eosinophilic inclusions
CMV: large, linear ulcers

520
Q

dihydrobiopteridine reductase deficiency affects

A

Catecholamine, tyrosine and serotonine production
Phenylalanine accumulation

521
Q

N. gonorrheae reinfection main cause is

A

Antigenic variation

522
Q

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus are the most common immunosuppressants used in transplantation. They act inhibiting

A

Calcineurin -> no NFAT actv-> no IL-2 -> no T cell stimulation

523
Q

Which protein defect is associated with metastasis?

A

E-cadherin

524
Q

Which papillary musc is more likely to become ischemic after a MI? Why

A

Postmedial
Deps on a single artery (posterior descending artery, a branch of the right coronary artery or left circumflex artery)

525
Q

Consequence of excessive oxygen supplementation

A

Blood flow is redirected from well ventilated alveoli-> No CO2 exchange -> increasing dead space -> ventilation-perfusion -> Oxygen-induced hypercapnia

526
Q

Blunt abdo trauma commonly involves

A

Liver and spleen
Less commonly kidneys

527
Q

Assessment of pt’s decision making capability. Before discharge pt must be able to:

A

Communicate choice
Understand info
Appreciate consequences
Rationale (explain his decision)

528
Q

Infective endocarditis pathogenesis (steps)

A

Disruption normal endocardial surface
at areas or max blood flow
Fibrin deposition/nidus
Microorg colonization of nidus
*staphylo can affect normal or previously damaged cells

529
Q

Major depressive disorder sts are in SIGECAPS which mean

A

Lack of Sleep, interest, energy, concentration
Guilt
Appetite disturbances
Psychomotor retardation/agitation
Suicide ideation

530
Q

Both Takayasu and temporal arteritis are large-vessel vasculitis. Key differences

A

Takayasu: Female, <40, Ao branches, constitutional sd, claudication, pulse discrepancies (weak pulses), bruits, myalgias, arthralgias
Temporal: ppl >50, carotid branches, visual probs, headache, jaw claudication

531
Q

Histopathology of Takayasu arteritis

A

Granulomatous inflam of arterial media
Transmural fibrous thickening

532
Q

Which org cause head and neck squamous cell carcinoma

A

EBV: Nasopharyngeal. Has neck mass + nasal obstr + unilat ear effusion
HPV (16 and 18): Oropharyngeal. Young. Persistent throat pain + tonsil lesion

533
Q

Vasooclosive pain in sickle cell disease is due to

A

HbS allows hydrophobic interaction among hemoglobin molecules

534
Q

a p value <0.05 is ___ and >0.05__

A

Statistically significant
Non-statistically significant

535
Q

I’m cystic fibrosis mutations of CFTR causes

A

Abnormal prot folding

536
Q

Urethral folds evolution in males and females

A

Males: ventral aspect of penis (failure creates hypospadias)
Females: labia minora

537
Q

Epispadias vs hypospadia

A

Epi: faulty positioning of the genital tubercle
Hypo: faulty closure of urethral folds

538
Q

Cryptorchidism

A

Descend failure of testis into scrotum

539
Q

Multiple myeloma tto aims to ___ or ___

A

inhibit proteasome activity (bortezomib) or increase ubiquitination (lenalidomide)

540
Q

Girl with hypotension and posterior loss of consciousness after vaccination, think of

A

Vasovagal syncope, induced cardioinhibitory and vasodepressor response.

541
Q

Before operations, the following should be done

A

marking the operative site, independent verification of the patient, procedure, and site by 2 health care workers (a nurse and physician)

542
Q

Which molecule has an important role in granuloma formation?

A

Interferon-gamma

543
Q

Oppositional defiant disorder vs normal teen behavior

A

In ODD oppositional behavior is excessive in freq and duration (6mo or more)

544
Q

Increase Pol gene mutations mean

A

Inconsistent use of antiretroviral therapy.

545
Q

Symmetric pitting edema with frothy urine and history of NSAIDs use, think of

A

Nephrotic sd, membranous nephropathy

546
Q

Competitive vs noncompetitive antagonists curve

A

C: E50 increases (curve moves to the right)
N: Emax decreases (curve is lower but doesn’t move)

547
Q

Ao root dilation (ao aneurysm rel) is one of the most common causes of

A

Chronic Ao regurgitation

548
Q

Blood-testis barrier is composed of

A

Sertoli cells joined by tight junctions

549
Q

Antisperm bobies Can be the result of damage to the

A

Blood testis barrier (due to trauma or ischemia)

550
Q

E. Coli virulence factor for UTI

A

P-fimbriae

551
Q

E. Coli virulence factor for neonatal meningitis

A

Capsular polysaccharide

552
Q

Virulence factor that plays major role in septic shock

553
Q

Lack of thiamine B1 produces

A

Neuro sts (beriberi, wernicke-korsakoff)

554
Q

Lack of thiamine B1 produces

A

Neuro sts (beriberi, wernicke-korsakoff)

555
Q

Lack of Riboflavin B2, produces

A

Cheilosis, stomatitis, glossitis, normocytic anemia

556
Q

Lack of Niacin B3, produces

A

Pellagra (3 d’s)

557
Q

Lack of biotin B7, produces

A

Dermatitis, conjunctivitis, alopecia, neuro changes

558
Q

Lack of Ascórbico acid Vit C, produces

A

Scurvy (gingivitis, petechiae, musc pain, hemorrhage due to impaired wound healing, corkscrew hairs)

559
Q

What is transformation in bacteria?

A

Direct uptake of extracell DNA from a dying neighbor bacteria that allows them to gain virulence

560
Q

Which bacteria can undergo transformation?

A

Haemophilus, Streptococcus, Bacillus, and Neisseria species.

561
Q

Impaired ornithine transport affects hepatic urea cycle which causes ammonia to accumulate. Restriction of ___is the main Tto

562
Q

Widely, fixed and split S2 + systolic ejection murmur at left upper sternal border, think of

A

Atrial septal defect

563
Q

Pt with headache, diplopia, unable to move eye in any direction, fever , loss of upper facial sensation and corneal reflex. Think of

A

Cavernous sinus trombosis (usually by stapth)
*not brainstem infection cause there are no crossed signs, vertigo, ataxia

564
Q

Vasovagal syncope pathophysiology

A

Increased PSNS tone

565
Q

Transudative pleural effusion features

A

Low prot <0.5
Low LDH <0.5
Normal glucose
Common in HF, cirrhosis, nephrotic sd

566
Q

Dog bite bacteria

A

Pasteurella multocida
Pasteurella canis
Capnocytophaga canimorsus

567
Q

Cat bite bacteria

A

Pasteurella multocida
Bartonella henselae

568
Q

Human bite bacteria

A

Eikenella corrodens
Group A Streptococcus

569
Q

Which structure is commonly injured in thoracic and neck procedures?

A

Thoracic duct

570
Q

Lung Mass + constitutional sd+ progre prox weakness (from legs to arms) + diminished reflexes, think of

A

Paraneoplastic Lamber-Eaton myasthenic sd

571
Q

Lamber-Eaton myasthenic sd is produced by

A

antibodies against presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels -> no Ca+2 influx -> less ACh released -> no musc contraction

572
Q

Which myopathy is mostly associated to paraneoplastic sd

A

Dermatomyositos
*specially rel to adenocarcinoma

573
Q

Which org reqs salt for growth, is oxidase (+), gram-neg and comma shaped

A

V. Cholerae

574
Q

What enzyme makes the sputum green in bacterial infection?

A

Myeloperoxidase

575
Q

Cross-species influenza infections deps on

A

Hemagglutinin, surface glycoprotein

576
Q

Mitral regurgitation BP curve, describe

A

Left atrium curve peaks near mitral valve closing

577
Q

Mitral stenosis BP curve, describe

A

LA curve makes “wave pattern” and moves upwards as a whole

578
Q

Ao regurgitation BP curve, describe

A

Ao curve decreases prominently at valve opening and closing. Still peaks with LV curve tho.

579
Q

Anticholinergic toxicity sts

A

Hot as a hare
Dry as bone
Red as beet
Blind as a bat
Mad as a hatter
Full as a flask
Fast as a fiddle l

580
Q

Ao stenosis BP curve, describe

A

Ao curve does not peak with LV curve

581
Q

Drug given to counteract antiACh toxicity

A

Physostigmine (cholinestease inh -> more ACh available)

582
Q

CD40 fx

A

On activated CD4 T cell surface, key for signaling APCs( B cells make germinal center and switch class; Macrophages and dendritic make cytokines, MHCII and increase phagocytosis)

583
Q

Colitis rel colorectal Ca vs sporadic colorectal carcinoma

A

Colitis rel Ca: <55 yo, nonpolypoid, prox>distal, multifocal, multiple mucinous, early p53 but late APC mutation
Sporadic: the opposite

584
Q

Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma pt profile

A

Male, >50yo, smoking and OH use history and dysphagia

585
Q

Which ribs are associated to the spleen and kidneys

A

Spleen: 9-10-11 (post sup portion of left abdominal cavity)
Kidneys: 11-12

586
Q

While total serum AlkP levels may be unspecific, high serum levels indicate

A

High osteoblastic activity (promotes bone mineralization)

587
Q

Cholecystokinin fx

A

Increase secretion pancreatic enzymes and HCO3

588
Q

Pt with watery diarrhea, hypoK, achorhydria, what enzyme is prob def?

A

Vasoactive intestinal peptide (think of VIPoma)

589
Q

Alanine transamination steps

A
  1. Amino group-> a-keroglutare-> Glutamate is formed
  2. Glutamate-> glutamate dehydrogenase-> ammonia
  3. Ammonia-> urea cycle-> urea
590
Q

Neurologic disease rel to cystic degeneration of the putamen

A

Wilson’s disease

591
Q

Structure affected by Hungtinto’s disease

A

Caudate nucleus

592
Q

What’s used to prolong the duration of action of local anesthetics?

A

Epinephrine (vasoconstriction-> less blood flow -> more of the drug remains in place)

593
Q

Niemann-Pick vs Tay-sachs disease

A

Common: Ashkenazi jews, cherry red macula, recessive
Pick: Sphingomyelonase def, areflexia, hepatosplienomegaly
Tay: B-hexosaminidase A def, huperreflex, normal abdo exam

594
Q

Corneal reflex nerves

A

CN V1 with CN VII

595
Q

Cough reflex nerves

596
Q

Gag and carotid sinus reflexes nerves

A

CN IX and X

597
Q

Jaw jerk reflex

598
Q

Granulosa cell tumor of ovary features

A

Unilat adnexal yellow mass in post-meno woman (>45yo)
Estrogen producer -> Post-meno bleeding
Cuboidal granulosa cells with eosinophilic material

599
Q

Yolk sac ovarian tumor buzzwords

A

Schiller-duval bodies that resemble glomeruli
Young women
a-fetoprotein

600
Q

Polysaccaride (capsule) vaccine vs Polysaccaride-prot conjugated vaccine

A
  1. Only B cell resp, for kids >2yo
    2.B and T cell resp, kids <2yo (need extra help due to immature humoral immunity)
601
Q

Amanita mushroom toxicity mec

A

mRNA synthesis inh

602
Q

14 yo girl with external female genitals but int male ones, dg

A

5-a-reductase def

603
Q

Immunocompromised with nucal regidity, CSF will most likely reveal___ typical of___

A

Lancet-shaped gram-positive cocci
Strepto pneumoniae

604
Q

Bulimia Nervosa tto

A

CBT
Nutri rehab
Fluoxetine (SSRI)

605
Q

Anorexia nervosa tto

A

CBT
Nutri rehab
Olazapine

606
Q

Classic histopathological findings of Alzheimer’s

A

amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. Neuritic (senile) plaques in medial temporal lobes

607
Q

Corkscrew hairs are seen in scurvy due to impaired ___ in ___

A

Collagen synthesis in RER (Vit c needed for hydroxylation of proline and lysine)

608
Q

Hyper- igE sd features

A

-Auto dom
-Jak-stat defective -> less Th17-> reduced neutros
-Chronic eczema, recurrent non-inflam abscesses and sinopulm infections
-only igE is elevated, rest Igs ok

609
Q

Subfalcine herniation features

A

Beneath falx recerebri
Contralat leg weakness

610
Q

Uncal herniation features

A

Under tentorium cerebelli
Ipsilat dilated and fixed pupil
Hemiparesis

611
Q

Miltinone is a selective PDE-3 inh that causes

A

Ca reputable and increases intracel influx -> positive inotropy and vasodilator

612
Q

Which artery is anatomically related to the splenic artery?

A

Short gastric

613
Q

In Klinefelter sd gynecomastia is produced due to

A

Lack of inh of LH/TSH due to defective Leydig cells and and low inhibin levels -> low testo

614
Q

Months old baby girl with developmental regression and stereotypic hand movements, dg

615
Q

Drooping of shoulder, no abduction pass 100 degrees, lat scapula displaced, musc hurt is

A

Trapezius
*Deltoid is pass 30 degrees

616
Q

Improved ventilation in prone positioning occurs due to

A

Less compression from heart and other organs-> alveoli opened, ventilation is more evenly distributed
*Better V-P matching

617
Q

Pt with history of caries or recent dental extraction, Indurated mass, no pain, think of ___. Main feature is

A

Actinomyces
Filamentous, branching, gram-positive bacilli

618
Q

Fat embolism main RF

A

Long-bone fx

619
Q

Pt with poor night vision, visual field loss, and funduscopic changes (pigment accumulation, optic disc pallor, retinal vessel attenuation) consistent with

A

retinitis pigmentosa, a genetic disease characterized by progressive dystrophy